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A 73-year-old nurse comes to your office for evaluation of new onset of
tremors. She is not
on any medications and does not take herbs or supplements. She has no
chronic medical conditions. She does not smoke or drink alcohol. She
walks into the examination room with slow
movements and shuffling steps. She has decreased facial mobility and a
blunt expression, without any changes in hair distribution on her face.
Based on this description, what is the most likely reason for the patient's
symptoms?
A) Cushing's syndrome
B) Nephrotic syndrome
C) Myxedema
D) Parkinson's disease ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------D)
Parkinson's disease
This is a typical description for a patient with Parkinson's disease.
Facial mobility is
decreased, which results in a blunt expression—a "masked"
appearance.
A 29-year-old physical therapist presents for evaluation of an eyelid
problem. On
observation, the right eyeball appears to be protruding forward. Based on
this description, what
is the most likely diagnosis?
A) Ptosis
B) Exophthalmos
C) Ectropion
,D) Epicanthus ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------B) Exophthalmos
Feedback: Exophthalmos is the condition when the eyeball protrudes
forward. If it is bilateral, it suggests the presence of Graves' disease.
If it is unilateral, it could still be caused by Graves' disease.
Alternatively, it could be caused by a tumor or inflammation in the
orbit.
A 12-year-old presents to the clinic with his father for evaluation of a painful
lump in the left
eye. It started this morning. He denies any trauma or injury. There is no
visual disturbance. Upon
physical examination, there is a red raised area at the margin of the eyelid
that is tender to
palpation; no tearing occurs with palpation of the lesion. Based on this
description, what is the
most likely diagnosis?
A) Dacryocystitis
B) Chalazion
C) Hordeolum
D) Xanthelasma ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------C) Hordeolum
A hordeolum, or sty, is a painful, tender, erythematous infection in a
gland at the margin of the eyelid.
A 15-year-old high school sophomore presents to the emergency room with
his mother for evaluation of an area of blood in the left eye. He denies
trauma or injury but has been coughing
forcefully with a recent cold. He denies visual disturbances, eye pain, or
discharge from the eye.
On physical examination, the pupils are equal, round, and reactive to light,
with a visual acuity of 20/20 in each eye and 20/20 bilaterally. There is a
homogeneous, sharply demarcated area at the
lateral aspect of the base of the left eye. The cornea is clear. Based on this
description, what is
,the most likely diagnosis?
A) Conjunctivitis
B) Acute iritis
C) Corneal abrasion
D) Subconjunctival hemorrhage ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------
D) Subconjunctival hemorrhage
A subconjunctival hemorrhage is a leakage of blood outside of the
vessels, which
produces a homogenous, sharply demarcated bright red area; it fades
over several days, turning yellow, then disappears. There is no
associated eye pain, ocular discharge, or changes in visual
acuity; the cornea is clear. Many times it is associated with severe
cough, choking, or vomiting,
which increase venous pressure.
Which of the following is a "red flag" regarding patients presenting with
headache?
A) Unilateral headache
B) Pain over the sinuses
C) Age over 50
D) Phonophobia and photophobia ---------CORRECT ANSWER----------------
-C) Age over 50
A unilateral headache is often seen with migraines and may
commonly be
accompanied by phonophobia and photophobia. Pain over the
sinuses from sinus congestion may also be unilateral and produce
pain. Migraine and sinus headaches are common and
generally benign. A new severe headache in someone over 50 can be
associated with more serious etiologies for headache.
A sudden, painless unilateral vision loss may be caused by which of the
following?
, A) Retinal detachment
B) Corneal ulcer
C) Acute glaucoma
D) Uveitis ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------A) Retinal detachment
Corneal ulcer, acute glaucoma, and uveitis are almost always
accompanied by pain. Retinal detachment is generally painless, as is
chronic glaucoma.
Sudden, painful unilateral loss of vision may be caused by which of the
following
conditions?
A) Vitreous hemorrhage
B) Central retinal artery occlusion
C) Macular degeneration
D) Optic neuritis ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------D) Optic neuritis
In multiple sclerosis, sudden painful loss of vision may accompany
optic neuritis. The other conditions are usually painless.
Diplopia, which is present with one eye covered, can be caused by which of
the following
problems?
A) Weakness of CN III
B) Weakness of CN IV
C) A lesion of the brainstem
D) An irregularity in the cornea or lens ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------
------D) An irregularity in the cornea or lens
Double vision in one eye alone points to a problem in "processing"
the light rays of an incoming image. The other causes of diplopia
result in a misalignment of the two eyes.