ATI RN COMPREHENSIVE
EXIT RETAKE EXAM
(NGN-Style Questions & Case Scenarios)
Actual Qs & Ans to Pass the Exam
This ATI Exit test contains:
➢ 180 Qs & Ans
➢ passing score Guarantee
➢ Format Set of Multiple-choice
➢ questions with incorporating Next Generation NCLEX (NGN) and
Case Scenario
➢ Expert-Verified Explanations & Solutions
,1. EXPRESSIVE APHASIA & RIGHT HEMIPARESIS
───────────────────────────────────────────────────────
─
SCENARIO: A nurse is caring for a client admitted after an ischemic stroke.
The client has expressive aphasia (Broca’s aphasia) and right hemiparesis.
The interdisciplinary team is modifying the plan of care to promote the
client’s recovery.
Vital Signs: T 36.8°C (98.2°F), HR 78/min, RR 16/min, BP 130/78 mm Hg,
O2 97% on RA
QUESTION: Which of the following actions by the nurse best promotes
effective communication among the health care team members caring for
this client?
A. Having regularly scheduled interdisciplinary team meetings for the client
B. Noting changes in the treatment plan in the client’s electronic health
record
C. Recording the client’s progress in the nurses’ notes every shift
D. Posting swallowing precautions at the head of the client’s bed
ANSWER: A. Having regularly scheduled interdisciplinary team meetings for
the client
RATIONALE:
• Regular interdisciplinary meetings facilitate real-time dialogue and
collaboration among all disciplines (nursing, speech therapy, occupational
therapy, physical therapy, social work, etc.).
,• While documenting notes is also essential, active face-to-face
communication via team meetings ensures cohesive, comprehensive care
planning.
───────────────────────────────────────────────────────
─
2. IMPLANTED VENOUS ACCESS PORT
───────────────────────────────────────────────────────
─
SCENARIO: A client undergoing chemotherapy has an implanted venous
access port (MediPort) for long-term IV therapy. The nurse must administer
an IV medication through this port.
Vital Signs: T 37.3°C (99.1°F), HR 80/min, RR 16/min, BP 122/76 mm Hg,
O2 98% on RA
QUESTION: Which of the following devices should the nurse use to access
the port?
A. Butterfly needle
B. Angiocatheter
C. 25-gauge needle
D. Noncoring (Huber) needle
ANSWER: D. Noncoring (Huber) needle
RATIONALE:
• An implanted port must be accessed using a special noncoring (Huber)
needle to prevent damage to the port’s septum.
,• Other needles (e.g., butterfly or standard) can core the port’s membrane,
leading to complications or destruction of the port’s integrity.
───────────────────────────────────────────────────────
─
3. BELT RESTRAINT PROTOCOLS
───────────────────────────────────────────────────────
─
SCENARIO: A nurse manager on a medical-surgical unit is updating the
current policy on physical restraints. One new nurse asks about best
practices when using belt restraints.
QUESTION: Which of the following guidelines should the nurse manager
include in the updated restraint policy?
A. Remove the client’s restraint every 4 hours.
B. Attach the restraint to the bed’s side rails.
C. Request a PRN restraint prescription for clients who are aggressive.
D. Document the client’s condition every 15 minutes.
ANSWER: D. Document the client’s condition every 15 minutes.
RATIONALE:
• Current guidelines typically require continuous or frequent (e.g., every 15
minutes) monitoring and documentation of circulation, skin, safety, and
behavior.
• Restraints should never be attached to side rails; they must be secured to
a part of the bed frame that moves least.
• PRN orders for restraints are not acceptable by most guidelines.
,• Removal or reassessment usually occurs more often than every 4 hours
(e.g., every 2 hours) depending on facility policy.
───────────────────────────────────────────────────────
─
4. DISCHARGE PLANNING AFTER AN EXTERNAL DISASTER
───────────────────────────────────────────────────────
─
SCENARIO: A mass-casualty incident in the community results in a surge of
incoming patients. The charge nurse must decide which current client(s) can
be safely discharged to accommodate new admissions.
Vital Signs for Each Option (Hypothetical):
• DVT client on heparin: T 37°C, HR 90/min, RR 16/min, BP 118/74 mm Hg
• Post-vertebroplasty: T 37.2°C, HR 84/min, RR 16/min, BP 120/80 mm Hg,
1 day postoperative
• COPD client: T 37.1°C, HR 110/min, RR 44/min, BP 126/82 mm Hg, O2
89% on 2 L NC
• Cancer client with internal radiation implant: T 37.5°C, HR 88/min, RR
16/min, BP 120/78 mm Hg
QUESTION: Which of the following clients is most appropriate for early
discharge to free up beds?
A. Client receiving IV heparin for deep-vein thrombosis
B. Client who is 1 day postoperative following a vertebroplasty
C. Client with COPD and RR of 44/min
D. Client with cancer and a sealed radiation implant
ANSWER: B. Client who is 1 day postoperative following a vertebroplasty
,RATIONALE:
• The post-vertebroplasty client who is stable and at least one day post-op
typically has fewer acute needs than the others.
• A COPD client with increased RR is unstable; DVT on IV heparin still needs
inpatient management; a client with a sealed radiation implant requires
specialized precautions.
───────────────────────────────────────────────────────
─
5. PRENATAL CLASS: INFECTION PREVENTION
───────────────────────────────────────────────────────
─
SCENARIO: A pregnant woman is attending a prenatal class focusing on
infectious disease prevention. She inquires about exposure to her young
nephew who recently had chickenpox.
QUESTION: Which statement by the client indicates understanding of when
she can safely visit a loved one who had varicella (chickenpox)?
A. “I can visit my nephew who has chickenpox 5 days after the sores have
crusted.”
B. “I should take antibiotics when I have a virus.”
C. “I should wash my hands for 10 seconds with hot water after gardening.”
D. “I can clean my cat’s litter box during my pregnancy.”
ANSWER: A. “I can visit my nephew who has chickenpox 5 days after the
sores have crusted.”
RATIONALE:
,• Chickenpox is no longer contagious once all lesions have crusted over.
• Antibiotics are ineffective against viruses.
• Handwashing for at least 20 seconds with soap and water is
recommended.
• Cat litter boxes pose a toxoplasmosis risk and should typically be avoided
or handled with extreme caution in pregnancy.
───────────────────────────────────────────────────────
─
6. SCHIZOPHRENIA WITH AUDITORY HALLUCINATIONS
───────────────────────────────────────────────────────
─
SCENARIO: A client diagnosed with schizophrenia reports hearing voices
telling him negative things. The nurse is developing a plan of care to address
these hallucinations.
QUESTION: Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in
the plan?
A. Encourage the client to lie down in a dark, quiet room.
B. Refer to the hallucinations as though they are real.
C. Avoid making eye contact with the client.
D. Ask the client directly what he is hearing.
ANSWER: D. Ask the client directly what he is hearing.
RATIONALE:
• It is therapeutic to assess the content of the hallucinations to evaluate for
risk or harm.
• Reinforcing that the hallucinations are real is not therapeutic.
,• Maintaining normal eye contact supports rapport and is less stigmatizing.
───────────────────────────────────────────────────────
─
7. PERSONALITY DISORDERS: BORDERLINE
───────────────────────────────────────────────────────
─
SCENARIO: A nurse is presenting an in-service on various personality
disorders. A participant asks for hallmark characteristics of borderline
personality disorder (BPD).
QUESTION: Which of the following statements is most accurate regarding
borderline personality disorder?
A. “The client might act seductively.”
B. “The client is overly concerned about minor details.”
C. “The client exhibits impulsive behavior.”
D. “The client is exceptionally clingy to others.”
ANSWER: C. “The client exhibits impulsive behavior.”
RATIONALE:
• Borderline personality disorder typically involves impulsivity, unstable
relationships, and emotional lability.
• Histrionic personality disorder is associated with seductive or attention-
seeking behavior.
• Obsessive-compulsive personality disorder is associated with overconcern
about details.
,───────────────────────────────────────────────────────
─
8. MALPRACTICE IN NURSING
───────────────────────────────────────────────────────
─
SCENARIO: A nurse educator is reviewing potential malpractice issues with a
group of newly licensed nurses.
QUESTION: Which of the following is an example of malpractice?
A. Leaving a nasogastric tube clamped after administering oral medication
B. Placing a yellow fall-risk bracelet on a client who is at risk for falls
C. Administering IV potassium as a direct bolus
D. Documenting communication with a provider in the client’s progress notes
ANSWER: C. Administering IV potassium as a direct bolus
RATIONALE:
• IV potassium must never be administered as a direct or IV push bolus as it
can cause lethal cardiac arrhythmias. This is a severe practice error and can
constitute malpractice.
───────────────────────────────────────────────────────
─
9. PLACENTA PREVIA
───────────────────────────────────────────────────────
─
SCENARIO: A pregnant client in the second trimester presents with painless
vaginal bleeding and an ultrasound that reveals a low-lying placenta over
the cervical os.
, QUESTION: Which of the following findings should the nurse most likely
expect with placenta previa?
A. Polyhydramnios
B. Uterine tenderness
C. Nausea
D. Spotting
ANSWER: D. Spotting
RATIONALE:
• Placenta previa classically presents as painless, bright red vaginal bleeding
(which can appear as spotting or heavier bleeding). Uterine tenderness
usually suggests other complications (e.g., abruptio placentae).
───────────────────────────────────────────────────────
─
10. FIRE SAFETY SEQUENCE
───────────────────────────────────────────────────────
─
SCENARIO: A nurse enters a client’s room and notices flames coming from a
small trash can fire in the attached bathroom.
QUESTION: Place the steps in the order the nurse should take them:
A. Use the unit fire extinguisher to attempt to put out the fire.
B. Close all nearby windows and doors.
C. Activate the facility’s fire alarm system.
D. Transport the client to another area of the nursing unit.
EXIT RETAKE EXAM
(NGN-Style Questions & Case Scenarios)
Actual Qs & Ans to Pass the Exam
This ATI Exit test contains:
➢ 180 Qs & Ans
➢ passing score Guarantee
➢ Format Set of Multiple-choice
➢ questions with incorporating Next Generation NCLEX (NGN) and
Case Scenario
➢ Expert-Verified Explanations & Solutions
,1. EXPRESSIVE APHASIA & RIGHT HEMIPARESIS
───────────────────────────────────────────────────────
─
SCENARIO: A nurse is caring for a client admitted after an ischemic stroke.
The client has expressive aphasia (Broca’s aphasia) and right hemiparesis.
The interdisciplinary team is modifying the plan of care to promote the
client’s recovery.
Vital Signs: T 36.8°C (98.2°F), HR 78/min, RR 16/min, BP 130/78 mm Hg,
O2 97% on RA
QUESTION: Which of the following actions by the nurse best promotes
effective communication among the health care team members caring for
this client?
A. Having regularly scheduled interdisciplinary team meetings for the client
B. Noting changes in the treatment plan in the client’s electronic health
record
C. Recording the client’s progress in the nurses’ notes every shift
D. Posting swallowing precautions at the head of the client’s bed
ANSWER: A. Having regularly scheduled interdisciplinary team meetings for
the client
RATIONALE:
• Regular interdisciplinary meetings facilitate real-time dialogue and
collaboration among all disciplines (nursing, speech therapy, occupational
therapy, physical therapy, social work, etc.).
,• While documenting notes is also essential, active face-to-face
communication via team meetings ensures cohesive, comprehensive care
planning.
───────────────────────────────────────────────────────
─
2. IMPLANTED VENOUS ACCESS PORT
───────────────────────────────────────────────────────
─
SCENARIO: A client undergoing chemotherapy has an implanted venous
access port (MediPort) for long-term IV therapy. The nurse must administer
an IV medication through this port.
Vital Signs: T 37.3°C (99.1°F), HR 80/min, RR 16/min, BP 122/76 mm Hg,
O2 98% on RA
QUESTION: Which of the following devices should the nurse use to access
the port?
A. Butterfly needle
B. Angiocatheter
C. 25-gauge needle
D. Noncoring (Huber) needle
ANSWER: D. Noncoring (Huber) needle
RATIONALE:
• An implanted port must be accessed using a special noncoring (Huber)
needle to prevent damage to the port’s septum.
,• Other needles (e.g., butterfly or standard) can core the port’s membrane,
leading to complications or destruction of the port’s integrity.
───────────────────────────────────────────────────────
─
3. BELT RESTRAINT PROTOCOLS
───────────────────────────────────────────────────────
─
SCENARIO: A nurse manager on a medical-surgical unit is updating the
current policy on physical restraints. One new nurse asks about best
practices when using belt restraints.
QUESTION: Which of the following guidelines should the nurse manager
include in the updated restraint policy?
A. Remove the client’s restraint every 4 hours.
B. Attach the restraint to the bed’s side rails.
C. Request a PRN restraint prescription for clients who are aggressive.
D. Document the client’s condition every 15 minutes.
ANSWER: D. Document the client’s condition every 15 minutes.
RATIONALE:
• Current guidelines typically require continuous or frequent (e.g., every 15
minutes) monitoring and documentation of circulation, skin, safety, and
behavior.
• Restraints should never be attached to side rails; they must be secured to
a part of the bed frame that moves least.
• PRN orders for restraints are not acceptable by most guidelines.
,• Removal or reassessment usually occurs more often than every 4 hours
(e.g., every 2 hours) depending on facility policy.
───────────────────────────────────────────────────────
─
4. DISCHARGE PLANNING AFTER AN EXTERNAL DISASTER
───────────────────────────────────────────────────────
─
SCENARIO: A mass-casualty incident in the community results in a surge of
incoming patients. The charge nurse must decide which current client(s) can
be safely discharged to accommodate new admissions.
Vital Signs for Each Option (Hypothetical):
• DVT client on heparin: T 37°C, HR 90/min, RR 16/min, BP 118/74 mm Hg
• Post-vertebroplasty: T 37.2°C, HR 84/min, RR 16/min, BP 120/80 mm Hg,
1 day postoperative
• COPD client: T 37.1°C, HR 110/min, RR 44/min, BP 126/82 mm Hg, O2
89% on 2 L NC
• Cancer client with internal radiation implant: T 37.5°C, HR 88/min, RR
16/min, BP 120/78 mm Hg
QUESTION: Which of the following clients is most appropriate for early
discharge to free up beds?
A. Client receiving IV heparin for deep-vein thrombosis
B. Client who is 1 day postoperative following a vertebroplasty
C. Client with COPD and RR of 44/min
D. Client with cancer and a sealed radiation implant
ANSWER: B. Client who is 1 day postoperative following a vertebroplasty
,RATIONALE:
• The post-vertebroplasty client who is stable and at least one day post-op
typically has fewer acute needs than the others.
• A COPD client with increased RR is unstable; DVT on IV heparin still needs
inpatient management; a client with a sealed radiation implant requires
specialized precautions.
───────────────────────────────────────────────────────
─
5. PRENATAL CLASS: INFECTION PREVENTION
───────────────────────────────────────────────────────
─
SCENARIO: A pregnant woman is attending a prenatal class focusing on
infectious disease prevention. She inquires about exposure to her young
nephew who recently had chickenpox.
QUESTION: Which statement by the client indicates understanding of when
she can safely visit a loved one who had varicella (chickenpox)?
A. “I can visit my nephew who has chickenpox 5 days after the sores have
crusted.”
B. “I should take antibiotics when I have a virus.”
C. “I should wash my hands for 10 seconds with hot water after gardening.”
D. “I can clean my cat’s litter box during my pregnancy.”
ANSWER: A. “I can visit my nephew who has chickenpox 5 days after the
sores have crusted.”
RATIONALE:
,• Chickenpox is no longer contagious once all lesions have crusted over.
• Antibiotics are ineffective against viruses.
• Handwashing for at least 20 seconds with soap and water is
recommended.
• Cat litter boxes pose a toxoplasmosis risk and should typically be avoided
or handled with extreme caution in pregnancy.
───────────────────────────────────────────────────────
─
6. SCHIZOPHRENIA WITH AUDITORY HALLUCINATIONS
───────────────────────────────────────────────────────
─
SCENARIO: A client diagnosed with schizophrenia reports hearing voices
telling him negative things. The nurse is developing a plan of care to address
these hallucinations.
QUESTION: Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in
the plan?
A. Encourage the client to lie down in a dark, quiet room.
B. Refer to the hallucinations as though they are real.
C. Avoid making eye contact with the client.
D. Ask the client directly what he is hearing.
ANSWER: D. Ask the client directly what he is hearing.
RATIONALE:
• It is therapeutic to assess the content of the hallucinations to evaluate for
risk or harm.
• Reinforcing that the hallucinations are real is not therapeutic.
,• Maintaining normal eye contact supports rapport and is less stigmatizing.
───────────────────────────────────────────────────────
─
7. PERSONALITY DISORDERS: BORDERLINE
───────────────────────────────────────────────────────
─
SCENARIO: A nurse is presenting an in-service on various personality
disorders. A participant asks for hallmark characteristics of borderline
personality disorder (BPD).
QUESTION: Which of the following statements is most accurate regarding
borderline personality disorder?
A. “The client might act seductively.”
B. “The client is overly concerned about minor details.”
C. “The client exhibits impulsive behavior.”
D. “The client is exceptionally clingy to others.”
ANSWER: C. “The client exhibits impulsive behavior.”
RATIONALE:
• Borderline personality disorder typically involves impulsivity, unstable
relationships, and emotional lability.
• Histrionic personality disorder is associated with seductive or attention-
seeking behavior.
• Obsessive-compulsive personality disorder is associated with overconcern
about details.
,───────────────────────────────────────────────────────
─
8. MALPRACTICE IN NURSING
───────────────────────────────────────────────────────
─
SCENARIO: A nurse educator is reviewing potential malpractice issues with a
group of newly licensed nurses.
QUESTION: Which of the following is an example of malpractice?
A. Leaving a nasogastric tube clamped after administering oral medication
B. Placing a yellow fall-risk bracelet on a client who is at risk for falls
C. Administering IV potassium as a direct bolus
D. Documenting communication with a provider in the client’s progress notes
ANSWER: C. Administering IV potassium as a direct bolus
RATIONALE:
• IV potassium must never be administered as a direct or IV push bolus as it
can cause lethal cardiac arrhythmias. This is a severe practice error and can
constitute malpractice.
───────────────────────────────────────────────────────
─
9. PLACENTA PREVIA
───────────────────────────────────────────────────────
─
SCENARIO: A pregnant client in the second trimester presents with painless
vaginal bleeding and an ultrasound that reveals a low-lying placenta over
the cervical os.
, QUESTION: Which of the following findings should the nurse most likely
expect with placenta previa?
A. Polyhydramnios
B. Uterine tenderness
C. Nausea
D. Spotting
ANSWER: D. Spotting
RATIONALE:
• Placenta previa classically presents as painless, bright red vaginal bleeding
(which can appear as spotting or heavier bleeding). Uterine tenderness
usually suggests other complications (e.g., abruptio placentae).
───────────────────────────────────────────────────────
─
10. FIRE SAFETY SEQUENCE
───────────────────────────────────────────────────────
─
SCENARIO: A nurse enters a client’s room and notices flames coming from a
small trash can fire in the attached bathroom.
QUESTION: Place the steps in the order the nurse should take them:
A. Use the unit fire extinguisher to attempt to put out the fire.
B. Close all nearby windows and doors.
C. Activate the facility’s fire alarm system.
D. Transport the client to another area of the nursing unit.
