NCLEX-RN ACTUAL EXAM. TEST
BANK WITH REAL QUESTIONS &
ANSWERS NCLEX 2025 | NCLEX
EXAM.
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QUESTION 1
Which classification of drugs is contraindicated for the client with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy?
A. Positive inotropes
B. Vasodilators
C. Diuretics
D. Antidysrhythmics
Answer: A
Explanation:
(A) Positive inotropic agents should not be administered owing to their action of increasing myocardial
contractility. Increased ventricular contractility would increase outflow tract obstruction in the client with
hypertrophic cardiomyopathy. (B) Vasodilators are not typically prescribed but are not contraindicated. (C)
Diuretics are used with caution to avoid causing hypovolemi
A. (D) Antidysrhythmics are typically needed to treat both atrial and ventricular dysrhythmias.
QUESTION 2
Signs and symptoms of an allergy attack include which of the following?
A. Wheezing on inspiration
B. Increased respiratory rate
C. Circumoral cyanosis
D. Prolonged expiration
Answer: D
Explanation:
(A) Wheezing occurs during expiration when air movement is impaired because of constricted edematous
bronchial lumin
A. (B) Respirations are difficult, but the rate is frequently normal. (C) The circumoral area is usually pale.
Cyanosis is not an early sign of hypoxi
A. (D) Expiration is prolonged because the alveoli are greatly distended and air trapping occurs.
QUESTION 3
A client confides to the nurse that he tasted poison in his evening meal. This would be an example of what type
of hallucination?
A. Auditory
B. Gustatory
C. Olfactory
D. Visceral
Answer: B
Explanation:
(A) Auditory hallucinations involve sensory perceptions of hearing. (B) Gustatory hallucinations involve
sensory perceptions of taste. (C) Olfactory hallucinations involve sensory perceptions of smell. (D) Visceral
hallucinations involve sensory perceptions of sensation.
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QUESTION 4
Which of the following findings would be abnormal in a postpartal woman?
A. Chills shortly after delivery
B. Pulse rate of 60 bpm in morning on first postdelivery day
C. Urinary output of 3000 mL on the second day after delivery
D. An oral temperature of 101F (38.3C) on the third day after delivery
Answer: D
Explanation:
(A) Frequently the mother experiences a shaking chill immediately after delivery, which is related to a nervous
response or to vasomotor changes. If not followed by a fever, it is clinically innocuous. (B) The pulse rate
during the immediate postpartal period may be low but presents no cause for alarm. The body attempts to adapt
to the decreased pressures intra-abdominally as well as from the reduction of blood flow to the vascular bed. (C)
Urinary output increases during the early postpartal period (12–24 hours) owing to diuresis. The kidneys must
eliminate an estimated 2000–3000 mL of extracellular fluid associated with a normal pregnancy. (D) A
temperature of 100.4F (38C) may occur after delivery as a result of exertion and dehydration of labor. However,
any temperature greater than 100.4F needs further investigation to identify any infectious process.
QUESTION 5
A six-month-old infant has been admitted to the emergency room with febrile seizures. In the teaching of the
parents, the nurse states that:
A. Sustained temperature elevation over 103F is generally related to febrile seizures
B. Febrile seizures do not usually recur
C. There is little risk of neurological deficit and mental retardation as sequelae to febrile seizures
D. Febrile seizures are associated with diseases of the central nervous system
Answer: C
Explanation:
(A) The temperature elevation related to febrile seizures generally exceeds 101F, and seizures occur during the
temperature rise rather than after a prolonged elevation. (B) Febrile seizures may recur and are more likely to do
so when the first seizure occurs in the 1st year of life. (C) There is little risk of neurological deficit, mental
retardation, or altered behavior secondary to febrile seizures. (D) Febrile seizures are associated with disease of
the central nervous system.
QUESTION 6
A client diagnosed with bipolar disorder continues to be hyperactive and to lose weight. Which of the following
nutritional interventions would be most therapeutic for him at this time?
A. Small, frequent feedings of foods that can be carried
B. Tube feedings with nutritional supplements
C. Allowing him to eat when and what he wants
D. Giving him a quiet place where he can sit down to eat meals
Answer: A
Explanation:
(A) The manic client is unable to sit still long enough to eat an adequate meal. Small, frequent feedings with
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finger foods Pallow Phim Pto Peat Pduring Pperiods Pof Pactivity. P(B) PThis Ptype Pof Ptherapy Pshould Pbe
Pimplemented Pwhen Pother Pmethods Phave Pbeen Pexhausted. P(C) PThe Pmanic Pclient Pshould Pnot Pbe Pin
Pcontrol Pof Phis Ptreatment Pplan. PThis Ptype Pof Pclient Pmay Pforget Pto Peat. P(D) PThe Pmanic Pclient Pis Punable
Pto Psit Pdown Pto Peat Pfull Pmeals.
QUESTION P7
A Pclient Pwith Pbipolar Pdisorder Ptaking Plithium Ptells Pthe Pnurse Pthat Phe Phas Pringing Pin Phis Pears, Pblurred
Pvision, Pand Pdiarrhe
A. PThe Pnurse Pnotices Pa Pslight Ptremor Pin Phis Pleft Phand Pand Pa Pslurring Ppattern Pto Phis Pspeech. PWhich Pof Pthe
Pfollowing Pactions Pby Pthe Pnurse Pis Pappropriate?
A. PAdminister Pa Pstat Pdose Pof Plithium Pas Pnecessary.
B. PRecognize Pthis Pas Pan Pexpected Presponse Pto Plithium.
C. PRequest Pan Porder Pfor Pa Pstat Pblood Plithium Plevel.
D. PGive Pan Poral Pdose Pof Plithium Pantidote.
Answer: PC
PExplanation:
(A) These Psymptoms Pare Pindicative Pof Plithium Ptoxicity. PA Pstat Pdose Pof Plithium Pcould Pbe Pfatal.
(B) These Pare Ptoxic Peffects Pof Plithium Ptherapy. P(C) PThe Pclient Pis Pexhibiting Psymptoms Pof Plithium
Ptoxicity, Pwhich Pmay Pbe Pvalidated Pby Plab Pstudies. P(D) PThere Pis Pno Pknown Plithium Pantidote.
QUESTION P8
A Pdiagnosis Pof Phepatitis PC Pis Pconfirmed Pby Pa Pmale Pclient’s Pphysician. PThe Pnurse Pshould Pbe Pknowledgeable
Pof Pthe Pdifferences Pbetween Phepatitis PA, PB, Pand PC. PWhich Pof Pthe Pfollowing Pare Pcharacteristics Pof Phepatitis
PC?
A. The Ppotential Pfor Pchronic Pliver Pdisease Pis Pminimal.
B. The Ponset Pof Psymptoms Pis Pabrupt.
C. The Pincubation Pperiod Pis P2–26 Pweeks.
D. There Pis Pan Peffective Pvaccine Pfor Phepatitis PB, Pbut Pnot Pfor Phepatitis PC.
Answer: PC
PExplanation:
(A) PHepatitis PC Pand PB Pmay Presult Pin Pchronic Pliver Pdisease. PHepatitis PA Phas Pa Plow Ppotential Pfor
Pchronic Pliver Pdisease. P(B) PHepatitis PC Pand PB Phave Pinsidious Ponsets. PHepatitis PA Phas Pan Pabrupt Ponset.
P(C) PIncubation Pperiods Pare Pas Pfollows: Phepatitis PC Pis P2–26 Pweeks, Phepatitis PB Pis P6–20 Pweeks, Pand
Phepatitis PA Pis P2–6 Pweeks. P(D) POnly Phepatitis PB Phas Pan Peffective Pvaccine.
QUESTION P9
Hypoxia Pis Pthe Pprimary Pproblem Prelated Pto Pnear-drowning Pvictims. PThe Pfirst Porgan Pthat Psustains
Pirreversible Pdamage Pafter Psubmersion Pin Pwater Pis Pthe:
A. Kidney P(urinary Psystem)
B. Brain P(nervous Psystem)
C. Heart P(circulatory Psystem)
D. Lungs P(respiratory Psystem)
Answer: PB
PExplanation:
BANK WITH REAL QUESTIONS &
ANSWERS NCLEX 2025 | NCLEX
EXAM.
, NCLEX NCLEX-RN
QUESTION 1
Which classification of drugs is contraindicated for the client with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy?
A. Positive inotropes
B. Vasodilators
C. Diuretics
D. Antidysrhythmics
Answer: A
Explanation:
(A) Positive inotropic agents should not be administered owing to their action of increasing myocardial
contractility. Increased ventricular contractility would increase outflow tract obstruction in the client with
hypertrophic cardiomyopathy. (B) Vasodilators are not typically prescribed but are not contraindicated. (C)
Diuretics are used with caution to avoid causing hypovolemi
A. (D) Antidysrhythmics are typically needed to treat both atrial and ventricular dysrhythmias.
QUESTION 2
Signs and symptoms of an allergy attack include which of the following?
A. Wheezing on inspiration
B. Increased respiratory rate
C. Circumoral cyanosis
D. Prolonged expiration
Answer: D
Explanation:
(A) Wheezing occurs during expiration when air movement is impaired because of constricted edematous
bronchial lumin
A. (B) Respirations are difficult, but the rate is frequently normal. (C) The circumoral area is usually pale.
Cyanosis is not an early sign of hypoxi
A. (D) Expiration is prolonged because the alveoli are greatly distended and air trapping occurs.
QUESTION 3
A client confides to the nurse that he tasted poison in his evening meal. This would be an example of what type
of hallucination?
A. Auditory
B. Gustatory
C. Olfactory
D. Visceral
Answer: B
Explanation:
(A) Auditory hallucinations involve sensory perceptions of hearing. (B) Gustatory hallucinations involve
sensory perceptions of taste. (C) Olfactory hallucinations involve sensory perceptions of smell. (D) Visceral
hallucinations involve sensory perceptions of sensation.
, NCLEX NCLEX-RN
QUESTION 4
Which of the following findings would be abnormal in a postpartal woman?
A. Chills shortly after delivery
B. Pulse rate of 60 bpm in morning on first postdelivery day
C. Urinary output of 3000 mL on the second day after delivery
D. An oral temperature of 101F (38.3C) on the third day after delivery
Answer: D
Explanation:
(A) Frequently the mother experiences a shaking chill immediately after delivery, which is related to a nervous
response or to vasomotor changes. If not followed by a fever, it is clinically innocuous. (B) The pulse rate
during the immediate postpartal period may be low but presents no cause for alarm. The body attempts to adapt
to the decreased pressures intra-abdominally as well as from the reduction of blood flow to the vascular bed. (C)
Urinary output increases during the early postpartal period (12–24 hours) owing to diuresis. The kidneys must
eliminate an estimated 2000–3000 mL of extracellular fluid associated with a normal pregnancy. (D) A
temperature of 100.4F (38C) may occur after delivery as a result of exertion and dehydration of labor. However,
any temperature greater than 100.4F needs further investigation to identify any infectious process.
QUESTION 5
A six-month-old infant has been admitted to the emergency room with febrile seizures. In the teaching of the
parents, the nurse states that:
A. Sustained temperature elevation over 103F is generally related to febrile seizures
B. Febrile seizures do not usually recur
C. There is little risk of neurological deficit and mental retardation as sequelae to febrile seizures
D. Febrile seizures are associated with diseases of the central nervous system
Answer: C
Explanation:
(A) The temperature elevation related to febrile seizures generally exceeds 101F, and seizures occur during the
temperature rise rather than after a prolonged elevation. (B) Febrile seizures may recur and are more likely to do
so when the first seizure occurs in the 1st year of life. (C) There is little risk of neurological deficit, mental
retardation, or altered behavior secondary to febrile seizures. (D) Febrile seizures are associated with disease of
the central nervous system.
QUESTION 6
A client diagnosed with bipolar disorder continues to be hyperactive and to lose weight. Which of the following
nutritional interventions would be most therapeutic for him at this time?
A. Small, frequent feedings of foods that can be carried
B. Tube feedings with nutritional supplements
C. Allowing him to eat when and what he wants
D. Giving him a quiet place where he can sit down to eat meals
Answer: A
Explanation:
(A) The manic client is unable to sit still long enough to eat an adequate meal. Small, frequent feedings with
, NCLEX NCLEX-RN
finger foods Pallow Phim Pto Peat Pduring Pperiods Pof Pactivity. P(B) PThis Ptype Pof Ptherapy Pshould Pbe
Pimplemented Pwhen Pother Pmethods Phave Pbeen Pexhausted. P(C) PThe Pmanic Pclient Pshould Pnot Pbe Pin
Pcontrol Pof Phis Ptreatment Pplan. PThis Ptype Pof Pclient Pmay Pforget Pto Peat. P(D) PThe Pmanic Pclient Pis Punable
Pto Psit Pdown Pto Peat Pfull Pmeals.
QUESTION P7
A Pclient Pwith Pbipolar Pdisorder Ptaking Plithium Ptells Pthe Pnurse Pthat Phe Phas Pringing Pin Phis Pears, Pblurred
Pvision, Pand Pdiarrhe
A. PThe Pnurse Pnotices Pa Pslight Ptremor Pin Phis Pleft Phand Pand Pa Pslurring Ppattern Pto Phis Pspeech. PWhich Pof Pthe
Pfollowing Pactions Pby Pthe Pnurse Pis Pappropriate?
A. PAdminister Pa Pstat Pdose Pof Plithium Pas Pnecessary.
B. PRecognize Pthis Pas Pan Pexpected Presponse Pto Plithium.
C. PRequest Pan Porder Pfor Pa Pstat Pblood Plithium Plevel.
D. PGive Pan Poral Pdose Pof Plithium Pantidote.
Answer: PC
PExplanation:
(A) These Psymptoms Pare Pindicative Pof Plithium Ptoxicity. PA Pstat Pdose Pof Plithium Pcould Pbe Pfatal.
(B) These Pare Ptoxic Peffects Pof Plithium Ptherapy. P(C) PThe Pclient Pis Pexhibiting Psymptoms Pof Plithium
Ptoxicity, Pwhich Pmay Pbe Pvalidated Pby Plab Pstudies. P(D) PThere Pis Pno Pknown Plithium Pantidote.
QUESTION P8
A Pdiagnosis Pof Phepatitis PC Pis Pconfirmed Pby Pa Pmale Pclient’s Pphysician. PThe Pnurse Pshould Pbe Pknowledgeable
Pof Pthe Pdifferences Pbetween Phepatitis PA, PB, Pand PC. PWhich Pof Pthe Pfollowing Pare Pcharacteristics Pof Phepatitis
PC?
A. The Ppotential Pfor Pchronic Pliver Pdisease Pis Pminimal.
B. The Ponset Pof Psymptoms Pis Pabrupt.
C. The Pincubation Pperiod Pis P2–26 Pweeks.
D. There Pis Pan Peffective Pvaccine Pfor Phepatitis PB, Pbut Pnot Pfor Phepatitis PC.
Answer: PC
PExplanation:
(A) PHepatitis PC Pand PB Pmay Presult Pin Pchronic Pliver Pdisease. PHepatitis PA Phas Pa Plow Ppotential Pfor
Pchronic Pliver Pdisease. P(B) PHepatitis PC Pand PB Phave Pinsidious Ponsets. PHepatitis PA Phas Pan Pabrupt Ponset.
P(C) PIncubation Pperiods Pare Pas Pfollows: Phepatitis PC Pis P2–26 Pweeks, Phepatitis PB Pis P6–20 Pweeks, Pand
Phepatitis PA Pis P2–6 Pweeks. P(D) POnly Phepatitis PB Phas Pan Peffective Pvaccine.
QUESTION P9
Hypoxia Pis Pthe Pprimary Pproblem Prelated Pto Pnear-drowning Pvictims. PThe Pfirst Porgan Pthat Psustains
Pirreversible Pdamage Pafter Psubmersion Pin Pwater Pis Pthe:
A. Kidney P(urinary Psystem)
B. Brain P(nervous Psystem)
C. Heart P(circulatory Psystem)
D. Lungs P(respiratory Psystem)
Answer: PB
PExplanation:
