ANCC Review Questions (PMHNP IQ)
UPDATED Actual Questions and
CORRECT Answers
What direct-acting dopamine receptor agonist is recommended to be used in the treatments of
neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS) fo help lower the dopamine blockade?
A) benzotropine (Cogentin)
B) bromocriptine (Parlodel)
C) dantrolene (Dantrium)
D) trihexyphenidyl (Artane) - CORRECT ANSWER✔✔- A) Bromocriptine (Parlodel) is the
recommended direct acting dopamine receptor agonist to help decrease the dopamine
blockade. Danrolene (Dantrium) is a muscle relaxant. Benzotropine (Cogentin) and
Trihexyphenidyl (Artane) are anticholinergic medications used for extrapyramidal side effects
(EPS).
Mr. Smith is a 56 year old white male who has been successfully treated on Selegiline for
over 4 years. Mr. Smith is going in for elective surgical procedure. Which medication is
strictly contraindicated with Selegiline?
A) Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDS)
B) Codeine
C) Morphine
D) Meperidine - CORRECT ANSWER✔✔- D) Meperidine is strictly prohibited when a
patient is treated on a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI) due to the risk of hypertensive
crisis and death.
A WBC of 4,000 in a patient taking Clozapine would prompt the PMHNP to take which of
the following actions?
A) Consult with hematologist to determine appropriate antibiotic regimen and monitor
closely.
, B) Institute twice-weekly complete blood count with differentials and monitor closely.
C) Discontinue clozapine, initiate alternative antipsychotic medication and monitor closely.
D) Institute daily complete blood count with differentials and monitor closely. - CORRECT
ANSWER✔✔- B) Institute twice-weekly complete blood count with differentials and
monitor closely.
The recommended cut-points for discontinuation of clozapine are WBC of 2,000 to 3,000 or
granulocytes of 1,000 to 1,500 for agranulocytosis and severely compromised immune
system. At a WBC of 4,000, the recommendation is to closely monitor CBC with differential
twice a week while patient may continue clozapine in the absence of any other signs or
symptoms.
A patient with a diagnosis of schizophrenia has a history of suicidal ideation and suicide
attempts. The PMHNP should consider which antipsychotic medication that is the only
antipsychotic to reduce the risk of suicide in schizophrenia?
A) Abilify (aripriprazole)
B) Latuda (lurasidone)
C) Invega (iloperidone)
D) Clozaril (clozapine) - CORRECT ANSWER✔✔- D) Clozaril (clozapine) is the only
known antipsychotic medication that had been shown to reduce the risk of suicide in patients
diagnosed with schizophrenia.
A patient being treated for major depressive disorder and on sertraline (Zoloft), 150 mg po
daily for the past 16 years, presents to the psychiatric mental health practitioner for an
outpatient follow-up visit. During the visit she states that she has not been feeling well,
reporting the flu. She also states she has not taken her medication in the last five days. Which
of the following symptoms would she be describing if you suspect selective serotonin
reputable inhibitors (SSRIs) discontinuation syndrome?
A) Agitation, nausea, dysphoria, and diequilibrium
B) Agitation, nausea, tremor, and ataxia.
C) Restlessness, tremor, fever, and shivering.
D) Restlessness, headache, increased heart rate, and diarrhea. - CORRECT ANSWER✔✔- A)
Agitation; nausea, dysphoria, and disequilibrium
UPDATED Actual Questions and
CORRECT Answers
What direct-acting dopamine receptor agonist is recommended to be used in the treatments of
neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS) fo help lower the dopamine blockade?
A) benzotropine (Cogentin)
B) bromocriptine (Parlodel)
C) dantrolene (Dantrium)
D) trihexyphenidyl (Artane) - CORRECT ANSWER✔✔- A) Bromocriptine (Parlodel) is the
recommended direct acting dopamine receptor agonist to help decrease the dopamine
blockade. Danrolene (Dantrium) is a muscle relaxant. Benzotropine (Cogentin) and
Trihexyphenidyl (Artane) are anticholinergic medications used for extrapyramidal side effects
(EPS).
Mr. Smith is a 56 year old white male who has been successfully treated on Selegiline for
over 4 years. Mr. Smith is going in for elective surgical procedure. Which medication is
strictly contraindicated with Selegiline?
A) Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDS)
B) Codeine
C) Morphine
D) Meperidine - CORRECT ANSWER✔✔- D) Meperidine is strictly prohibited when a
patient is treated on a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI) due to the risk of hypertensive
crisis and death.
A WBC of 4,000 in a patient taking Clozapine would prompt the PMHNP to take which of
the following actions?
A) Consult with hematologist to determine appropriate antibiotic regimen and monitor
closely.
, B) Institute twice-weekly complete blood count with differentials and monitor closely.
C) Discontinue clozapine, initiate alternative antipsychotic medication and monitor closely.
D) Institute daily complete blood count with differentials and monitor closely. - CORRECT
ANSWER✔✔- B) Institute twice-weekly complete blood count with differentials and
monitor closely.
The recommended cut-points for discontinuation of clozapine are WBC of 2,000 to 3,000 or
granulocytes of 1,000 to 1,500 for agranulocytosis and severely compromised immune
system. At a WBC of 4,000, the recommendation is to closely monitor CBC with differential
twice a week while patient may continue clozapine in the absence of any other signs or
symptoms.
A patient with a diagnosis of schizophrenia has a history of suicidal ideation and suicide
attempts. The PMHNP should consider which antipsychotic medication that is the only
antipsychotic to reduce the risk of suicide in schizophrenia?
A) Abilify (aripriprazole)
B) Latuda (lurasidone)
C) Invega (iloperidone)
D) Clozaril (clozapine) - CORRECT ANSWER✔✔- D) Clozaril (clozapine) is the only
known antipsychotic medication that had been shown to reduce the risk of suicide in patients
diagnosed with schizophrenia.
A patient being treated for major depressive disorder and on sertraline (Zoloft), 150 mg po
daily for the past 16 years, presents to the psychiatric mental health practitioner for an
outpatient follow-up visit. During the visit she states that she has not been feeling well,
reporting the flu. She also states she has not taken her medication in the last five days. Which
of the following symptoms would she be describing if you suspect selective serotonin
reputable inhibitors (SSRIs) discontinuation syndrome?
A) Agitation, nausea, dysphoria, and diequilibrium
B) Agitation, nausea, tremor, and ataxia.
C) Restlessness, tremor, fever, and shivering.
D) Restlessness, headache, increased heart rate, and diarrhea. - CORRECT ANSWER✔✔- A)
Agitation; nausea, dysphoria, and disequilibrium
