INSTRUMENT ORAL EXAM QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS QUIZ BANK FULLY PASSED AND RATED 100%

INSTRUMENT ORAL EXAM QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS QUIZ BANK FULLY PASSED AND RATED 100% IFR Flight Time Requirements Ans- a) 50 hours cross country as PIC (at least 10 in airplanes) b) 40 hours Instrument (actual or simulated) c) 15 hours instrument dual training from CFI (in same type) d) 3 hours instrument training within 60 days prior to test e) 250 NM cross-country conducted under IFR with 3 different types of approaches When is Instrument Rating required? Ans- a) On IFR Flight Plan b) In Class A Airspace c) In weather conditions less than VFR d) Under special VFR within Class B, C, D, and E surface areas between sunset and sunrise (night) Recency-of-experience requirements for IFR Ans- a) 6 instrument approaches, holding patterns, and intercepting/tracking of courses using navigation aids within the preceding six months. b) 3 take-offs and landings within preceding 90 days (full stop at night) to carry passengers c) Biennial flight review If instrument currency expires, what can be done to become current again? Ans- Within six months of expiration, complete the requirements (instrument approaches, holding patterns, and intercepting/tracking courses) with a safety pilot in simulated IFR conditions only. After that, must get a check with an examiner, authorized instructor, or FAA-approved person. Requirements of safety pilot Ans- a) Possess a current medical certificate b) Possess a private pilot's license with appropriate category/class ratings c) If flight is conducted on an IFR flight plan, safety pilot must have instrument rating Info a PIC must be familiar with before a flight Ans- All available information, including: a) weather reports and forecasts b) fuel requirements c) alternatives if flight cannot be completed as planned d) known ATC delays e) runaway lengths of intended use f) takeoff and landing distances What are fuel requirements for flight in IFR conditions? Ans- With alternate airport: enough fuel to fly to intended airport (holding pattern included), then to alternate, then for 45 minutes after at cruise speed Without alternate airport: enough to fly to destination airport and land with 45 min fuel remaining Before conducting IFR flight using GPS equipment for navigation, what checks should be made? Ans- a) verify that GPS equipment is properly installed and certified for planned IFR b) verify that database is current (not expired) c) review the GPS NOTAM/RAIM information for planned route of flight Aircraft instruments/equipment required for IFR flight Ans- G - generator or alternator of sufficient capacity R - radios for navigation A - altimeter (sensitive) B - ball (for turn coordination) C - clock with sweep-second hand A - attitude indicator R - rate-of-turn coordinator D - directional gyro D - DME / RNAV (for flight at FL240 and above if VOR equipment necessary for planned route) Required tests/inspections of aircraft/equipment for IFR flight Ans- A - annual V - VOR (30 days) 1 - 100 hour A - altimeter (24 months) T - transponder (24 months) E - ELT (12 months) Pitot/static system (within past 24 months) Portable electronic devices on aircraft Ans- Not allowed, especially on commercial operators/carriers or any aircraft operated IFR. Exceptions: portable voice recorders, hearing aids, heart pacemakers, electric shavers, or any other portable electronic devices that will not cause interference with NAV/COM. Documents on board to be legal for IFR Ans- A - airworthiness certificate R - registration certificate R - radio station license (if international operations) O - owner's manual or operating limitations W - weight and balance data How often is GPS waypoint information updated? Ans- Every 28 days, and maintained by National Flight Data Center (NFDC) When must pilot file an IFR flight plan? Ans- Prior to departure from within or prior to entering controlled airspace: submit flight plan and receive clearance from ATC if weather conditions are below VFR minimums. File 30 minutes prior to departure to preclude delay in receiving departure clearance. When can you cancel IFR flight plan? Ans- Any time the flight is operated during VFR conditions outside of Class A. Be aware that other procedures may be applicable in area, such as designated TRSA, Class C, or Class B. What type of aircraft equipment determines your "special equipment" suffix when filing IFR? Ans- a) radar beacon transponder b) DME equipment c) TACAN-only equipment d) Area Navigation equipment (RNAV) - LORAN, INS e) Advanced Area Navigation equipment - Global Positioning System (GPS)/Global Navigation Satellite System (GNSS) f) Reduced Vertical Separation Minimum (RVSM) authorization Block 7 of flight plan - altitude specified? Ans- Initial altitude, make subsequent requests to controller when in air ***Alternate Airport Requirements*** Ans- 1-2-3 rule: Alternate required if from 1 hour before to 1 hour after forecast arrival at destination airport has 2000 foot ceilings and less than 3 SM visibility. Alternate requirements: a) If IAP is published for alternate, use those minimums, otherwise 600-2 (600 foot ceilings, 2 SM visibility) for Precision Approach, and 800-2 for Nonprecision Approach b) If no IAP has been published, ceiling and visibility minimums are those required for descent from MEA, approach, and land under basic VFR Define "ceiling" Ans- Height above Earth's surface (AGL) of lowest cloud layer defined as obscured, broken, overcast, but not thin or partial. What are preferred routes, and where can they be found? Ans- Routes in high traffic areas that ATC designates to- and from- busy airports. Found in A/FD What are Enroute Low-Altitude Charts? Ans- Provide aeronautical information for navigation under IFR conditions below 18,000 feet MSL (under Class A). Revised every 56 days. What are Enroute High-Altitude Charts? Ans- Provide information for navigation above 18,000 feet MSL. Four-color chart series includes jet route structure; VHF NAVAIDs with frequency, identification, channel, geographic coordinates; selected airports; reporting points. Revised every 56 days. What are "area charts"? Ans- Area charts show congested terminal areas such as Dallas/FW or Atlanta at a large scale. They are included with subscriptions to any conterminous US set Low (Full set, East or West sets). Revised every 56 days. Where can information on possible navigational aid limitations be found? Ans- NOTAMs as well as A/FDs will contain current limitations What are the required reports for equipment malfunction under IFR-controller airspace? Ans- a) Failure of VOR, TACAN, ADF, or low frequency navigation receiver capability b) GPS anomalies while using IFR-certified GPS/GNSS receivers c) Complete or partial loss of ILS receiver capability d) Impairment of air/ground communication capability e) Loss of any other equipment installed in the aircraft which may impair safety and/or the ability to operate in IFR How can IFR clearance be obtained? Ans- a) At airport with ATC tower in operation, clearance may be received from ground control or specific clearance delivery frequency b) At airports without a tower or FSS on field, or in outlying area: - Clearance may be received over radio through remote communication outlet (RCO) or over telephone - Clearance delivery frequency is available that is usable at airports within specific area, say Class B airspace - If above not available, clearance can be received from ARTCC once airborne as long as you stay in Class E airspace VFR Ask the nearest FSS for appropriate means. What does "cleared as filed" mean? Ans- ATC will issue abbreviated this statement of IFR clearance based on route of flight as filed in the IFR flight plan Which clearance items are given in an abbreviated IFR clearance? Ans- C - Clearance Limit (destination airport or fix) R - Route (initial heading) A - Altitude (initial altitude) F - frequency (departure) T - transponder (squawk code) Note: ATC procedures require controller to state the Departure Procedure (DP) within Route info if applicable as well What does "clearance void time" mean? Ans- When operating from non-towered field, this is the time after which the IFR clearance is voided and pilot must report intentions to ATC (within 30 minutes) What does "hold for release" mean when included in IFR clearance? Ans- Delays the aircraft's departure for traffic management reasons. May not depart under IFR clearance until a release time or additional instructions are provided by ATC Minimums necessary for IFR takeoff under 14 CFR Part 91? Under Parts 121, 125, 129, or 135? Ans- Part 91: None Other Parts (assuming Takeoff Minimums not prescribed for that airport under Part 97): 1 SM visibility for aircraft with 2 engines or less, 1/2 SM for aircraft with 3 or more engines What is "good operating practice" in determining takeoff minimums for IFR flight? Ans- Use the minima in the Instrument Approach Procedure for that airport. If none available, use basic VFR minimums (1000 feet ceilings, 3 miles) What are DPs and why are they necessary? Ans- Departure Procedures (DPs) are preplanned IFR procedures that provide obstruction clearances from runway to enroute airway. Provides obstacle clearance protection and, at busier airports, increases efficiency by reducing communication and departure delays. Pilots under Part 91 are strongly encouraged to file and fly a DP at night, during marginal VMC and IMC, when one is available. What are two types of DPs? Ans- a) Obstacle Departure Procedures (ODPs) - textually/graphically, obstruction clearance via least burdensome route, No need for ATC clearance unless alternate departure procedure (SID or radar vector) has been specifically assigned by ATC. b) Standard Instrument Departures (SIDs) - always graphically, obstruction clearance and transition, system enhancement and reduce pilot/controller workload, ATC clearance must be received prior What criteria are used to provide obstruction clearance during departure? Ans- Based on: pilot crossing departure end of runway 35 ft above that elevation, climbing to 400 ft above runway before making initial turn maintaining minimum climb gradient of 200 ft/NM (unless required to level off by crossing restriction). Gradient may vary based on obstacles. Where are DPs located? Ans- Listed by airport in "IFR Take-Off Minimums and Departure Procedures," Section C of the Terminal Procedures Publications Must you accept a SID if assigned one? Ans- No. Since they're only graphical, if the pilot does not have access or does not have equipment to fly the SID, he or she can notify ATC verbally (less preferred) or when filing the flight plan specify "NO SID". How does pilot determine if takeoff minimums are not standard and/or departure procedures are published for an airport? Ans- A "triangle T" or "trouble T" (black triangle with a T inside it) will be placed in notes sections of the instrument procedure chart. Signifies non-standard take-off minimums. When a DP specifies a climb gradient in excess of 200 ft/NM, what significance should this have? Ans- There will be no obstacle departure procedure (ODP) if pilot can turn in any direction from a runway and remain clear of obstacles (satisfies diverse departure criteria). SID may be provided for ATC reasons. Otherwise, the DP was designed with a steeper than normal gradient or specifies departure route for purposes of avoiding obstacles near runway end. Climb gradient of 300 ft/NM at a ground speed of 100 knots requires what rate of climb? Ans- 300 * (100/60) = 500 ft/min What is recommended climb rate procedure, when issued a climb to an assigned altitude by ATC? Ans- Climb at Vy (or Vx if necessary) until 1000 feet below. Then 500-1500 fpm until assigned altitude is reached. (If ATC does not use "At Pilot's Discretion" nor impose climb/descent restrictions, pilot should initiate change in altitude immediately upon acknowledgement of clearance). What are different methods of checking the accuracy of VOR equipment? Ans- a) VOR Test Signal (VOT) check; +/- 4 deg b) Ground checkpoint; +/- 4 deg c) Airborne checkpoint; +/- 6 deg d) Dual VOR check; within 4 deg of each other e) Select a radial over a known ground point; +/- 6 deg A repair station can use a radiated test signal, but only technician performing test can make an entry in the logbook What records must be kept concerning VOR checks? Ans- Each person making a VOR check shall enter the date, place and bearing error, and sign the aircraft log