NUR 2063; ESSENTIALS OF PATHOPHYSIOLOGY FINAL EXAM Latest 2024/2025;Quiz Bank Questions and Answers with 100% Verified Solutions-Rasmussen

NUR 2063; ESSENTIALS OF PATHOPHYSIOLOGY FINAL EXAM Latest 2024/2025;Quiz Bank Questions and Answers with 100% Verified Solutions-Rasmussen NUR 2063; ESSENTIALS OF PATHOPHYSIOLOGY FINAL EXAM Latest 2024/2025;Quiz Bank Questions and Answers with 100% Verified Solutions-Rasmussen Question 1 Which condition is caused by excessive growth hormone (GH) levels in adulthood? A Gigantism B Acromegaly C Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) D Dwarfism Question 2 Diabetes insipidus is caused by which of the following? A lack of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) or vasopressin B C To much production of insulin D Too little antidiuretic hormone production Question 3 Which process describes a form of cell division occurring only in mature sperm and ova A Proliferation B Mitosis C Meiosis D Differentiation Question 4 Which of the following causes inflammation of the vagina in copious foul smelling and yellow vaginal discharge A Candidiasis B Trichomoniasis C Gonorrhea D Syphilis Question 5 Which of the following are common early signs of acute prostatitis? A MIld fever,vomiting and leukopenia B Hesitancy and increased urinary output C Soft, tender, enlarged gland and dysuria D A hard nodule in the gland and pelvic pain Question 6 Which of the following would cause a client to experience gout? A Overproduction of uric acid B Decreased presence of serotonin receptors C Increased ammonia intake D Decreased calcium intake Question 7 Which condition is a cause of rickets A Vitamin D deficiency B Calcium excess C Phosphate deficiency D Vitamin D excess Question 8 Which is the best way to prevent transmission of infectious agents? A Call the practitioner of herbal supplements B Wash hands C Avoid public areas as much as possible D Take antibiotics daily Question 9 Which of the following is a systemic effect from an inflammatory rsponse A Redness and swelling B Blisters C Elevated temperature D Pus Question 10 Frequent respiratory infections steatorrhea and digital clubbing are clinical manifestations of which condition? A Acute respiratory failure (ARF) B Cystic fibrosis C Emphysema D Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease Question 11 Which of the following is true about Hypoventilation? A The amount air entering the alveoli increases B It is a normal response to high altitude C Hypocapnia occurs D The PaCo2 exceeds 45 mm hg Question 12 Which of the following describes how the body compensates for metabolic acidosis? A Decreasing respirations B Increasing bicarbonate ion excretion through urination C Increasing respirations D Hypoventilation Question 13 An otherwise healthy client has pneumonia. Which of the following should the nurse complete? A Empty the urinary catheter B Administer the antibiotic C Determine the respiratory rate D Auscultate bowel sounds Question 14 Laryngotracheobronchitis also known as croup manifests as which of the following A Drooling and difficulty swallowing B Hoarse voice and barking cough C Wheezing and dyspnea D Sore and scratchy throat with fever Question 15 A client presents with the following arterial gas results pH=7.30, PaCo2 = 55 mm hg this would be classified as which acid/bases imbalance A Respiratory acidosis B Respiratory alkalosis C Metabolic alkalosis D Metabolic acidosis Question 16 Which as typical signs and symptoms of epiglottis A Hyperinflation of the chest and nasal congestion B Hoarse voice and barking cough C Sneezing, mild cough and fever D Sudden fever, sore throat and drooling saliva Question 17 A nurse is caring for a client with a diagnosis of respiratory alkalosis. Which pH finding would be consistent with the diagnosis? A 7.35 B 7.49 C 7.29 D 7.45 Question 18 The client with papillomavirus human is at risk of which type of cancer A Pancreatic cancer B Stomach cancer C Lung cancer D Cervical cancer Question 19 Which of the following is the most common cause of acute bacterial prostatitis A Escherichia coli B staphylococcus C pseudomonas aeruginosa D Neisseria gonorrhoeae Question 20 Which of the following is not a function of the human kidney A Production of albumin B Activation of vitamin D C Removal of nitrogenous and acidic wastes D Regulation of body fluid and concentrations Question 21 Which component is most often associated with the formation of renal calcun A Magnesium B Calcium C Uric acid D Cysteine Question 22 A nurse is caring for a client with a diagnosis of fibromyalgia.Which of the following with nurse expected to observe in this individual A Altered nutrition B Bladder incontinence C Impaired skin integrity D Fatigue Question 23 A nurse is reviewing the difference between rheumatoid arthritis (RA) and osteoarthritis (OA).Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding (OA) and (RA) A RA is an inflammatory joint disorder while OA is degenerative joint disorder B The disease pattern of RA is unilateral and affects a single joint whereas OA is bilateral symmetric and in multiple joints C The typical onset of RA is between 35 and 45 years of age,where the typical onset of OA is ins clients older than the age of 60 yrs D The risk factors or causes of RA are probably autoimmune,whereas OA may be caused by age,obesity,trauma and occupation Question 24 Which conditions refer to death of bone tissue due to a loss of blood supply to that tissue? A Osteomyelitis B Osteoporosis C Osteogenesis imperfecta D Osteonecrosis Question 25 Which are the initial clinical manifestations noted immediately after a spinal cord injury A Hypertension, neurogenic shock and tachycardia B Loss of deep tendon reflexes and flaccid paralysis C Headache, bradycardia and elevated blood pressure D Confusion, irritability and retrograde amnesia Question 26 Upon delivery an infant presents with a bulging fluid filled sac located at the base of the spine.Based on the appearance the nurse suspects which of the following conditions A Spina bifida B Cerebral palsy C Meningitis D Hydrocephalus Question 27 Which is the most sensitive indicator of altered brain function A The lack of cerebrospinal fluid production B Altered level of consciousness C Intact cranial functions D The ability to perform complete mathematics Question 28 A client who has sustained a cervical spinal injury 2 days ago suddenly develops severe hypertension and bradycardia. The client reports severe head pain and blurred vision, what are the most likely cause for these clinical manifestations A Developing autonomic dysreflexia B Experiencing parasympathetic areflexia C Developing spinal shock D Experiencing acute anxiety Question 29 Loss of motor and sensory control of the trunk of the body and lower extremities are a result of spinal cord injury describes which of the following? A Paraplegia B Degenerative disk disease C Quadriplegia D Peripheral neuritis Question 30 The nurse teaches the family of a client with a concussion to return to the emergency room if headache vomiting or blurred vision occurs. What may these symptoms indicate? A Increased intracranial pressure B Increased ocular pressure C Modulated kidney function D Decreased neck support Question 31 A child diagnosed with cerebral palsy presents to the pediatric clinic for checkup.Based on the diagnosis the nurse would expect to see which of the following clinical manifestations A An unusually enlarged head with bulging fontanelles B Spacity and excessive drooling C Fever and neck stiffness D a bulging fluid filled sac located at the base of the spine Question 32 Nuchal rigidity headache and photopia are symptoms of which of the following A Hydrocephalus B Trigeminal neuralgia C Meningitis D post-polio syndrome Question 33 Which of the following statements are true regarding syphilis (Select all that apply) A In severe cases it can cause problems with the cardiovascular system and aortic necrosis B Syphilis is only communicable during the secondary stage C It is caused by an anaerobic spirochete D It can cause damage to the central nervous system and can cause blindness and mental deterioration E It is caused by the immunodeficiency virus (HIV) Question 34 Which of the following are clinical manifestations of pernicious anemia (Select all that apply) A Anorexia B Hypertension C Vesicular rash D Paresthesia of hands/feet E Stomatitis Question 35 Which of the following statements are true about benign tumors? A A benign tumor does not always have an immediate potential to kill the host B If cells from a tumor have crossed the basement membrane, they are more likely to be benign C If the tumor has moved to another part of the body, it is likely benign D Benign tumors are more likely to resemble the tissue type of origin compared to malignant tumors Question 36 Which of the following are clinical manifestations of cystitis (Select all that apply) A Pain the suprapublic area B Hypotension C Urinary frequency D Fever Question 37 A client is brought into the emergency department with an acute infection.The healthcare provider states that the client has leukocytosis. Which statement best describes leukocytosis? A Increased size and shape of white blood cells in blood B Increased number of white blood cells in blood C Increased concentration of fibrinogen in blood D Increased number of immature red blood cells in blood Question 38 What type of immunity is provided by a vaccination A Naturally acquired active immunity B Artificially acquired active immunity C Naturally acquired passive immunity D Artificially acquired passive immunity Question 39 What is the gold standard used to diagnose ischemic or hemorrhagic stroke? A Surgery to open the cranium and observe B Computerized tomography (CT) of the head C Urinalysis, liver and pancreatic enzymes D Drawing a blood sample for electrolytes Question 40 Atrial fibrillation rheumatic heart disease and vascular prosthetics are risk factors for what type of stroke? A hemorrhagic B Embolic C Thrombotic D Lacunar Question 41 Which of the following describes cerebral aneurysm A A type of head bleed B A benign brain injury C A dilation (ballooning of a portion of a vessel) D An area of thickening within a vessel Question 42 Select the condition that refers to the inflammation of the brain and spinal cord? A Hydrocephalus B Meningocele C Spina bifida D Encephalitis Question 43 Which of the following describes temporary episodes of impaired neurologic functioning caused by inadequate blood flow to a portion of the brain? A hemorrhagic shock B Ischemic stroke C Spinal shock D Hemorrhagic stroke Question 44 Which of the following describes cerebral palsy A Brain damage that is reversible with cognitive therapy with the infant client B Irreversible brain damage that can occur before,during and after birth or infancy C Brain damage that manifests in adults after normal childhood activities D Transient brain damage that resolves in adulthood from physical therapy Question 45 What typically causes contact dermatitis? A Long Term disorder from gout B Contact with a skin allergen C Fungal infection D Staphylococcal infection Question 46 The nurse understands that administering which of the following intravenous solutions would cause fluid to shift from the extracellular space to the intracellular space A Hypertonic solution B Isometric solution C Hypotonic solution D Isotonic solution Question 47 Intracellular fluid contains higher concentration of which of the following? A Magnesium B Sodium C Chloride D Bicarbonate Question 48 Metabolic acidosis is associated with all the following except? A Ketoacidosis B Diarrhea C Vomiting D End-stage renal disease Question 49 The role of the lungs in maintaining acid base balance include which of the following A Elimination of excess portions (H+) B Elimination of carbonic acids C Production of bicarbonate D Elimination of metabolic acids Question 50 What happens to a client with polycythemia A Increased red blood cells being produced B Deficient plasma in the blood C Deficient number of red blood cells in the blood D Increased lymphatic fluid being released Question 51 Which of the following hormones that the kidney secrete? A Thyroid stimulating hormone B Testosterone C Insulin and glycogen D Erythropoietin Question 52 Causes of aplastic anemia include all the following except? A Toxins B Medication C Autoimmune disorders D Food allergies Question 53 Which disorder is a generic type of anemia resulting the absence of one of the proteins that collectively make up hemoglobin A Polycythemia vera B Thalassemia C iron-deficiency anemia D Sickle cell anemia Question 54 Deficiency of Vitamin B=12 can lead to what type of anemia? A Aplastic anemia B iron-deficiency anemia C Hemolytic anemia D Pernicious anemia Question 55 The pathophysiology of which disease involves the inflammation of the trachea and bronchi often associated A Asthma B Emphysema C Bronchitis D Bronchictus Question 56 What refers to the inflammation of the lungs triggered by infection or injury? A Bronchitis B Laryngitis C Epiglottis D Pneumonia Question 57 Which two diseases could result in obstructive pulmonary disease (OPD) A Congestive heart failure and Emphysema B Congestive heart failure and obstructive sleep apnea C Emphysema and chronic bronchitis D Asthma and bronchitis Question 58 Which conditions describe acute inflammatory of the bronchioles usually resulting from viral infection such as respiratory syncytial virus A Bronchiolitis B Laryngitis C Epiglottis D Bronchitis Question 59 Risk factors for respiratory disorders include all except which? A Smoking B Bedrest C High protein diet D Asthma Question 60 What is pathologic collection of fluid or pus in the pleural cavity called? A Pleural overload B Pulmonary edema C Pleural exhibit D Pleural effusion Question 61 Which of the following describes the pathology of exercise induced asthma? A Bronchoconstriction after ingesting high allergen food B Bronchospasm after exercise C Increased mucus production due to genetic mutation D Ige-inflammatory response to an antigen Question 62 Which of the following describes the normal flow of urine? A. Collection duct to the renal pelvis to the ureter to the bladder B. Renal pelvis to the urethra to the bladder to the ureter C. Collecting duct to the ureter to the urethra D. Ureter to the renal pelvis to the urethra to the bladder Question 63 Which type of incontinence is the inability to fully empty the bladder resulting in dribbling urine and a weak urine stream? A. Stress incontinence B. overflow incontinence C. functional incontinence D. transient incontinence Question 64 Which one of the following are clinical manifestations of hyperparathyroidism? A. Renal calculi and osteoporosis B. Hypocalcemia and seizures C. Diarrhea and muscle cramping D. Moon face and buffalo hump Question 65 Which of the following would the nurse expect to find in clients with Cushing syndrome? A. Exophthalmos B. Excessive production of glucocorticoids C. Hyperpigmentation D. Insufficient production of antidiuretic hormone(ADH) Question 66 A nurse educator is teaching a group of student nurses about the signs and symptoms of thyroid storm. Which findings will be included in the teaching? A. Profuse sweating, flushing and constipation B. Hypotension, translucent skin and obesity C. Fever, tachycardia and systolic hypertension D. Nausea, bradycardia and severe headache Question 67 What skin change is caused by the release of histamines? A. Ecchymosis B. Pallor C. Erythema D. Tenting Question 68 The nurse expects to assess for which symptoms in a client with atopic dermatitis? A. Leprosy B. polyphagia C. abdominal pain D. pruritus Question 69 A client presents to the emergency department with a distended abdomen a yellowish tone to his skin and confusion. The nurse suspects which of the following is the cause of these symptoms? A. congestive heart failure B. inflammatory bowel disease C. appendicitis D. liver disease Question 70 A client is admitted to the healthcare facility with a diagnosis of a bleeding gastric ulcer. The nurse expects this client stools to appear like which of the following? A. coffee ground like B. black and tarry C. bright red D. clay colored Question 71 Which of the following terms is used to describe the phenomenon where a portion of the bowel telescopes into another portion of the bowel? A. intussusception B. Hirsch sprung disease C. Volvulus D. Diverticulitis Question 72 Which risk factor is not likely to cause cholelithiasis? A. Female gender B. Pregnancy C. Recent weight loss D. High fiber diet Question 73 Which of the following steps happens first during hemostasis? A. Vascular spasm B. Platelet plug C. Dissolving of the clot D. Coagulation Question 74 Clinical manifestations of bleeding include all of the following except which symptoms? A. Bruising B. Neurological changes C. Petechiae D. Chest pain Question 75 Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) is a severe complication of which of the following conditions? A. Sepsis B. Gastritis C. Emphysema D. Cystic fibrosis Question 76 Which of the following is an example of a clinical manifestation of leukemia? A. Weight loss B. Increased energy and strength C. Recurrent infections D. Easy building Question 77 Which is a clinical manifestation of iron deficiency anemia? A. Erythema B. Hypertension C. Unusual food cravings D. Bradycardia Question 78 Signs and symptoms of aplastic anemia include all of the following except which? A. Dyspnea B. Pallor C. Bradycardia D. Petechiae Question 79 Which of the following would the nurse assess in a client with thrombocytopenia? A. A decreased platelet cell count B. Decreased white blood cell count C. An increased platelet cell count D. Increased red blood cell count Question 80 Which disorder is characterized by swollen, painless lymph nodes most often in the neck and /or supraclavicular area? A. Polycythemia Vera B. Infectious mononucleosis C. Von willebrand disease D. Lymphoma Question 81 Which type of cancer reveals the presence of reed Stemberg cells? A. Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma B. Multiple myeloma C. Hodgkin’s lymphoma D. Leukemia Question 82 All of the following are clinical manifestations of interstitial cystitis EXCEPT? A. Urinary frequency B. Suprapubic pain C. Dysuria D. Cloudy foul smelling urine Question 83 Clinical manifestations of benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH) include all of the following EXCEPT? A. Forceful urinary stream B. Urinary retention C. Overflow incontinence D. Erectile dysfunction Question 84 Which of the following conditions can result in cardiac tamponade? A. Electrical conduction issues affecting the heart rate and rhythm B. Large fluid accumulation in the pericardial cavity causing compression of the heart C. Increased cardiac output and decreased heart rate D. Decreased contractility of the heart muscle due to ischemic damage Question 85 Which of the following is an example of a non-modifiable risk factor for dyslipidemia? A. Diabetes mellitus B. High fat diet C. Smoking D. Sedentary lifestyle Question 86 A client arrives in the walk in clinic and has been identified to be at risk for hypertension. Which of the following is a modifiable risk factor for this individual? A. Frequent intake of high sodium meals B. African American race C. Age of 70 years D. Family history of hypertension Question 87 A client is diagnosed with hypertension with no identifiable cause. This type of hypertension is known as which of the following? A. Tertiary hypertension B. Secondary hypertension C. Primary hypertension D. Malignant hypertension Question 88 Valve stenosis results in which of the following alterations in blood flow through the heart? A. Blood flows backwards across the valve because it does not close fully B. Blood flows backwards across the valve causing rupture of the heart chambers C. Blood is unable to flow easily out of the valve due to a problem with the papillary muscle D. Blood is unable to flow easily out of the valve because it does not open fully Question 89 A client is diagnosed with hypertension as a result of chronic renal failure and diabetes, the type of hypertension is likely to be? A. Primary hypertension B. Secondary hypertension C. Malignant hypertension D. Tertiary hypertension Question 90 Excess urea and other nitrogenous wastes in the blood is referred to as which of the following A. Dysuria B. Hematuria C. Bacteremia D. Azotemia Question 91 With severe kidney disease either hypokalemia or hyperkalemia may occur and cause which of the following? A. Skeletal muscle twitch or spasm B. Hypervolemia C. Cardiac arrhythmias D. Encephalopathy Question 92 The steps of Carcinogenesis include which of the following? A. initiation, progression and promotion B. initiation, precipitation and progression C. initiation, promotion and progression D. initiation, promotion and proliferation Question 93 Which of the following is an early common symptom of cancer? A. fatigue B. muscle hypertrophy C. diarrhea D. sudden weight gain Question 94 Which is a clinical manifestation of myocarditis? A. Increased urination B. Bradycardia C. Dyspnea D. Weight loss Question 95 Which of the following is one of the earliest signs of decreased cardiac output? A. Capillary refill less than 3 seconds B. Oliguria C. Alertness D. Light yellow urine Question 96 A client with heart failure is experiencing the backup of blood into the pulmonary circulation. What classification most accurately identifies this type of heart failure? A. Left-sided heart failure B. Diastolic heart failure C. Systolic heart failure D. Right sided heart failure Question 97 Which of the following describes a clinical manifestation of pericarditis? A. Severe chest pain B. Hypotension C. Increased urination D. Bradycardia Question 98 Which of the following organs are primarily affected by priority managed hypertension? A. The brain and skin B. The bladder and urethra C. The heart and kidneys D. The stomach and intestines Question 99 A pulsating mass that is noted in the mid abdomen may indicate which of the following conditions? A. Cardiac dysrhythmia B. Heart palpitations C. Pulmonary embolism D. Aortic aneurysm Question 100 What is the characteristic of coronary artery disease (CAD)? A. Insufficient delivery of oxygenated blood to the myocardium B. The buildup of bile in the stomach and gallbladder C. The buildup of infectious by products in the lymph nodes D. Insufficient delivery of carbon dioxide I the lungs MODULE 11 FINAL EXAM QUESTIONS 50 1. Which serum electrolyte imbalance would the nurse expect to find on the client with Addison disease? A. Serum potassium of 4 B. Serum potassium of 6 C. Serum sodium of 140 D. Serum sodium of 135 2. When taking the blood pressure of a client after a parathyroidectomy to treat hyperparathyroidism the nurse notes that the client’s hand has gone into flexion contractions known as trousseau's sign. What does the nurse determine to be the course of this symptom? A. Hypercalcemia B. Hypokalemia C. Hyperkalemia D. Hypocalcemia 3. Which of the following is a clinical manifestation of post streptococcal glomerulonephritis? A. Painful urination B. Dark urine C. Light yellow urine D. Polyuria 4. In addition to pain, signs and symptoms of ureteral stones may frequently include which of the following? A. Hematuria B. Proteinuria C. Urinary urgency D. Hypotension 5. Incontinence manifested with exertion such as by lifting heavy objects or by coughing or sneezing is known as which of the following? A. Urge incontinence B. Stress incontinence C. Overflow incontinence D. Mixed incontinence 6. A nurse is reviewing the history and physical examination of a client who reports having frequent episodes of hematuria with the absence of pain. The nurse suspects the patient may have which of the following conditions? A. Blood cancer B. Benign prostatic hypertrophy C. Urinary tract infection D. Kidney stones 7. What are the significant signs of nephritic syndrome? A. Pyuria and leukopenia B. Gross hematuria and urinary casts C. Proteinuria and lipedema D. Hypertension and heart failure 8. Which of the following is the most frequent initial symptom of blood cancer? A. Sudden incontinence B. Dysuria C. Painless hematuria D. Bladder infection 9. Which of the following are clinical manifestations of chronic kidney disease A. Electrolyte imbalance B. Normal glomerular filtration rate C. Weight loss D. Insomnia 10. Which of the following describes a non-infectious chronic bladder condition that causes pain and pressure A. Pyelonephritis B. Interstitial cystitis C. Urethritis D. Nephritis syndrome 11. Which of the following are signs of the oliguric phase of acute kidney injury (select all that apply) A. Fluid volume excess B. Increased urine output C. Metabolic acidosis D. Azotemia E. Electrolyte disturbances 12. Strong risk factors for colon cancer include which of the following (select all that apply) A. High fat diet B. Aging C. Crohn’s disease D. Heredity E. Male gender 13. What are the clinical manifestation of hypothyroidism (select all that apply) A. Tachycardia B. Bradycardia C. Weight gain D. Cold intolerance E. Diarrhea F. Constipation 14. Which of the following describes a dilated vein in the spermatic cord? A. Spermatocele B. Testicular torsion C. Varicocele D. Hydrocele 15. Which of the following may a client be at risk for if they have the human papillomavirus? A. Cervical cancer B. Pancreatic cancer C. Stomach cancer D. Lung cancer 16. Which of the following terms describes an abnormal rotation of the testes on the spermatic cord? A. Hydrocele B. Spermatocele C. Varicocele D. Testicular torsion 17. Which if the following is the common cause of goiters out of the United States? A. Hashimoto’s thyroiditis B. Iodine deficiency C. Hypothyroidism D. Hyperthyroidism 18. What is the primary cause of type 1 diabetes? A. Destruction of pancreatic beta cells by an autoimmune reaction B. Increased resistance of body cells to insulin action C. Increased glucose production in the liver D. Chronic obesity 19. Which of the following explains the etiology of dwarfism A. Excessive levels of insulin B. A deficit of parathyroid hormone C. A deficit of somatotropin D. Excessive level of somatotropin 20. Which of the following is the most common cause of Cushing syndrome? A. Renal tumor B. Insulin resistance C. Thyroid gland removal D. Ingestion of glucocorticoids 21. Which are the most common mechanisms controlling hormone release and regulation? A. Positive feedback loop B. Negative feedback loop C. Extrinsic factors D. Extracellular fluids 22. In adrenocortical insufficiencies, such as Addison disease the most severe manifestation are the result of which of the following? A. An insufficient amount of circulating cortisol B. Deficiencies in the renin angiotensin system C. Decreased level of all adrenocortical hormones D. An insufficient amount of triiodothyronine (T3) and thyroxine (T4) 23. Which of the following is a cause of hyperparathyroidism A. Pancreatic tumor B. Thyroid tumor C. Hypertension D. Lung infection 24. The increased risk for men over the age of 50 to develop a urinary tract infection is related to which of the following? A. Immobility B. Incontinence C. Enlarged prostate D. More frequent sexual activity 25. Mechanism for defense against urinary pathogens in men include all of the following except? A. Antimicrobial secretions from the prostate gland B. Retention of urine in the bladder C. Acidic PH of urine D. Long length of urethra 26. Which of the following explain why women are at increased risk of urinary tract infection A. Women are more likely to fully empty their bladder when urinating B. Women have longer urethras C. In women, the opening of the urethra is close to the anus D. Women have less perineal irritation from underwear and sexual activity 27. Which of the following is an example of a general cause of urinary tract infection (UTI)? A. Escherichia coli(E.coli) B. Horseshoe kidney C. polycystic kidney disease D. Hypoplasia of the kidney 28. Which of the following is a serious potential complication of gastroesophageal reflux disorder (GERD)? A. Heartburn B. Esophageal cancer C. Diarrhea D. Cough 29. A Client presents to the emergency department with lower abdominal pain, fever, nausea, and occasional diarrhea. After palpating the abdomen, the client displays rebound tenderness. Which of the following will anticipate the client this experiencing? A. Peptic ulcer disease B. Appendix C. Esophagus cancer D. Gastritis 30. Jaundice is a common sign of the following disorders? A. Malabsorption syndromes B. Cholecystitis C. Anemia D. Liver disease 31. Which of the following describes fluids accumulating in the peritoneal cavity A. Ascites B. Edema C. Peritonitis D. Portal hypertension 32. Which of the following describes the condition of acute gastritis A. Inflammation of outwardly bulging pouches of the intestinal wall B. Inflammation of the gallbladder C. Inflammation of the descending colon D. Inflammation of the stomach’s mucosal lining 33. A client with a history of stress ulcers presents to the emergency room with abdominal pain. Which of the following clinical manifestations of a stress ulcer should be provided to the provider immediately? A. Hematemesis B. Weight loss C. Fatigue D. Indigestion 34. Which of the following will the nurse expect to find in individuals with hypopituitarism? A. Dwarfism B. Acromegaly C. Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone(SIDH) D. Hyperthyroidism 35. A client presents to the clinic with rapid breathing, flushed skin, and ketones present in the urine. Which disorder would the nurse suspect the individual is suffering from? A. Kidney stones B. Cholecystitis C. Urinary tract infection(UTI) D. Diabetic Ketoacidosis(DKA) 36. Which of the following ‘Polys’ occurs with type 1 diabetes? A. Polyuria, polymorphia, polypharmacy B. Polyuria, polydipsia, polyphagia C. Polydipsia, polydactyly, polyphagia D. Polyphagia, polydactyly, polyuria 37. The client with diabetes insipidus will present with which of the following physical findings? A. Increased blood glucose level B. Increased sweat production C. Increased urine glucose level D. Increased urination 38. Which of the following conditions may cause immunosuppression? A. Hyperthyroidism B. Acromegaly C. Diabetes insipidus D. Cushing syndrome 39. The client with hyperthyroidism will most likely present with which of the following physical findings A. Enlarged bones of the face and extremities B. Weak, brittle bones C. Blurred vision and bulging eyes D. Cold extremities 40. Tachycardia and anxiety are often experienced by a client with which of the following endocrine disorders ? A. Graves’ disease B. Myxedema C. Hashimoto’s D. Thyroiditis 41. Which of the following describes the condition where the foreskin cannot be retracted from the glans penis? A. Priapism B. Phimosis C. Epididymitis D. Spermatocele 42. The nurse is reviewing information regarding gonorrhea. Which of the following about gonorrhea is true? A. Clients with gonorrhea are restricted from engaging sexual activity even after their blood test and genital swabs are negative B. Clients with gonorrhea are only infectious if the lesions are draining C. Clients with gonorrhea are contagious even if they have no outward symptoms D. Clients with gonorrhea will require close follow up because treatment failure to complete all treatment in common 43. A client presents to the clinic reporting a thick, white vaginal discharge and intense vaginal itching. She stated that she recently completed a course of antibiotics for urinary tract infection. The nurse suspects the client has developed which of the following conditions? A. Candidiasis B. Endometriosis C. Pelvic inflammatory disease D. Gonorrhea 44. Conditions that obstruct the flow of urine can lead to which of the following complications A. Renal cell carcinoma B. Polycystic kidney disease C. Hydronephrosis D. Bladder cancer 45. Which of the following urinary conditions may be a result of an autoimmune reaction A. Hydronephrosis B. Interstitial cystitis C. Polycystic kidney disease D. Wilms tumor 46. Which client is most at risk for postrenal acute kidney injury? A. An elderly client with benign prostatic hypertrophy(BPH) B. A client with hypertension and diabetes C. A young child with acute glomerulonephritis D. A middle-aged woman with pyelonephritis 47. Which of the following may cause postrenal acute kidney injury A. Severe hypertension B. Glomerulonephritis C. Bilateral kidney stones D. Acute tubular necrosis 48. Which of the following describes a congenital defect resulting in an incomplete formation of the esophagus A. Hiatal hernia B. Esophageal atresia C. Cleft palate 49. Heartburn is a clinical manifestation of which of the following disorders? A. Ulcerative colitis B. Peptic ulcer disease (PUD) C. Crohn’s disease D. Diverticulitis 50. Which causes a rigid abdomen in peritonitis? A. Impaction of stool in the large intestine B. Inflammation and abdominal muscle spasm C. Increased gas causes abdominal distention. D. Fluid is pushing against the abdominal wall Download and the test 100% Correct