Infection Prevention and Control Practice Questions
Standard Precautions
1. Which of the following is the most effective method for preventing the spread of healthcare-
associated infections (HAIs)?
o A) Wearing gloves
o B) Using hand sanitizer
o C) Hand hygiene (Correct Answer)
o D) Wearing a mask
Rationale: Hand hygiene is the most effective method for preventing the spread of HAIs. Proper
handwashing or the use of alcohol-based hand sanitizers before and after patient contact is crucial.
2. When should a nurse wear gloves?
o A) Only when handling blood
o B) Only when handling body fluids
o C) When there is a potential for contact with blood, body fluids, or contaminated surfaces (Correct
Answer)
o D) Only during surgical procedures
Rationale: Gloves should be worn whenever there is a potential for contact with blood, body fluids,
or contaminated surfaces to prevent the spread of infection.
Transmission-Based Precautions
3. A patient with tuberculosis (TB) should be placed under which type of precautions?
o A) Contact Precautions
o B) Droplet Precautions
o C) Airborne Precautions (Correct Answer)
o D) Standard Precautions
Rationale: TB is spread through airborne particles, so patients should be placed under airborne
precautions, which include the use of an N95 respirator and a negative pressure room.
4. Which personal protective equipment (PPE) is required for a nurse caring for a patient with
influenza?
o A) Gloves and gown
o B) Surgical mask (Correct Answer)
o C) N95 respirator
o D) Face shield
Rationale: Influenza is spread by large droplets, so a surgical mask is required to prevent
transmission.
Safe Disposal
5. How should needles be disposed of to ensure safety?
o A) Recap the needle and place it in a regular trash bin
o B) Place the needle directly into a sharps container without recapping (Correct Answer)
o C) Break the needle before disposal
o D) Place the needle in a biohazard bag
Rationale: Needles should be placed directly into a sharps container without recapping to prevent
needlestick injuries and the spread of infection.
6. When should a nurse perform hand hygiene?
o A) Before and after patient contact (Correct Answer)
,o B) Only after patient contact
o C) Only before patient contact
o D) Only when hands are visibly soiled
Rationale: Hand hygiene should be performed before and after patient contact to prevent the
spread of infections.
7. Which of the following is the correct method for handwashing?
o A) Rinse hands with water, apply soap, scrub for 5 seconds, rinse, and dry
o B) Apply soap to dry hands, scrub for 10 seconds, rinse, and dry
o C) Wet hands, apply soap, scrub for at least 20 seconds, rinse, and dry (Correct Answer)
o D) Wet hands, apply soap, scrub for 5 seconds, rinse, and dry
Rationale: Proper handwashing involves wetting hands, applying soap, scrubbing for at least 20
seconds, rinsing, and drying to effectively remove pathogens.
PPE Usage
8. Which PPE should be worn when there is a risk of splashes or sprays of blood or body
fluids?
o A) Gloves only
o B) Gloves and gown
o C) Gloves, gown, mask, and eye protection (Correct Answer)
o D) Mask and eye protection only
Rationale: When there is a risk of splashes or sprays of blood or body fluids, gloves, gown, mask,
and eye protection should be worn to protect mucous membranes and skin.
9. A nurse is caring for a patient with Clostridium difficile (C. diff). Which type of precautions
should be implemented?
o A) Standard Precautions
o B) Droplet Precautions
o C) Contact Precautions (Correct Answer)
o D) Airborne Precautions
Rationale: C. diff is spread by direct or indirect contact, so contact precautions, including the use of
gloves and gowns, should be implemented.
Isolation Procedures
10. What is the primary purpose of isolation procedures in a healthcare setting?
o A) To provide privacy for the patient
o B) To prevent the spread of infections (Correct Answer)
o C) To reduce noise levels
o D) To ensure patient comfort
Rationale: The primary purpose of isolation procedures is to prevent the spread of infections to
other patients, healthcare workers, and visitors.
11. Which of the following is a key component of airborne precautions?
o A) Using a surgical mask
o B) Placing the patient in a negative pressure room (Correct Answer)
o C) Wearing gloves and gown
o D) Using a face shield
Rationale: Airborne precautions require placing the patient in a negative pressure room to prevent
the spread of airborne pathogens.
, Safe Disposal
12. What is the correct procedure for disposing of contaminated linens?
o A) Place them in a regular laundry bin
o B) Place them in a biohazard bag (Correct Answer)
o C) Rinse them before disposal
o D) Place them in a sharps container
Rationale: Contaminated linens should be placed in a biohazard bag to prevent the spread of
infection.
13. How should biohazardous waste be handled?
o A) Disposed of in regular trash bins
o B) Incinerated or autoclaved (Correct Answer)
o C) Flushed down the toilet
o D) Stored in a regular storage area
Rationale: Biohazardous waste should be incinerated or autoclaved to ensure it is safely destroyed
and does not pose a risk of infection.
14. Which type of room is required for a patient under airborne precautions?
o A) Standard room
o B) Positive pressure room
o C) Negative pressure room (Correct Answer)
o D) Isolation room with no special ventilation
Rationale: A negative pressure room is required for airborne precautions to prevent the spread of
airborne pathogens.
15. What PPE should a nurse wear when caring for a patient with pertussis?
o A) Gloves and gown
o B) Surgical mask (Correct Answer)
o C) N95 respirator
o D) Face shield
Rationale: Pertussis is spread by large droplets, so a surgical mask is required to prevent
transmission.
Safe Disposal
16. How should a nurse dispose of a used surgical mask?
o A) Place it in a regular trash bin
o B) Place it in a biohazard bag (Correct Answer)
o C) Reuse it after disinfecting
o D) Place it in a sharps container
Rationale: Used surgical masks should be placed in a biohazard bag to prevent the spread of
infection.
17. What is the correct procedure for disposing of contaminated sharps?
o A) Recap the sharps and place them in a regular trash bin
o B) Place the sharps directly into a sharps container without recapping (Correct Answer)
o C) Break the sharps before disposal
o D) Place the sharps in a biohazard bag
, Rationale: Contaminated sharps should be placed directly into a sharps container without recapping
to prevent needlestick injuries and the spread of infection.
Isolation Procedures
18. Which of the following is a key component of contact precautions?
o A) Using a surgical mask
o B) Wearing gloves and gown (Correct Answer)
o C) Placing the patient in a negative pressure room
o D) Using a face shield
Rationale: Contact precautions require wearing gloves and a gown to prevent the spread of
infections through direct or indirect contact.
19. What signage should be placed on the door of a patient under droplet precautions?
o A) “Standard Precautions”
o B) “Contact Precautions”
o C) “Droplet Precautions” (Correct Answer)
o D) “Airborne Precautions”
Rationale: Signage indicating “Droplet Precautions” should be placed on the door to inform
healthcare workers and visitors of the necessary precautions.
Hand Hygiene
20. Which of the following is NOT an appropriate time for hand hygiene?
o A) Before patient contact
o B) After removing gloves
o C) Before eating
o D) After touching clean linens (Correct Answer)
Rationale: Hand hygiene is not typically required after touching clean linens, but it is crucial before
patient contact, after removing gloves, and before eating to prevent the spread of infections.
21. What is the minimum duration for scrubbing hands with soap and water during
handwashing?
o A) 5 seconds
o B) 10 seconds
o C) 15 seconds
o D) 20 seconds (Correct Answer)
Rationale: The minimum duration for scrubbing hands with soap and water is 20 seconds to
effectively remove pathogens.
22. Which of the following is a key component of standard precautions?
o A) Using an N95 respirator
o B) Hand hygiene (Correct Answer)
o C) Placing patients in isolation
o D) Using a face shield
Rationale: Hand hygiene is a key component of standard precautions to prevent the spread of
infections.
23. When should a nurse use an alcohol-based hand sanitizer?
o A) When hands are visibly soiled
o B) Before eating
,o C) After using the restroom
o D) When hands are not visibly soiled (Correct Answer)
Rationale: Alcohol-based hand sanitizers should be used when hands are not visibly soiled to
effectively reduce the number of pathogens.
Transmission-Based Precautions
24. Which type of precautions should be implemented for a patient with varicella (chickenpox)?
o A) Contact Precautions
o B) Droplet Precautions
o C) Airborne Precautions (Correct Answer)
o D) Standard Precautions
Rationale: Varicella is spread through airborne particles, so airborne precautions, including the use
of an N95 respirator and a negative pressure room, should be implemented.
25. What PPE is required for a nurse caring for a patient with MRSA?
o A) Gloves and gown (Correct Answer)
o B) Surgical mask
o C) N95 respirator
o D) Face shield
Rationale: MRSA is spread by direct or indirect contact, so gloves and a gown are required to
prevent transmission.
Safe Disposal
26. How should biohazardous waste be stored before disposal?
o A) In a regular trash bin
o B) In a biohazard bag (Correct Answer)
o C) In a sharps container
o D) In a regular storage area
Rationale: Biohazardous waste should be stored in a biohazard bag to prevent the spread of
infection.
27. What is the correct procedure for disposing of contaminated gloves?
o A) Place them in a regular trash bin
o B) Place them in a biohazard bag (Correct Answer)
o C) Rinse them before disposal
o D) Place them in a sharps container
Rationale: Contaminated gloves should be placed in a biohazard bag to prevent the spread of
infection.
Isolation Procedures
28. Which type of precautions should be used for a patient with pertussis?
o A) Contact Precautions
o B) Droplet Precautions (Correct Answer)
o C) Airborne Precautions
o D) Standard Precautions
Rationale: Pertussis is spread by large droplets, so droplet precautions, including the use of a
surgical mask, should be implemented.
29. What is the primary purpose of using a negative pressure room?
,o A) To provide privacy for the patient
o B) To prevent the spread of airborne infections (Correct Answer)
o C) To reduce noise levels
o D) To ensure patient comfort
Rationale: A negative pressure room is used to prevent the spread of airborne infections by
ensuring that air flows into the room but not out of it.
Hand Hygiene
30. Which of the following is an appropriate time for hand hygiene?
o A) After touching a patient’s intact skin (Correct Answer)
o B) Before touching clean linens
o C) After eating
o D) Before using the restroom
Rationale: Hand hygiene should be performed after touching a patient’s intact skin to prevent the
spread of infections.
31. What is the recommended method for drying hands after washing?
o A) Air dry
o B) Use a clean paper towel (Correct Answer)
o C) Use a cloth towel
o D) Shake hands dry
Rationale: Using a clean paper towel is recommended for drying hands after washing to prevent
recontamination.
PPE Usage
32. Which PPE should be worn when there is a risk of exposure to blood or body fluids?
o A) Gloves only
o B) Gloves and gown (Correct Answer)
o C) Surgical mask
o D) Face shield
Rationale: Gloves and a gown should be worn when there is a risk of exposure to blood or body
fluids to protect the skin and clothing.
33. A nurse is caring for a patient with meningitis. Which type of precautions should be
implemented?
o A) Contact Precautions
o B) Droplet Precautions (Correct Answer)
o C) Airborne Precautions
o D) Standard Precautions
Rationale: Meningitis can be spread by large droplets, so droplet precautions, including the use of a
surgical mask, should be implemented.
Safe Disposal
34. How should a nurse dispose of a used N95 respirator?
o A) Place it in a regular trash bin
o B) Place it in a biohazard bag (Correct Answer)
o C) Reuse it after disinfecting
o D) Place it in a sharps container
, Rationale: Used N95 respirators should be placed in a biohazard bag to prevent the spread of
infection.
35. What is the correct procedure for disposing of contaminated face shields?
o A) Place them in a regular trash bin
o B) Place them in a biohazard bag (Correct Answer)
o C) Rinse them before disposal
o D) Place them in a sharps container
Rationale: Contaminated face shields should be placed in a biohazard bag to prevent the spread of
infection.
Isolation Procedures
36. Which type of precautions should be used for a patient with measles?
o A) Contact Precautions
o B) Droplet Precautions
o C) Airborne Precautions (Correct Answer)
o D) Standard Precautions
Rationale: Measles is spread through airborne particles, so airborne precautions, including the use
of an N95 respirator and a negative pressure room, should be implemented.
37. What is the primary purpose of using a positive pressure room?
o A) To provide privacy for the patient
o B) To prevent the spread of infections to immunocompromised patients (Correct Answer)
o C) To reduce noise levels
o D) To ensure patient comfort
Rationale: A positive pressure room is used to prevent the spread of infections to
immunocompromised patients by ensuring that air flows out of the room but not into it.
Hand Hygiene
38. Which of the following is NOT an appropriate method for hand hygiene?
o A) Using an alcohol-based hand sanitizer
o B) Washing with soap and water
o C) Using a hand lotion (Correct Answer)
o D) Using antiseptic hand wipes
Rationale: Using a hand lotion is not an appropriate method for hand hygiene as it does not
effectively remove pathogens.
39. What is the minimum alcohol concentration for hand sanitizers to be effective?
o A) 40%
o B) 50%
o C) 60% (Correct Answer)
o D) 70%
Rationale: Hand sanitizers should contain at least 60% alcohol to be effective in killing most
pathogens.
PPE Usage
40. Which PPE should be worn when performing a procedure that generates aerosols?
o A) Gloves only
o B) Gloves and gown
o C) N95 respirator and face shield (Correct Answer)
,o D) Surgical mask
Rationale: An N95 respirator and face shield should be worn when performing procedures that
generate aerosols to protect against inhalation of airborne particles.
41. A nurse is caring for a patient with COVID-19. Which type of precautions should be
implemented?
o A) Contact Precautions
o B) Droplet Precautions
o C) Airborne and Contact Precautions (Correct Answer)
o D) Standard Precautions
Rationale: COVID-19 can be spread through both airborne and contact transmission, so airborne
and contact precautions should be implemented, including the use of an N95 respirator, gloves, and
gown.
42. What is the primary goal of patient safety protocols?
o A) To reduce healthcare costs
o B) To prevent patient harm (Correct Answer)
o C) To increase patient satisfaction
o D) To improve staff efficiency
Rationale: The primary goal of patient safety protocols is to prevent patient harm and ensure a safe
healthcare environment.
43. Which of the following is a common cause of medication errors?
o A) Clear handwriting
o B) Proper patient identification
o C) Miscommunication among healthcare providers (Correct Answer)
o D) Use of electronic health records
Rationale: Miscommunication among healthcare providers is a common cause of medication errors,
leading to incorrect dosages or medications being administered.
44. What is the purpose of a “time-out” procedure before surgery?
o A) To allow the surgical team to rest
o B) To confirm the correct patient, procedure, and site (Correct Answer)
o C) To prepare the surgical instruments
o D) To brief the patient’s family
Rationale: The “time-out” procedure is a safety protocol used to confirm the correct patient,
procedure, and site before surgery to prevent errors.
45. Which of the following is a key component of fall prevention protocols?
o A) Encouraging patients to walk without assistance
o B) Keeping the bed in the highest position
o C) Using bed alarms and non-slip footwear (Correct Answer)
o D) Allowing patients to use their own mobility aids
Rationale: Using bed alarms and non-slip footwear are key components of fall prevention protocols
to reduce the risk of patient falls.
46. What should a nurse do if a patient experiences an adverse drug reaction?
o A) Ignore the reaction
o B) Document the reaction and notify the healthcare provider (Correct Answer)
o C) Administer a different medication
,o D) Wait for the reaction to subside
Rationale: The nurse should document the adverse drug reaction and notify the healthcare provider
to ensure appropriate action is taken.
47. Which of the following is an example of a sentinel event?
o A) A patient developing a pressure ulcer
o B) A patient falling and sustaining a fracture (Correct Answer)
o C) A medication error without harm
o D) A delay in patient discharge
Rationale: A sentinel event is a serious, unexpected occurrence involving death or serious physical
or psychological injury, such as a patient falling and sustaining a fracture.
48. What is the purpose of a root cause analysis (RCA)?
o A) To assign blame for an error
o B) To identify the underlying causes of an adverse event (Correct Answer)
o C) To document patient satisfaction
o D) To improve staff scheduling
Rationale: The purpose of a root cause analysis is to identify the underlying causes of an adverse
event to prevent future occurrences.
49. Which of the following is a key element of a safety culture in healthcare?
o A) Punishing staff for errors
o B) Encouraging open communication and reporting of errors (Correct Answer)
o C) Ignoring minor incidents
o D) Focusing solely on patient satisfaction
Rationale: A key element of a safety culture in healthcare is encouraging open communication and
reporting of errors to improve patient safety.
50. What should a nurse do if they notice a potential safety hazard in the patient care area?
o A) Ignore it and continue working
o B) Report it immediately to the appropriate personnel (Correct Answer)
o C) Wait until the end of the shift to report it
o D) Try to fix it themselves
Rationale: The nurse should report any potential safety hazards immediately to the appropriate
personnel to prevent harm to patients and staff.
51. Which of the following is an example of a high-alert medication?
o A) Acetaminophen
o B) Insulin (Correct Answer)
o C) Multivitamins
o D) Antibiotics
Rationale: Insulin is considered a high-alert medication because it has a high risk of causing
significant harm if used incorrectly.
52. What is the purpose of using barcodes on medication packaging?
o A) To track inventory
o B) To ensure accurate medication administration (Correct Answer)
o C) To reduce medication costs
o D) To improve patient satisfaction
Rationale: Barcodes on medication packaging are used to ensure accurate medication
administration by verifying the correct medication and dosage.
, 53. Which of the following is a key strategy for preventing healthcare-associated infections
(HAIs)?
o A) Limiting patient mobility
o B) Using antibiotics prophylactically
o C) Adhering to hand hygiene protocols (Correct Answer)
o D) Reducing patient admissions
Rationale: Adhering to hand hygiene protocols is a key strategy for preventing healthcare-
associated infections by reducing the transmission of pathogens.
54. What is the primary purpose of a patient safety checklist?
o A) To document patient preferences
o B) To ensure all safety protocols are followed (Correct Answer)
o C) To improve patient satisfaction
o D) To reduce healthcare costs
Rationale: The primary purpose of a patient safety checklist is to ensure all safety protocols are
followed to prevent errors and harm.
55. Which of the following is an example of a never event?
o A) A patient developing a minor rash
o B) Surgery performed on the wrong site (Correct Answer)
o C) A delay in patient discharge
o D) A medication error without harm
Rationale: A never event is a serious, preventable incident, such as surgery performed on the
wrong site, that should never occur in healthcare.
56. What should a nurse do if they make a medication error?
o A) Ignore the error
o B) Report the error immediately and follow the facility’s protocol (Correct Answer)
o C) Administer the correct medication without reporting
o D) Wait to see if the patient has a reaction
Rationale: The nurse should report the medication error immediately and follow the facility’s
protocol to ensure patient safety and address the error appropriately.
57. Which of the following is a key component of effective communication in patient safety?
o A) Using medical jargon
o B) Providing clear and concise information (Correct Answer)
o C) Speaking quickly to save time
o D) Assuming the patient understands
Rationale: Providing clear and concise information is a key component of effective communication
in patient safety to ensure understanding and prevent errors.
58. What is the purpose of a patient safety incident report?
o A) To assign blame for an error
o B) To document and analyze incidents to prevent future occurrences (Correct Answer)
o C) To improve patient satisfaction
o D) To reduce healthcare costs
Rationale: The purpose of a patient safety incident report is to document and analyze incidents to
prevent future occurrences and improve patient safety.
59. Which of the following is a common cause of patient falls in healthcare settings?
o A) Proper use of mobility aids
o B) Cluttered patient care areas (Correct Answer)
Standard Precautions
1. Which of the following is the most effective method for preventing the spread of healthcare-
associated infections (HAIs)?
o A) Wearing gloves
o B) Using hand sanitizer
o C) Hand hygiene (Correct Answer)
o D) Wearing a mask
Rationale: Hand hygiene is the most effective method for preventing the spread of HAIs. Proper
handwashing or the use of alcohol-based hand sanitizers before and after patient contact is crucial.
2. When should a nurse wear gloves?
o A) Only when handling blood
o B) Only when handling body fluids
o C) When there is a potential for contact with blood, body fluids, or contaminated surfaces (Correct
Answer)
o D) Only during surgical procedures
Rationale: Gloves should be worn whenever there is a potential for contact with blood, body fluids,
or contaminated surfaces to prevent the spread of infection.
Transmission-Based Precautions
3. A patient with tuberculosis (TB) should be placed under which type of precautions?
o A) Contact Precautions
o B) Droplet Precautions
o C) Airborne Precautions (Correct Answer)
o D) Standard Precautions
Rationale: TB is spread through airborne particles, so patients should be placed under airborne
precautions, which include the use of an N95 respirator and a negative pressure room.
4. Which personal protective equipment (PPE) is required for a nurse caring for a patient with
influenza?
o A) Gloves and gown
o B) Surgical mask (Correct Answer)
o C) N95 respirator
o D) Face shield
Rationale: Influenza is spread by large droplets, so a surgical mask is required to prevent
transmission.
Safe Disposal
5. How should needles be disposed of to ensure safety?
o A) Recap the needle and place it in a regular trash bin
o B) Place the needle directly into a sharps container without recapping (Correct Answer)
o C) Break the needle before disposal
o D) Place the needle in a biohazard bag
Rationale: Needles should be placed directly into a sharps container without recapping to prevent
needlestick injuries and the spread of infection.
6. When should a nurse perform hand hygiene?
o A) Before and after patient contact (Correct Answer)
,o B) Only after patient contact
o C) Only before patient contact
o D) Only when hands are visibly soiled
Rationale: Hand hygiene should be performed before and after patient contact to prevent the
spread of infections.
7. Which of the following is the correct method for handwashing?
o A) Rinse hands with water, apply soap, scrub for 5 seconds, rinse, and dry
o B) Apply soap to dry hands, scrub for 10 seconds, rinse, and dry
o C) Wet hands, apply soap, scrub for at least 20 seconds, rinse, and dry (Correct Answer)
o D) Wet hands, apply soap, scrub for 5 seconds, rinse, and dry
Rationale: Proper handwashing involves wetting hands, applying soap, scrubbing for at least 20
seconds, rinsing, and drying to effectively remove pathogens.
PPE Usage
8. Which PPE should be worn when there is a risk of splashes or sprays of blood or body
fluids?
o A) Gloves only
o B) Gloves and gown
o C) Gloves, gown, mask, and eye protection (Correct Answer)
o D) Mask and eye protection only
Rationale: When there is a risk of splashes or sprays of blood or body fluids, gloves, gown, mask,
and eye protection should be worn to protect mucous membranes and skin.
9. A nurse is caring for a patient with Clostridium difficile (C. diff). Which type of precautions
should be implemented?
o A) Standard Precautions
o B) Droplet Precautions
o C) Contact Precautions (Correct Answer)
o D) Airborne Precautions
Rationale: C. diff is spread by direct or indirect contact, so contact precautions, including the use of
gloves and gowns, should be implemented.
Isolation Procedures
10. What is the primary purpose of isolation procedures in a healthcare setting?
o A) To provide privacy for the patient
o B) To prevent the spread of infections (Correct Answer)
o C) To reduce noise levels
o D) To ensure patient comfort
Rationale: The primary purpose of isolation procedures is to prevent the spread of infections to
other patients, healthcare workers, and visitors.
11. Which of the following is a key component of airborne precautions?
o A) Using a surgical mask
o B) Placing the patient in a negative pressure room (Correct Answer)
o C) Wearing gloves and gown
o D) Using a face shield
Rationale: Airborne precautions require placing the patient in a negative pressure room to prevent
the spread of airborne pathogens.
, Safe Disposal
12. What is the correct procedure for disposing of contaminated linens?
o A) Place them in a regular laundry bin
o B) Place them in a biohazard bag (Correct Answer)
o C) Rinse them before disposal
o D) Place them in a sharps container
Rationale: Contaminated linens should be placed in a biohazard bag to prevent the spread of
infection.
13. How should biohazardous waste be handled?
o A) Disposed of in regular trash bins
o B) Incinerated or autoclaved (Correct Answer)
o C) Flushed down the toilet
o D) Stored in a regular storage area
Rationale: Biohazardous waste should be incinerated or autoclaved to ensure it is safely destroyed
and does not pose a risk of infection.
14. Which type of room is required for a patient under airborne precautions?
o A) Standard room
o B) Positive pressure room
o C) Negative pressure room (Correct Answer)
o D) Isolation room with no special ventilation
Rationale: A negative pressure room is required for airborne precautions to prevent the spread of
airborne pathogens.
15. What PPE should a nurse wear when caring for a patient with pertussis?
o A) Gloves and gown
o B) Surgical mask (Correct Answer)
o C) N95 respirator
o D) Face shield
Rationale: Pertussis is spread by large droplets, so a surgical mask is required to prevent
transmission.
Safe Disposal
16. How should a nurse dispose of a used surgical mask?
o A) Place it in a regular trash bin
o B) Place it in a biohazard bag (Correct Answer)
o C) Reuse it after disinfecting
o D) Place it in a sharps container
Rationale: Used surgical masks should be placed in a biohazard bag to prevent the spread of
infection.
17. What is the correct procedure for disposing of contaminated sharps?
o A) Recap the sharps and place them in a regular trash bin
o B) Place the sharps directly into a sharps container without recapping (Correct Answer)
o C) Break the sharps before disposal
o D) Place the sharps in a biohazard bag
, Rationale: Contaminated sharps should be placed directly into a sharps container without recapping
to prevent needlestick injuries and the spread of infection.
Isolation Procedures
18. Which of the following is a key component of contact precautions?
o A) Using a surgical mask
o B) Wearing gloves and gown (Correct Answer)
o C) Placing the patient in a negative pressure room
o D) Using a face shield
Rationale: Contact precautions require wearing gloves and a gown to prevent the spread of
infections through direct or indirect contact.
19. What signage should be placed on the door of a patient under droplet precautions?
o A) “Standard Precautions”
o B) “Contact Precautions”
o C) “Droplet Precautions” (Correct Answer)
o D) “Airborne Precautions”
Rationale: Signage indicating “Droplet Precautions” should be placed on the door to inform
healthcare workers and visitors of the necessary precautions.
Hand Hygiene
20. Which of the following is NOT an appropriate time for hand hygiene?
o A) Before patient contact
o B) After removing gloves
o C) Before eating
o D) After touching clean linens (Correct Answer)
Rationale: Hand hygiene is not typically required after touching clean linens, but it is crucial before
patient contact, after removing gloves, and before eating to prevent the spread of infections.
21. What is the minimum duration for scrubbing hands with soap and water during
handwashing?
o A) 5 seconds
o B) 10 seconds
o C) 15 seconds
o D) 20 seconds (Correct Answer)
Rationale: The minimum duration for scrubbing hands with soap and water is 20 seconds to
effectively remove pathogens.
22. Which of the following is a key component of standard precautions?
o A) Using an N95 respirator
o B) Hand hygiene (Correct Answer)
o C) Placing patients in isolation
o D) Using a face shield
Rationale: Hand hygiene is a key component of standard precautions to prevent the spread of
infections.
23. When should a nurse use an alcohol-based hand sanitizer?
o A) When hands are visibly soiled
o B) Before eating
,o C) After using the restroom
o D) When hands are not visibly soiled (Correct Answer)
Rationale: Alcohol-based hand sanitizers should be used when hands are not visibly soiled to
effectively reduce the number of pathogens.
Transmission-Based Precautions
24. Which type of precautions should be implemented for a patient with varicella (chickenpox)?
o A) Contact Precautions
o B) Droplet Precautions
o C) Airborne Precautions (Correct Answer)
o D) Standard Precautions
Rationale: Varicella is spread through airborne particles, so airborne precautions, including the use
of an N95 respirator and a negative pressure room, should be implemented.
25. What PPE is required for a nurse caring for a patient with MRSA?
o A) Gloves and gown (Correct Answer)
o B) Surgical mask
o C) N95 respirator
o D) Face shield
Rationale: MRSA is spread by direct or indirect contact, so gloves and a gown are required to
prevent transmission.
Safe Disposal
26. How should biohazardous waste be stored before disposal?
o A) In a regular trash bin
o B) In a biohazard bag (Correct Answer)
o C) In a sharps container
o D) In a regular storage area
Rationale: Biohazardous waste should be stored in a biohazard bag to prevent the spread of
infection.
27. What is the correct procedure for disposing of contaminated gloves?
o A) Place them in a regular trash bin
o B) Place them in a biohazard bag (Correct Answer)
o C) Rinse them before disposal
o D) Place them in a sharps container
Rationale: Contaminated gloves should be placed in a biohazard bag to prevent the spread of
infection.
Isolation Procedures
28. Which type of precautions should be used for a patient with pertussis?
o A) Contact Precautions
o B) Droplet Precautions (Correct Answer)
o C) Airborne Precautions
o D) Standard Precautions
Rationale: Pertussis is spread by large droplets, so droplet precautions, including the use of a
surgical mask, should be implemented.
29. What is the primary purpose of using a negative pressure room?
,o A) To provide privacy for the patient
o B) To prevent the spread of airborne infections (Correct Answer)
o C) To reduce noise levels
o D) To ensure patient comfort
Rationale: A negative pressure room is used to prevent the spread of airborne infections by
ensuring that air flows into the room but not out of it.
Hand Hygiene
30. Which of the following is an appropriate time for hand hygiene?
o A) After touching a patient’s intact skin (Correct Answer)
o B) Before touching clean linens
o C) After eating
o D) Before using the restroom
Rationale: Hand hygiene should be performed after touching a patient’s intact skin to prevent the
spread of infections.
31. What is the recommended method for drying hands after washing?
o A) Air dry
o B) Use a clean paper towel (Correct Answer)
o C) Use a cloth towel
o D) Shake hands dry
Rationale: Using a clean paper towel is recommended for drying hands after washing to prevent
recontamination.
PPE Usage
32. Which PPE should be worn when there is a risk of exposure to blood or body fluids?
o A) Gloves only
o B) Gloves and gown (Correct Answer)
o C) Surgical mask
o D) Face shield
Rationale: Gloves and a gown should be worn when there is a risk of exposure to blood or body
fluids to protect the skin and clothing.
33. A nurse is caring for a patient with meningitis. Which type of precautions should be
implemented?
o A) Contact Precautions
o B) Droplet Precautions (Correct Answer)
o C) Airborne Precautions
o D) Standard Precautions
Rationale: Meningitis can be spread by large droplets, so droplet precautions, including the use of a
surgical mask, should be implemented.
Safe Disposal
34. How should a nurse dispose of a used N95 respirator?
o A) Place it in a regular trash bin
o B) Place it in a biohazard bag (Correct Answer)
o C) Reuse it after disinfecting
o D) Place it in a sharps container
, Rationale: Used N95 respirators should be placed in a biohazard bag to prevent the spread of
infection.
35. What is the correct procedure for disposing of contaminated face shields?
o A) Place them in a regular trash bin
o B) Place them in a biohazard bag (Correct Answer)
o C) Rinse them before disposal
o D) Place them in a sharps container
Rationale: Contaminated face shields should be placed in a biohazard bag to prevent the spread of
infection.
Isolation Procedures
36. Which type of precautions should be used for a patient with measles?
o A) Contact Precautions
o B) Droplet Precautions
o C) Airborne Precautions (Correct Answer)
o D) Standard Precautions
Rationale: Measles is spread through airborne particles, so airborne precautions, including the use
of an N95 respirator and a negative pressure room, should be implemented.
37. What is the primary purpose of using a positive pressure room?
o A) To provide privacy for the patient
o B) To prevent the spread of infections to immunocompromised patients (Correct Answer)
o C) To reduce noise levels
o D) To ensure patient comfort
Rationale: A positive pressure room is used to prevent the spread of infections to
immunocompromised patients by ensuring that air flows out of the room but not into it.
Hand Hygiene
38. Which of the following is NOT an appropriate method for hand hygiene?
o A) Using an alcohol-based hand sanitizer
o B) Washing with soap and water
o C) Using a hand lotion (Correct Answer)
o D) Using antiseptic hand wipes
Rationale: Using a hand lotion is not an appropriate method for hand hygiene as it does not
effectively remove pathogens.
39. What is the minimum alcohol concentration for hand sanitizers to be effective?
o A) 40%
o B) 50%
o C) 60% (Correct Answer)
o D) 70%
Rationale: Hand sanitizers should contain at least 60% alcohol to be effective in killing most
pathogens.
PPE Usage
40. Which PPE should be worn when performing a procedure that generates aerosols?
o A) Gloves only
o B) Gloves and gown
o C) N95 respirator and face shield (Correct Answer)
,o D) Surgical mask
Rationale: An N95 respirator and face shield should be worn when performing procedures that
generate aerosols to protect against inhalation of airborne particles.
41. A nurse is caring for a patient with COVID-19. Which type of precautions should be
implemented?
o A) Contact Precautions
o B) Droplet Precautions
o C) Airborne and Contact Precautions (Correct Answer)
o D) Standard Precautions
Rationale: COVID-19 can be spread through both airborne and contact transmission, so airborne
and contact precautions should be implemented, including the use of an N95 respirator, gloves, and
gown.
42. What is the primary goal of patient safety protocols?
o A) To reduce healthcare costs
o B) To prevent patient harm (Correct Answer)
o C) To increase patient satisfaction
o D) To improve staff efficiency
Rationale: The primary goal of patient safety protocols is to prevent patient harm and ensure a safe
healthcare environment.
43. Which of the following is a common cause of medication errors?
o A) Clear handwriting
o B) Proper patient identification
o C) Miscommunication among healthcare providers (Correct Answer)
o D) Use of electronic health records
Rationale: Miscommunication among healthcare providers is a common cause of medication errors,
leading to incorrect dosages or medications being administered.
44. What is the purpose of a “time-out” procedure before surgery?
o A) To allow the surgical team to rest
o B) To confirm the correct patient, procedure, and site (Correct Answer)
o C) To prepare the surgical instruments
o D) To brief the patient’s family
Rationale: The “time-out” procedure is a safety protocol used to confirm the correct patient,
procedure, and site before surgery to prevent errors.
45. Which of the following is a key component of fall prevention protocols?
o A) Encouraging patients to walk without assistance
o B) Keeping the bed in the highest position
o C) Using bed alarms and non-slip footwear (Correct Answer)
o D) Allowing patients to use their own mobility aids
Rationale: Using bed alarms and non-slip footwear are key components of fall prevention protocols
to reduce the risk of patient falls.
46. What should a nurse do if a patient experiences an adverse drug reaction?
o A) Ignore the reaction
o B) Document the reaction and notify the healthcare provider (Correct Answer)
o C) Administer a different medication
,o D) Wait for the reaction to subside
Rationale: The nurse should document the adverse drug reaction and notify the healthcare provider
to ensure appropriate action is taken.
47. Which of the following is an example of a sentinel event?
o A) A patient developing a pressure ulcer
o B) A patient falling and sustaining a fracture (Correct Answer)
o C) A medication error without harm
o D) A delay in patient discharge
Rationale: A sentinel event is a serious, unexpected occurrence involving death or serious physical
or psychological injury, such as a patient falling and sustaining a fracture.
48. What is the purpose of a root cause analysis (RCA)?
o A) To assign blame for an error
o B) To identify the underlying causes of an adverse event (Correct Answer)
o C) To document patient satisfaction
o D) To improve staff scheduling
Rationale: The purpose of a root cause analysis is to identify the underlying causes of an adverse
event to prevent future occurrences.
49. Which of the following is a key element of a safety culture in healthcare?
o A) Punishing staff for errors
o B) Encouraging open communication and reporting of errors (Correct Answer)
o C) Ignoring minor incidents
o D) Focusing solely on patient satisfaction
Rationale: A key element of a safety culture in healthcare is encouraging open communication and
reporting of errors to improve patient safety.
50. What should a nurse do if they notice a potential safety hazard in the patient care area?
o A) Ignore it and continue working
o B) Report it immediately to the appropriate personnel (Correct Answer)
o C) Wait until the end of the shift to report it
o D) Try to fix it themselves
Rationale: The nurse should report any potential safety hazards immediately to the appropriate
personnel to prevent harm to patients and staff.
51. Which of the following is an example of a high-alert medication?
o A) Acetaminophen
o B) Insulin (Correct Answer)
o C) Multivitamins
o D) Antibiotics
Rationale: Insulin is considered a high-alert medication because it has a high risk of causing
significant harm if used incorrectly.
52. What is the purpose of using barcodes on medication packaging?
o A) To track inventory
o B) To ensure accurate medication administration (Correct Answer)
o C) To reduce medication costs
o D) To improve patient satisfaction
Rationale: Barcodes on medication packaging are used to ensure accurate medication
administration by verifying the correct medication and dosage.
, 53. Which of the following is a key strategy for preventing healthcare-associated infections
(HAIs)?
o A) Limiting patient mobility
o B) Using antibiotics prophylactically
o C) Adhering to hand hygiene protocols (Correct Answer)
o D) Reducing patient admissions
Rationale: Adhering to hand hygiene protocols is a key strategy for preventing healthcare-
associated infections by reducing the transmission of pathogens.
54. What is the primary purpose of a patient safety checklist?
o A) To document patient preferences
o B) To ensure all safety protocols are followed (Correct Answer)
o C) To improve patient satisfaction
o D) To reduce healthcare costs
Rationale: The primary purpose of a patient safety checklist is to ensure all safety protocols are
followed to prevent errors and harm.
55. Which of the following is an example of a never event?
o A) A patient developing a minor rash
o B) Surgery performed on the wrong site (Correct Answer)
o C) A delay in patient discharge
o D) A medication error without harm
Rationale: A never event is a serious, preventable incident, such as surgery performed on the
wrong site, that should never occur in healthcare.
56. What should a nurse do if they make a medication error?
o A) Ignore the error
o B) Report the error immediately and follow the facility’s protocol (Correct Answer)
o C) Administer the correct medication without reporting
o D) Wait to see if the patient has a reaction
Rationale: The nurse should report the medication error immediately and follow the facility’s
protocol to ensure patient safety and address the error appropriately.
57. Which of the following is a key component of effective communication in patient safety?
o A) Using medical jargon
o B) Providing clear and concise information (Correct Answer)
o C) Speaking quickly to save time
o D) Assuming the patient understands
Rationale: Providing clear and concise information is a key component of effective communication
in patient safety to ensure understanding and prevent errors.
58. What is the purpose of a patient safety incident report?
o A) To assign blame for an error
o B) To document and analyze incidents to prevent future occurrences (Correct Answer)
o C) To improve patient satisfaction
o D) To reduce healthcare costs
Rationale: The purpose of a patient safety incident report is to document and analyze incidents to
prevent future occurrences and improve patient safety.
59. Which of the following is a common cause of patient falls in healthcare settings?
o A) Proper use of mobility aids
o B) Cluttered patient care areas (Correct Answer)
