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Test Bank for NCLEX-RN 2025 Test Bank with All Chapters QUESTION 1 Which classification of drugs is contraindicated for the client with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy? A. Positive inotropes B. Vasodilators C. Diuretics D. Antidysrhythmics Answer: A Explanation: (A) Positive inotropic agents...

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NCLEX-RN 2025 Test Bank with All Chapters


QUESTION 1
Which classification of drugs is contraindicated for the client with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy?

A. Positive inotropes
B. Vasodilators
C. Diuretics
D. Antidysrhythmics

Answer: A
Explanation:
(A) Positive inotropic agents should not be administered owing to their action of increasing myocardial
contractility. Increased ventricular contractility would increase outflow tract obstruction in the client with
hypertrophic cardiomyopathy. (B) Vasodilators are not typically prescribed but are not contraindicated. (C)
Diuretics are used with caution to avoid causing hypovolemi
A. (D) Antidysrhythmics are typically needed to treat both atrial and ventricular dysrhythmias.

QUESTION 2
Signs and symptoms of an allergy attack include which of the following?

A. Wheezing on inspiration
B. Increased respiratory rate
C. Circumoral cyanosis
D. Prolonged expiration

Answer: D
Explanation:
(A) Wheezing occurs during expiration when air movement is impaired because of constricted edematous
bronchial lumin
A. (B) Respirations are difficult, but the rate is frequently normal. (C) The circumoral area is usually pale.
Cyanosis is not an early sign of hypoxi
A. (D) Expiration is prolonged because the alveoli are greatly distended and air trapping occurs.

QUESTION 3
A client confides to the nurse that he tasted poison in his evening meal. This would be an example of what type
of hallucination?

A. Auditory
B. Gustatory
C. Olfactory
D. Visceral

Answer: B
Explanation:
(A) Auditory hallucinations involve sensory perceptions of hearing. (B) Gustatory hallucinations involve
sensory perceptions of taste. (C) Olfactory hallucinations involve sensory perceptions of smell. (D) Visceral
hallucinations involve sensory perceptions of sensation.

, NCLEX-RN

QUESTION 4
Which of the following findings would be abnormal in a postpartal woman?

A. Chills shortly after delivery
B. Pulse rate of 60 bpm in morning on first postdelivery day
C. Urinary output of 3000 mL on the second day after delivery
D. An oral temperature of 101F (38.3C) on the third day after delivery

Answer: D
Explanation:
(A) Frequently the mother experiences a shaking chill immediately after delivery, which is related to a nervous
response or to vasomotor changes. If not followed by a fever, it is clinically innocuous. (B) The pulse rate
during the immediate postpartal period may be low but presents no cause for alarm. The body attempts to adapt
to the decreased pressures intra-abdominally as well as from the reduction of blood flow to the vascular bed. (C)
Urinary output increases during the early postpartal period (12–24 hours) owing to diuresis. The kidneys must
eliminate an estimated 2000–3000 mL of extracellular fluid associated with a normal pregnancy. (D) A
temperature of 100.4F (38C) may occur after delivery as a result of exertion and dehydration of labor. However,
any temperature greater than 100.4F needs further investigation to identify any infectious process.

QUESTION 5
A six-month-old infant has been admitted to the emergency room with febrile seizures. In the teaching of the
parents, the nurse states that:

A. Sustained temperature elevation over 103F is generally related to febrile seizures
B. Febrile seizures do not usually recur
C. There is little risk of neurological deficit and mental retardation as sequelae to febrile seizures
D. Febrile seizures are associated with diseases of the central nervous system

Answer: C
Explanation:
(A) The temperature elevation related to febrile seizures generally exceeds 101F, and seizures occur during the
temperature rise rather than after a prolonged elevation. (B) Febrile seizures may recur and are more likely to do
so when the first seizure occurs in the 1st year of life. (C) There is little risk of neurological deficit, mental
retardation, or altered behavior secondary to febrile seizures. (D) Febrile seizures are associated with disease of
the central nervous system.

QUESTION 6
A client diagnosed with bipolar disorder continues to be hyperactive and to lose weight. Which of the following
nutritional interventions would be most therapeutic for him at this time?

A. Small, frequent feedings of foods that can be carried
B. Tube feedings with nutritional supplements
C. Allowing him to eat when and what he wants
D. Giving him a quiet place where he can sit down to eat meals

Answer: A
Explanation:
(A) The manic client is unable to sit still long enough to eat an adequate meal. Small, frequent feedings with

, NCLEX-RN


finger foods allow him to eat during periods of activity. (B) This type of therapy should be implemented when
other methods have been exhausted. (C) The manic client should not be in control of his treatment plan. This
type of client may forget to eat. (D) The manic client is unable to sit down to eat full meals.

QUESTION 7
A client with bipolar disorder taking lithium tells the nurse that he has ringing in his ears, blurred vision, and
diarrhe
A. The nurse notices a slight tremor in his left hand and a slurring pattern to his speech. Which of the following
actions by the nurse is appropriate?

A. Administer a stat dose of lithium as necessary.
B. Recognize this as an expected response to lithium.
C. Request an order for a stat blood lithium level.
D. Give an oral dose of lithium antidote.

Answer: C
Explanation:
(A) These symptoms are indicative of lithium toxicity. A stat dose of lithium could be fatal.
(B) These are toxic effects of lithium therapy. (C) The client is exhibiting symptoms of lithium toxicity, which
may be validated by lab studies. (D) There is no known lithium antidote.

QUESTION 8
A diagnosis of hepatitis C is confirmed by a male client’s physician. The nurse should be knowledgeable of the
differences between hepatitis A, B, and C. Which of the following are characteristics of hepatitis C?

A. The potential for chronic liver disease is minimal.
B. The onset of symptoms is abrupt.
C. The incubation period is 2–26 weeks.
D. There is an effective vaccine for hepatitis B, but not for hepatitis C.

Answer: C
Explanation:
(A) Hepatitis C and B may result in chronic liver disease. Hepatitis A has a low potential for chronic liver
disease. (B) Hepatitis C and B have insidious onsets. Hepatitis A has an abrupt onset. (C) Incubation periods are
as follows: hepatitis C is 2–26 weeks, hepatitis B is 6–20 weeks, and hepatitis A is 2–6 weeks. (D) Only
hepatitis B has an effective vaccine.

QUESTION 9
Hypoxia is the primary problem related to near-drowning victims. The first organ that sustains irreversible
damage after submersion in water is the:

A. Kidney (urinary system)
B. Brain (nervous system)
C. Heart (circulatory system)
D. Lungs (respiratory system)

Answer: B
Explanation:

, NCLEX-RN


(A) The tkidney tcan tsurvive tafter t30 tminutes tof twater tsubmersion. t(B) tThe tcerebral tneurons tsustain tirreversible
damage tafter t4–6 tminutes tof twater tsubmersion. t(C) tThe theart tcan t survive tup tto t30 tminutes tof twater
tsubmersion.
(D) tThe tlungs tcan tsurvive tup tto t30 tminutes tof twater tsubmersion.

QUESTION t10
Which tof tthe tfollowing tactivities twould tbe tmost tappropriate tduring toccupational ttherapy tfor ta tclient twith
tbipolar tdisorder?


A. Playing tcards twith tother tclients
B. Working tcrossword tpuzzles
C. Playing ttennis twith ta tstaff tmember
D. Sewing tbeads ton ta tleather tbelt

Answer: tC
tExplanation:
(A) tThis tactivity tis ttoo tcompetitive, tand tthe tmanic tclient tmight tbecome tabusive ttoward tthe tother tclients.
t(B) tDuring tmania, tthe tclient’s tattention tspan tis ttoo tshort tto taccomplish tthis ttask. t(C) tThis tactivity tuses tgross
tmotor tskills, teases ttension, tand texpands texcess tenergy. tA tstaff tmember tis tbetter tequipped tto tinteract
ttherapeutically twith tclients. t(D) tThis tactivity trequires tthe tuse tof tfine tmotor tskills tand tis tvery ttedious.


QUESTION t11
A t30-year-old tmale tclient tis tadmitted tto tthe tpsychiatric tunit twith ta tdiagnosis tof tbipolar tdisorder. tFor tthe tlast t2
tmonths, this tfamily tdescribes thim tas tbeing t“on tthe tmove,” tsleeping
3–4 thours tnightly, tspending tlots tof tmoney, tand tlosing tapproximately t10 tlb. tDuring tthe tinitial
tassessment twith tthe tclient, tthe tnurse twould texpect thim tto texhibit twhich tof tthe tfollowing?


A. Short, tpolite tresponses tto tinterview tquestions
B. Introspection trelated tto this tpresent tsituation
C. Exaggerated tself-importance
D. Feelings tof thelplessness tand thopelessness

Answer: tC
tExplanation:
(A) tDuring tthe tmanic tphase tof tbipolar tdisorder, tclients thave tshort tattention tspans tand tmay tbe tabusive
ttoward tauthority tfigures. t(B) tIntrospection trequires tfocusing tand tconcentration; tclients twith tmania
texperience tflight tof tideas, twhich tprevents tconcentration.
(C) tGrandiosity tand tan tinflated tsense tof tself-worth tare tcharacteristic tof tthis tdisorder. t(D) tFeelings tof
helplessness tand thopelessness tare tsymptoms tof tthe tdepressive tstage tof tbipolar tdisorder.

QUESTION t12
Diabetes tduring tpregnancy trequires ttight tmetabolic tcontrol tof tglucose tlevels tto tprevent tperinatal tmortality.
tWhen tevaluating tthe tpregnant tclient, tthe tnurse tknows tthe trecommended tserum tglucose trange tduring
tpregnancy tis:


A. 70 tmg/dL tand t120 tmg/dL
B. 100 tmg/dL tand t200 tmg/dL
C. 40 tmg/dL tand t130 tmg/dL
D. 90 tmg/dL tand t200 tmg/dL

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