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Bio 104 exam 2 questions Reece, Campbell summer 2018

1. Connective tissues have a. many densely packed cells without an extracellular matrix b. a supporting material such as chondroitin sulfate c. an epithelial origin d. relatively few cells and a large amount of extracellular matrix. e. the ability to transport electrical impulses 2. All skeletal muscle fibers are both a. smooth and involuntary b. smooth and unbranched c. striated and voluntary d. smooth and voluntary e. striated and branched 3. The epithelium best adapted for a body surface subject to abrasion is a. simple squamous b. simple cuboidal c. simple columnar d. stratified columnar e. stratified squamous Tissues are classified into four types. Indicate which type is described below: 4. covers the outside of the body lines organs and cavities _______________________________ cells that are closely joined 5. consists of long cells (fibers), _______________________ which contract in response to nerve signals 6. Senses stimuli _____________________________ transmits signals throughout the animal 7. binds and supports other tissues sparsely packed cells ____________________________ scattered throughout an extracellular matrix (e.g., blood) 8. Nutrients are “essential” when a. only certain animals need them b. they are subunits of important polymers c. they cannot be manufactured by the organism d. they are necessary coenzymes e. only some foods contain them 9. Nonessential amino acids a. can be made by the animal’s body from other substances b. is not used by the animal in biosynthesis c. must be obtained from the diet d. is less important than an essential amino acid e. is not found in many proteins 10. Which of the following would be used as an energy source during extreme starvation (when all other sources are depleted)? a. fat in adipose tissue b. glucose in blood c. protein in muscle d. glycogen in muscles e. calcium phosphate in bone 11. After ingestion, the first type of macromolecule to be worked on by enzymes is a. protein b. carbohydrates c. cholesterol d. nucleic acids e. glucose 12. What would you expect for an individual without functional parietal cells? a. not able to digest proteins in the stomach b. not able to digest sugars in the stomach c. only able to digest fats in the stomach d. not able to produce pepsinogen e. not able to initiate digestion in the small intestine 13. Where does formation of HCl in gastric juices occur? a. chief cells of stomach b. parietal cells of stomach c. esophagus d. pancreas e. lumen of stomach 14. What helps the stomach prevent self-digestion? a. H. pylori b. mucus secretion and active mitosis in epithelial cells c. secretions by chief cells d. secretions by parietal cells e. secretions from the pancreas 15. The bile salts a. are enzymes. b. are manufactured by the pancreas. c. emulsify fats in the duodenum. d. increase the efficiency of pepsin action. e. are normally an ingredient of gastric juice. 16. Food is pushed along by__________________, rhythmic contractions of muscles in the wall of the canal. 17. Valves called _________________ regulate the movement of material between compartments. 18. Swallowing causes the _________________ to block entry to the trachea. 19. Each villus contains a blood vessel network and a small lymphatic vessel called a ___ _____. 20. After glycerol and fatty acids are absorbed by epithelial cells, they are recombined into fats. These fats are mixed with cholesterol and coated with protein, forming molecules called ____ ________________. 21. A major function of the colon is to recover _______________ that has entered the alimentary canal. 22. The colon houses strains of the bacterium _______________, some of which produce vitamins. Label the missing enzymes and indicate the location where each type of digestion occurs. Labeling 35. A patient with a blood pressure of 120/80, a pulse rate of 50 beats/minute, a stroke volume of 80 mL/beat, and a respiratory rate of 25 breaths/minute will have a cardiac output of__________ ml/min. 36. The amount of energy an animal uses in a unit of time (amount of oxygen consumed or carbon dioxide produced) is called the _________________________________ 37. The amount of blood pumped in a single contraction is the __________________. 38. The semilunar valves of the mammalian heart a. are the route by which blood flows from the atria to the ventricles. b. prevent backflow of blood in the aorta and pulmonary arteries. c. are found only on the right side of the heart. d. are the attachment site where the pulmonary veins empty into the heart. e. are at the places where the anterior and posterior venae cavae empty into the heart. 39. The set of blood vessels with the slowest velocity of blood flow is a. the arteries. b. the arterioles. c. the metarterioles. d. the capillaries. e. the veins. 40. Damage to the sinoatrial node in humans a. is a major contributor to atherosclerosis. b. would block conductance between the bundle branches and the Purkinje fibers. c. would have a negative effect on peripheral resistance. d. would disrupt the rate and timing of cardiac muscle contractions. e. would have a direct effect on blood pressure monitors in the aorta. 41. Which of these speed up heart rate? a. low-density lipoproteins b. immunoglobulins c. erythropoietin d. epinephrine e. platelets 42. Which of these stimulate the production of red blood cells? a. low-density lipoproteins b. immunoglobulins c. erythropoietin d. epinephrine e. platelets 53. What is measured by an electrocardiogram? a. impulses from the AV node b. impulses of the parasympathetic nervous system that control heart beat c. the spread of impulses from the SA node d. contraction of the two atria e. systole and diastole 54. What node sets the 55. What receives and 56. Where is the signal 57. Where does rate and timing at which delays the impulses? traveling during this phase? the signal spread cardiac muscle cells contract? in this phase? ________________________ ___________________ ___________________ ______________ 58. Fluid exchange occurs between capillaries and interstitial fluid as a function of blood pressure and osmotic pressure. Where on this graph would you expect fluids to flow into the venous end of the capillaries? 59. What are the three main components of blood? 60. Where are the 2 breathing control centers in the brain? _____________________________ and __________________________ 61. Where are the 2 sensors that monitor O2 and CO2 concentrations in the blood? _____________________________ and __________________________ 62. What would be the long-term effect if the lymphatic vessels associated with a capillary bed were to become blocked? a. More fluid would enter the venous capillaries. b. Blood pressure in the capillary bed would increase. c. Fluid would accumulate in interstitial areas. d. Fewer proteins would leak into the interstitial fluid from the blood. e. Nothing would happen 63. Where is the partial pressure of O2 higher? A or B 64. Where is the partial pressure of CO2 higher? C or D 65. CO2 produced during cellular respiration lowers blood pH and decreases the affinity of hemoglobin for O2; this is called the __________________________. 66. Air rushes into the lungs of humans during inhalation because a. the rib muscles and diaphragm contract, increasing the lung volume. b. pressure in the alveoli increases. c. gas flows from a region of lower pressure to a region of higher pressure. d. pulmonary muscles contract and pull on the outer surface of the lungs. e. a positive respiratory pressure is created when the diaphragm relaxes. 67. Which of the following occurs with the exhalation of air from human lungs? a. The volume of the thoracic cavity decreases. b. The residual volume of the lungs decreases. c. The diaphragm contracts. d. The epiglottis closes. e. The rib cage expands. 68. How is most of the carbon dioxide transported by the blood in humans? a. bicarbonate ions in the plasma b. CO2 attached to hemoglobin c. carbonic acid in the erythrocytes d. CO2 dissolved in the plasma e. bicarbonate attached to hemoglobin 69. Hydrogen ions produced in human red blood cells are prevented from significantly lowering pH by combining with a. hemoglobin. b. plasma proteins. c. carbon dioxide. d. carbonic acid. e. plasma buffers. 70. The complement system is a. a set of proteins involved in innate but not acquired immunity. b. a set of proteins secreted by cytotoxic T cells and other CD8 cells. c. a group of proteins that includes interferons and interleukins. d. a group of antimicrobial proteins that act together in a cascade fashion. e. a set of proteins that act individually to attack and lyse microbes. 71. An inflammation-causing signal released by mast cells at the site of an infection is a. an interferon. b. lymphatic fluid. c. histamine. d. mucus. e. sodium ions. 72. What are antigens? a. proteins found in the blood that cause foreign blood cells to clump b. proteins embedded in B cell membranes c. proteins that consist of two light and two heavy polypeptide chains d. foreign molecules that trigger the generation of antibodies e. proteins released during an inflammatory response 73. What differentiates T cells and B cells? a. T cells but not B cells are stimulated to increase the rate of their cell cycles. b. Only B cells are produced from stem cells of the bone marrow. c. T cells but not B cells can directly attack and destroy invading pathogens. d. T cells but not B cells have surface markers. e. Only B cells take part in cell-mediated immunity. 74. The MHC is important in a T cell’s ability to a. distinguish self from non-self b. recognize specific parasitic pathogens c. identify specific bacterial pathogens d. identify specific viruses e. recognize differences among types of cancer 75. An epitope is a. part of the interferons that penetrate foreign cells. b. a protein protruding from the surface of B cells. c. two structurally similar antibodies dissolved in the blood plasma. d. the part of an antigen that actually binds to an antigen receptor. e. a mirror image of an antigen. 76. What accounts for the variability in different antibody molecules? a. alternative splicing of exons after transcription b. increased rate of mutation in the RNA molecules c. DNA rearrangements followed by alternative splicing of the transcripts d. DNA rearrangements in the thymus cells e. crossing over during meiosis I 77. What is the primary function of humoral immunity? a. defends against fungi and protozoa b. responsible for transplant tissue rejection c. protects the body against cells that become cancerous. d. produces antibodies that circulate in body fluids. e. primarily defends against bacteria and viruses that have already infected cells. 78. These cells are involved in innate immunity and a person lacking these cells may have a higher than normal chance of developing malignant tumors. _________________________ 79. These cells interact with both the humoral and cell-mediated immune pathways. _________________________ 80. Which type of cells is responsible for initiating a secondary immune response? _________________________ 81. Which type of cells would secrete antibodies against a virus? _________________________ 82. These cells are involved in cell-mediated immunity and respond to class I MHC molecule-antigen complexes. _________________________ 83. Where does urea come from? a. glycogen in the liver b. NH3 and CO2 in the liver c. glucose in the kidneys d. glycerol in the kidneys e. uric acid and water in the bladder 84. What is the advantage of excreting wastes as urea rather than ammonia? a. urea can be exchanged for sodium ions b. urea is less toxic than ammonia c. urea requires more water for excretion than ammonia d. urea does not affect the osmolar gradient e. less nitrogen is removed from the body 85. What substance is secreted by the proximal-tubule cells and prevents the pH of urine from becoming too acidic? a. bicarbonate b. salt c. glucose d. ammonia e. NaOH 86. Which structure contains blood in a normally functioning nephron? ____________________________________ 87. Which structure passes urine to the renal pelvis? ____________________________________ 88. Which structure descends deep into the renal medulla only in juxtamedullary nephrons? ___________________________________ 89. Which structure increases the reabsorption of Na when stimulated by aldosterone? ___________________________________ 90. Which hormone would you expect to be active in times of food shortages? __________________________________________ 91. Which hormone would you expect to be expressed in high levels during extreme stress? __________________________________________ 92. Which hormone would you expect to be active during active labor and uterine contractions? __________________________________________ 93. Which hormone would you expect to be active following a large meal? __________________________________________ 94. Inhibition of what hormone causes the increased urine production after drinking alcoholic beverages? ________________________________ 95. The mode of action of aspirin and ibuprofen is to inhibit the synthesis of ____________________. 96. Which hormone system maintains osmolarity by stimulating Na reabsorption, thus maintaining homeostasis? ________________________________ 97. A primary response of the Leydig cells in the testes to the presence of LH is an increase in the synthesis and secretion of _________________. 98. Ovulation is the follicular response to a burst of secreted _______________. 99. Prior to ovulation, the steroid hormone secreted by a growing follicle is ________________. 100. This embryonic hormone maintains progesterone and estrogen secretion by the corpus luteum through the first trimester. ________________________ 101. This hypothalamic hormone triggers the secretion of FSH. _____________________ Label the endocrine glands described below: 108. The primary function of the corpus luteum is to a. nourish and protect the egg cell b. produce prolactin in the alveoli c. maintain progesterone and estrogen synthesis after ovulation d. stimulate mammary gland development e. support pregnancy in the second and third trimesters 109. A cloaca is an anatomical structure found in many nonmammalian vertebrates, which functions as a. a specialized sperm-transfer device produced by males. b. a common exit for the digestive, excretory, and reproductive systems. c. a region bordered by the labia minora and clitoris in females. d. a source of nutrients for developing sperm in the testes. e. a gland that secretes mucus to lubricate the vaginal opening. 110. An oocyte released from a human ovary enters the oviduct as a result of a. the beating action of the flagellum on the oocyte. b. the force of the follicular ejection directing the oocyte into the oviduct. c. the wavelike beating of cilia lining the oviduct. d. movement of the oocyte through the pulsing uterus into the oviduct. e. Peristaltic contraction of ovarian muscles. 111. The junction of the upper vagina and the uterus is called the a. fallopian tube. b. endometrium. c. oviduct. d. labia majora. e. cervix. 112. In humans, the follicular cells that remain behind in the ovary following ovulation become ovarian endometrium shed at the time of menses. a. a steroid-hormone synthesizing structure called the corpus luteum. b. the thickened portion of the uterine wall. c. swept into the fallopian tube. d. the placenta, which secretes cervical mucus. 113. Sperm cells are stored within human males in the a. urethra. b. prostate. c. epididymis. d. seminal vesicles. e. bulbourethral gland. 114. Among human males, both semen and urine normally travel along the a. vas deferens. b. urinary bladder. c. seminal vesicle. d. urethra. e. ureter. 115. Contact of a sperm with signal molecules in the coat of an egg causes the sperm to undergo a. mitosis b. membrane depolarization c. apoptosis d. vitellogenesis e. the acrosomal reaction 116. During fertilization, the acrosomal contents a. block polyspermy b. help propel more sperm toward the egg c. digest the protective coat on the surface of the egg d. nourish the sperm’s mitochondria e. trigger the completion of meiosis by sperm 117. Most of the neurons in the human brain are a. sensory neurons b. motor neurons c. interneurons d. auditory neurons e. olfactory neurons 118. A resting motor neuron is expected to a. release lots of acetylcholine b. to have high permeability to sodium ions c. to be equally permeable to sodium and potassium ions d. exhibit a resting potential that is more negative than the “threshold” potential e. have a higher concentration of sodium ions on the inside of the cell than the outside 119. The threshold potential of a membrane a. is the point of separation from a living from a dead neuron b. is the lowest frequency of action potentials a neuron can produce c. is the minimum hyperpolarization needed to prevent the occurrence of action potentials d. is the minimum depolarization needed to operate the voltage-gated sodium and potassium channels e. is the peak amount of depolarization seen in an action potential 120. Neurotransmitters are released from axon terminals via a. osmosis b. active transport c. diffusion d. transcytosis e. exocytosis 121. An inhibitory postsynaptic potential (IPSP) occurs in a membrane made more permeable to a. potassium ions b. sodium ions c. calcium ions d. ATP e. all neurotransmitters 122. Inhibitory neurotransmitters are expected to a. act independently of their receptor proteins b. close potassium channels c. open sodium channels d. close chloride channels e. hyperpolarize the membrane 123. What happens when a neuron’s membrane depolarizes? a. There is a net diffusion of Na out of the cell. b. The equilibrium potential for K becomes more positive. c. The neuron’s membrane voltage becomes more positive. d. The neuron becomes less likely to generate an action potential. e. The inside of the cell becomes more negative relative to the outside. 124. The primary neurotransmitter from the parasympathetic system that influences its autonomic targets is: _____________________________ 125. The major inhibitory neurotransmitter of the human brain is _ ___________________. 126. A neurotransmitter that might function as a natural analgesic is _________________. 127. People suffering from severe depression and bipolar disorder or schizophrenia have altered levels of _________________. 128. If several EPSPs arrive at the axon hillock from different dendritic locations, they depolarize the postsynaptic cell to threshold for an action potential. This is an example of a. temporal summation b. spatial summation c. tetanus d. the refractory state e. an action potential with an abnormally high peak of depolarization 129. If several IPSPs arrive at the axon hillock rapidly in sequence from a single dendritic location, they hyperpolarize the postsynaptic cell more and more and, thus, prevent an action potential. This is an example of a. temporal summation b. spatial summation c. tetanus d. the refractory state e. an action potential with an abnormally high peak of depolarization 130. Why are action potentials usually conducted in only one direction along an axon? a. The nodes of Ranvier can conduct potentials in only one direction. b. The brief refractory period prevents reopening of voltage-gated Na channel. c. The axon hillock has a higher membrane potential than the terminals of the axon. d. Ions can flow along the axon in only one direction. e. Voltage-gated channels for Na and K open only in one direction. 131. What controls heart rate, respiration, and circulation? a. neocortex b. medulla c. thalamus d. pituitary e. cerebellum 132. Which produces hormones that are secreted by the pituitary gland? a. neocortex b. medulla c. thalamus d. hypothalamus e. cerebellum 133. Which coordinates muscle actions? a. neocortex b. medulla c. thalamus d. pituitary e. cerebellum 134. Which regulated body temperature (thermoregulation)? a. neocortex b. medulla c. thalamus d. hypothalamus e. cerebellum 135. Where is the motor cortex located? a. cerebrum b. medulla c. midbrain d. spinal cord e. cerebellum 136. Establishment of emotions involves the a. frontal lobes and limbic system b. frontal lobes and parietal lobes c. parietal lobes and limbic system d. frontal and occipital lobes e. occipital lobes and limbic system 137. Patients with damage to Wernicke’s area have difficulty a. coordinating limb movement b. generating speech c. recognizing faces d. understanding language e. experiencing emotion 138. The functional unit of a muscle, bordered by two Z lines, is the _______________. 139. According to the sliding filament model, what has to bind to the myosin to allow it to change from a low energy to high energy conformation (so it can bind to the actin)? 140. Muscle fiber contracts when the concentration of which ion is high? 141. What “state” does Part C on this graph represent? 142. Conducted sound waves will travel through the ear canal and will hit the ____________________ causing it to be driven inwards. The inward force will cause the malleus and incus to push the stapes deep into the oval window of the inner ear. 143. The three smallest bones in the human body are contained within the middle ear space: ________________________ _______________________ _______________________ 144. The outer-most layer of the skin composed of keritinocytes, melanocytes, Merkel’s cells, and Langerhans’ cells is called the ________________________. 145. What are the two types of photoreceptors found in the eye? 146. What part of the eye changes shape, becoming rounded or elongated, to accommodate near and far vision and is replaced in cataract surgery? __________________________ 147. There are five basic taste sensations. What amino acid activates the umami taste buds, making other tastes more intense? (Hint: we often use this amino acid in the form of MSG) 148. The facial nerve is connected to __________ taste bud receptors, which is why you make a funny face when you eat these foods. 149. The vagus nerve is connected to ______ taste bud receptors, which is why you gag when you eat many poisonous chemicals (based on their taste). 150. Immediately after putting on a shirt, your skin might feel itchy. However, this perception soon fades due to a. sensory adaptation. b. accommodation. c. the increase of transduction. d. reduced motor unit recruitment. e. reduced receptor amplification.

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