Evolve HESI Comprehensive Exam: Achieve
Excellence with Expert-Verified Questions and
Answers from Leading Educators Worldwide
After one month of short-term corticosteroid therapy, a client with an acute exacerbation of
rheumatiod arthritis returns to the clinic for a follow up visit. Which laboratory finding
should the nurse review for a therapeutic response? - CORRECT ANS- -Erythrocyte
sedimentation rate.
An elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) is indicative of active inflammation, so
the nurse should determine if the ESR has normalized (D). Although corticosteroids
influence glucose metabolism, an elevation in (A) may indicate a side-effect response to
exogenous corticosteroids, not a desired effect. (B and C) do not indicate a therapeutic
response to the corticosteroid therapy.
A male client who lives in an area endemic with lyme disease asks the nurse what to do if
he thinks he may have been exposed. Which response should the nurse provide? -
CORRECT ANS- -Look for early signs of lesion that increases in size with a red border, clear
center.
The client should look for the early signs of localized Lyme disease known as erythema
migrans, a skin lesion that slowly expands to form a large round lesion with a bright red
border and clear center (B) at the site of the tick bite. A tick should be removed with
tweezers by pulling straight from its insertion away from the skin, and not compressing its
body or covering it with oil (A). Lyme disease is caused by the spirochete, Borrelia
burgdorferi, which is transmitted by the bite of an infected deer tick, and antiviral agents (D)
are ineffective. Symptoms, such as fever, chills, headache, stiff neck, fatigue, and swollen
lymph nodes are more typical, not nausea and vomiting (C).
The nurse is planning a teaching program about prenatal care for a diverse ethnic group of
clients. Which factor is most influential for the acceptance of the healthcare practices? -
CORRECT ANS- -Individual beliefs
,The client's beliefs (C) are key to accepting healthcare practices and interventions.
Although (A, B, and D) influence an individual's interpretation and acceptance of different
healthcare practices, (C) is most influential.
A female client tells the nurse that her home pregnancy test is positive and her last
menstrual period (LMP) was febuary 14. the client wants to know the expected date of birth
(EDB) how should the nurse respond? - CORRECT ANS- -November 21
Subract 3 months and add 7 days to the first day of the last normal menstrual period.
Using Nägele's rule to calculate EDB, subtract 3 months and add 7 days to the first day of
the last normal menstrual period. The client's LMP is February 14, so less 3 months + 7
days is November 21 (B) of the next year. (A, C, and D) are inaccurate.
Two hours after vaginal devilry of a 7-pound 3 ounces infant, a clients fundus is 3 cm above
the umbilicus, boggy, and located to the right of midline. Which action should the nurse
take first? - CORRECT ANS- -Palpate above the symphysis for the bladder.
Two hours after giving birth, the uterus should be firm, in the midline, and below the
umbilicus. If the fundus is high, dextroverted and boggy, urinary retention is likely
distending the bladder, so palpating for a full bladder above the symphysis (B) should be
implemented first. (A, C, and D) are implemented after the client voids or the bladder is
emptied by catheterization.
The clinic nurse identifies an elevation in the results of the triple marker screening test for a
client who id in the first trimester of pregnancy . which action should the nurse prepare the
client for? - CORRECT ANS- -Preparing for other diagnostic testing
The triple marker screen measures maternal serum levels for alpha-fetoprotein (AFP),
human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG), and estriol, which screens for indications of
, possible fetal defects. An elevated result may be a false indicator, so other tests are
indicated (B). (A) is not necessary or helpful. Elevated results warrant further testing with
ultrasound or amniocentesis before initiating (C or D).
Which finding should the nurse idnetify as an early clinical manifestation of neonatal
encephalopathy related to hyperbilirubinemia? - CORRECT ANS- -Lethargy or irritability
Hyperbilirubinemia causes severe brain damage, encephalopathy (kernicterus), that
results from the deposition of unconjugated bilirubin in brain cells. Prodromal clinical
manifestations of central nervous system involvement include decreased activity, a loss of
interest in feeding, and lethargy or irritability (C). Without treatment, progressive signs of
neurologic damage include (A, B, and D).
Which action should the nurse implement when administering a prescription drug that
should be given on an empty stomach? - CORRECT ANS- -Give one hour before or two
hours after a meal
When administering a drug on an empty stomach, the drug should be given either one hour
before a meal or two hours after a meal (B), which is the average transit time from the
stomach to the duodenum after eating. An eight-hour fast is more time than is needed for
the stomach to empty (C) and is not necessary. The last time any food or drink has been
ingested is a better indicator of an empty stomach, rather than after the client has missed a
meal (C). Some liquids, such as grapefruit juice, can alter the drug's dilution and
absorption (D).
A male client with a history of chronic back pain that was managed with opiate analgesics
calls the nurse after having back surgery. The client reports that the back pain is finally
gone, but after stopping the pain medication, the client has been having severe diarrhea
and painful muscle cramps. Which assessment information should the nurse obtain next?
- CORRECT ANS- -When did the symptoms begin after the last dose of opiate analgesic?
Excellence with Expert-Verified Questions and
Answers from Leading Educators Worldwide
After one month of short-term corticosteroid therapy, a client with an acute exacerbation of
rheumatiod arthritis returns to the clinic for a follow up visit. Which laboratory finding
should the nurse review for a therapeutic response? - CORRECT ANS- -Erythrocyte
sedimentation rate.
An elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) is indicative of active inflammation, so
the nurse should determine if the ESR has normalized (D). Although corticosteroids
influence glucose metabolism, an elevation in (A) may indicate a side-effect response to
exogenous corticosteroids, not a desired effect. (B and C) do not indicate a therapeutic
response to the corticosteroid therapy.
A male client who lives in an area endemic with lyme disease asks the nurse what to do if
he thinks he may have been exposed. Which response should the nurse provide? -
CORRECT ANS- -Look for early signs of lesion that increases in size with a red border, clear
center.
The client should look for the early signs of localized Lyme disease known as erythema
migrans, a skin lesion that slowly expands to form a large round lesion with a bright red
border and clear center (B) at the site of the tick bite. A tick should be removed with
tweezers by pulling straight from its insertion away from the skin, and not compressing its
body or covering it with oil (A). Lyme disease is caused by the spirochete, Borrelia
burgdorferi, which is transmitted by the bite of an infected deer tick, and antiviral agents (D)
are ineffective. Symptoms, such as fever, chills, headache, stiff neck, fatigue, and swollen
lymph nodes are more typical, not nausea and vomiting (C).
The nurse is planning a teaching program about prenatal care for a diverse ethnic group of
clients. Which factor is most influential for the acceptance of the healthcare practices? -
CORRECT ANS- -Individual beliefs
,The client's beliefs (C) are key to accepting healthcare practices and interventions.
Although (A, B, and D) influence an individual's interpretation and acceptance of different
healthcare practices, (C) is most influential.
A female client tells the nurse that her home pregnancy test is positive and her last
menstrual period (LMP) was febuary 14. the client wants to know the expected date of birth
(EDB) how should the nurse respond? - CORRECT ANS- -November 21
Subract 3 months and add 7 days to the first day of the last normal menstrual period.
Using Nägele's rule to calculate EDB, subtract 3 months and add 7 days to the first day of
the last normal menstrual period. The client's LMP is February 14, so less 3 months + 7
days is November 21 (B) of the next year. (A, C, and D) are inaccurate.
Two hours after vaginal devilry of a 7-pound 3 ounces infant, a clients fundus is 3 cm above
the umbilicus, boggy, and located to the right of midline. Which action should the nurse
take first? - CORRECT ANS- -Palpate above the symphysis for the bladder.
Two hours after giving birth, the uterus should be firm, in the midline, and below the
umbilicus. If the fundus is high, dextroverted and boggy, urinary retention is likely
distending the bladder, so palpating for a full bladder above the symphysis (B) should be
implemented first. (A, C, and D) are implemented after the client voids or the bladder is
emptied by catheterization.
The clinic nurse identifies an elevation in the results of the triple marker screening test for a
client who id in the first trimester of pregnancy . which action should the nurse prepare the
client for? - CORRECT ANS- -Preparing for other diagnostic testing
The triple marker screen measures maternal serum levels for alpha-fetoprotein (AFP),
human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG), and estriol, which screens for indications of
, possible fetal defects. An elevated result may be a false indicator, so other tests are
indicated (B). (A) is not necessary or helpful. Elevated results warrant further testing with
ultrasound or amniocentesis before initiating (C or D).
Which finding should the nurse idnetify as an early clinical manifestation of neonatal
encephalopathy related to hyperbilirubinemia? - CORRECT ANS- -Lethargy or irritability
Hyperbilirubinemia causes severe brain damage, encephalopathy (kernicterus), that
results from the deposition of unconjugated bilirubin in brain cells. Prodromal clinical
manifestations of central nervous system involvement include decreased activity, a loss of
interest in feeding, and lethargy or irritability (C). Without treatment, progressive signs of
neurologic damage include (A, B, and D).
Which action should the nurse implement when administering a prescription drug that
should be given on an empty stomach? - CORRECT ANS- -Give one hour before or two
hours after a meal
When administering a drug on an empty stomach, the drug should be given either one hour
before a meal or two hours after a meal (B), which is the average transit time from the
stomach to the duodenum after eating. An eight-hour fast is more time than is needed for
the stomach to empty (C) and is not necessary. The last time any food or drink has been
ingested is a better indicator of an empty stomach, rather than after the client has missed a
meal (C). Some liquids, such as grapefruit juice, can alter the drug's dilution and
absorption (D).
A male client with a history of chronic back pain that was managed with opiate analgesics
calls the nurse after having back surgery. The client reports that the back pain is finally
gone, but after stopping the pain medication, the client has been having severe diarrhea
and painful muscle cramps. Which assessment information should the nurse obtain next?
- CORRECT ANS- -When did the symptoms begin after the last dose of opiate analgesic?
