Nuclear medicine exam review (100 OUT OF 100)
450 Questions and Verified Answers
Static bone imaging is routinely performed how long after tracer administration to an adult:
A)30min B)1hr C)2-3hr D)24hr
C)2-3hr. Static bone imaging performed with a labeled diphosphonate compound is routinely
performed 2-3hr after tracer administration.
Which of the following structures normally appear as areas of increased activity on the bone
images of adults: A)anterior iliac crests B)glenoid fossa C)sternoclavicular joints D)all of the
above
D)all the above. On bone images of adults, areas of normally increased tracer activity include all
those listed as well as the sacroiliac, hip, and acromioclavicular joints and vertebral column.
Re
Which of the following conditions is visualized on a bone image as a photopenic area:
A)attenuation B)tracer infiltration C)acute myocardial infarction D)osteomyelitis
A)attenuation. A photopenic area is one in which a smaller number of photons is visualized-a
cold spot. A material that absorbs photons may cause an attenuation artifact, an area of falsely
decreased tracer concentration(jewelry, belt buckles, pacemaker)
It is safe to block a portion of the pulmonary circulation with MAA particles in patients with
suspected PE because: A)# of injected particles block only a small number of precapillary
arterioles B)particles are made from albumin isolated from human serum
A)# of injected particles blocks only a small number of precapillary arterioles. Less than 1% of
the precapillary arterioles are blocked with the MAA particles; therefore, there is no adverse
effect on the patient.
A nebulizer is used to administer which of the following lung ventilation radiopharmaceuticals:
A)81mKr gas B)133Xe gas C)99mTc-pentetate D)99mTc-MAA
C)99mTc-pentetate. A nebulizer is a device that uses ultrasound or pressure to create airborne
(aerosol) particles from a liquid.
Which of the following radiopharmaceuticals may be used to image acute deep vein thrombosis
in the lower extremities: A)99mTc-MAA B)99mTc-arcitumomab C)131I-iobenguane D)111In-
oxyquinoline
A)99mTc-MAA is used to image acute deep-vein thrombosis in the lower extremities.
,In performing radionuclide venography with 99mTc-MAA, the radiopharmaceutical is
administered at what site: A)antecubital of either arm B)either femoral vein C)dorsal veins on
top of each foot D)either basilic vein
C)dorsal vein on to of each foot. The tracer is introduced into the deep venous system of the legs.
Therefore, the tracer is administered into the dorsal vein of each foot.
After total thyroidectomy, total-body imaging with radioiodine normally will demonstrate tracer
concentration in which areas: A)liver, lungs, bones B)salivary glands, stomach, and bladder
C)liver, salivary glands, stomach, lungs D)bladder, liver, brain
B) The salivary glands and saliva in the mouth, the gastric mucosa and secretions into the
intestine, and the urinary bladder are sites that normally concentrate radioiodine. Concentrations
in other sites indicate areas of functioning thyroid metastases.
A parathyroid adenoma will concentrate which of the following radioparmaceuticals: A)123I-
sodium iodide B)99mTc-pertechnetate C)99mTc-sestamibi D)99mTc-pertechnetate or 99mTc-
sestamibi
C)99mTc-sestamibi
When positioning a patient for an LAO view of a gated equilibrium ventricular function study,
tilting the camera toward the patient's feet separates what two structures: A)left ventricle and
aorta B)left ventricle and left atrium C)left and right atria
B)left ventricle and left atrium. The left atrium is partially hidden by the aorta and pulmonary
artery. Tilting the detector caudally visually brings the left atrium out from under these structures
and separates it from the left ventricle.
Which tracer is excreted primarily via the hepatobiliary system: A)99mTc-sestamibi B)99mTc-
exametazime C)99mTc-medronate D)201Tl-thallous chloride
A)99mTc-sestamibi
A cardiac stress test requires the placement of how many electrodes on the patient's body: A)3
B)6 C)10 D)12
C)10. A cardiac stress test requires a 12-lead ECG tracing, which uses 10 electrodes attached to
the patient. 2 arm, 2 leg, and 6 chest leads.
Visualization of bone marrow uptake on a 99mTc-sulfer colloid liver/spleen image is most likely
the result of: A)improper colloid particle size B)insufficient tracer circulation time C)liver
dysfunction D)overactive bone marrow
,C)liver dysfunction. Bone marrow uptake is visualized on liver/spleen images when severe liver
dysfunction, such as advanced cirrhosis, is present.
During hepatobiliary imaging, which structure will NOT be visualized if cystic duct obstruction
is present: A)common hepatic duct B)common bile duct C)gallbladder D)small intestine
C)gallbladder. If cystic duct obstruction is present, the tracer will be unable to enter the
gallbladder. The cystic duct is the passage between the common bile duct and the gallbladder.
How long after the administration of 99mTc-pertechnetate does imaging begin for the
localization of a Meckel's diverticulum: A)immediately B)15-20min C)1hr D)2-3hr
A)immediately. For localization of a Meckel's diverticulum, imaging begins immediately after
administration of the tracer.
All of the following 99mTc-labeled radiopharmaceuticals may be appropriate for performing a
left-to-right cardiac shunt exam using the first-pass method except: A)sulfur colloid B)pentetate
C)sestamibi D)tetrofosmin
A)sulfur colloid. First-pass cardiac studies to identify or quantify left-to-right shunts are
performed with radiopharmaceuticals that can be administered in small volumes of 20-25mCi.
The glomerular filtration rate (GFR) is measured with which radiopharmaceutical: A)99mTc-
pentetate B)99mTc-succimer C)99mTc-gluceptate D)99mTc-meritiatide
A)99mTc-pentetate. Determination of GFR requires an agent that is completely filtered by the
glomeruli. 99mTc-pentetate (DTPA) is handled only by glomerular filtration.
Radionuclide cystography is performed by the direct method using which radiopharmaceutical:
A)99mTc-pentetate or medronate B)99mTc-pertechnetate or sulfur colloid C)99mTc-gluceptate
or sulfur colloid D)99mTc-pertechnetate or mertiatide
B)99mTc-pertechnetate or sulfur colloid. Direct radionuclide cystography is performed by
instilling 99mTc-pentetate, or sulfur colloid, into the urinary bladder. Imaging is performed as
the bladder is filling and emptying.
Filtered 99mTc-sulfur colloid is required for which of the following examinations:
A)gastroesophageal reflux B)gastric emptying C)LeVeen shunt patency D)lymphoscintigraphy
D)lymphoscintigraphy. Although all procedures listed may be performed with 99mTc-sulfur
colloid, only lymphoscintigraphy requires that sulfur colloid be filtered to remove the larger
particles.
, A patient with a nasogastric tube in place is transferred to the NM dept for an imaging procedure.
The technologist should: A)confirm physician orders for transfer and reestablish suction if
required B)cancel study C)use the tube to administer tracer
A) Nasogastric tubes are used for gastric decompression. A physician must order the transfer and
interruption of suction. The tech may be required to reestablish suction upon the patient's arrival
in the department.
The appearance of what structure indicates the beginning of the venous phase of a cerebral blood
flow study: A)anterior cerebral arteries B)carotid arteries C)nasopharynx D)superior sagittal
sinus
D)superior sagittal sinus. In a normal cerebral flow study, the first phase is the arterial phase,
indicated by activity in the carotid and anterior cerebral arteries. The capillary phase is followed
by the venous phase.
In performing cisternograpy, the purpose of acquiring the first image over the lower
thoracic/lumbar spine is to ascertain: A)the site of tracer administration B)the flow rate of the
cerebral spinal fluid C)that the tracer was not infiltrated
C)that the tracer was not infiltrated. The injection site should be imaged first to confirm that the
tracer has not infiltrated outside the subarachnoid space. Reinjections may be required if
infiltration is confirmed.
On Wednesday a patient had a 125I thyroid study performed; a 125I plasma volume is ordered to
be performed on Thursday. Should a baseline plasma sample be collected before performing the
plasma volume? True or False
True. A blood sample collected before the 125I-albumin is injected can provide the background
present in the patient's plasma. This will permit counts from the plasma sample containing 125I
to be corrected for any residual 123I.
89Sr-chloride is used to treat which of the following conditions: A)bone pain B)polycythemia
vera C)rheumatoid arthritis D)malignant effusions
A)bone pain. 89Sr-chloride is used to relieve bone pain resulting from skeletal metastases.
Whole-body imaging with 131I-sodium iodide is optimally performed how long after tracer
administration: A)12hr B)18-24hr C)48-72hr D)96hr or longer
C)48-72hr. Although 131I whole-body imaging may be performed as early as 24hr, optimum
images are obtained at 48-72hr after tracer administration.
450 Questions and Verified Answers
Static bone imaging is routinely performed how long after tracer administration to an adult:
A)30min B)1hr C)2-3hr D)24hr
C)2-3hr. Static bone imaging performed with a labeled diphosphonate compound is routinely
performed 2-3hr after tracer administration.
Which of the following structures normally appear as areas of increased activity on the bone
images of adults: A)anterior iliac crests B)glenoid fossa C)sternoclavicular joints D)all of the
above
D)all the above. On bone images of adults, areas of normally increased tracer activity include all
those listed as well as the sacroiliac, hip, and acromioclavicular joints and vertebral column.
Re
Which of the following conditions is visualized on a bone image as a photopenic area:
A)attenuation B)tracer infiltration C)acute myocardial infarction D)osteomyelitis
A)attenuation. A photopenic area is one in which a smaller number of photons is visualized-a
cold spot. A material that absorbs photons may cause an attenuation artifact, an area of falsely
decreased tracer concentration(jewelry, belt buckles, pacemaker)
It is safe to block a portion of the pulmonary circulation with MAA particles in patients with
suspected PE because: A)# of injected particles block only a small number of precapillary
arterioles B)particles are made from albumin isolated from human serum
A)# of injected particles blocks only a small number of precapillary arterioles. Less than 1% of
the precapillary arterioles are blocked with the MAA particles; therefore, there is no adverse
effect on the patient.
A nebulizer is used to administer which of the following lung ventilation radiopharmaceuticals:
A)81mKr gas B)133Xe gas C)99mTc-pentetate D)99mTc-MAA
C)99mTc-pentetate. A nebulizer is a device that uses ultrasound or pressure to create airborne
(aerosol) particles from a liquid.
Which of the following radiopharmaceuticals may be used to image acute deep vein thrombosis
in the lower extremities: A)99mTc-MAA B)99mTc-arcitumomab C)131I-iobenguane D)111In-
oxyquinoline
A)99mTc-MAA is used to image acute deep-vein thrombosis in the lower extremities.
,In performing radionuclide venography with 99mTc-MAA, the radiopharmaceutical is
administered at what site: A)antecubital of either arm B)either femoral vein C)dorsal veins on
top of each foot D)either basilic vein
C)dorsal vein on to of each foot. The tracer is introduced into the deep venous system of the legs.
Therefore, the tracer is administered into the dorsal vein of each foot.
After total thyroidectomy, total-body imaging with radioiodine normally will demonstrate tracer
concentration in which areas: A)liver, lungs, bones B)salivary glands, stomach, and bladder
C)liver, salivary glands, stomach, lungs D)bladder, liver, brain
B) The salivary glands and saliva in the mouth, the gastric mucosa and secretions into the
intestine, and the urinary bladder are sites that normally concentrate radioiodine. Concentrations
in other sites indicate areas of functioning thyroid metastases.
A parathyroid adenoma will concentrate which of the following radioparmaceuticals: A)123I-
sodium iodide B)99mTc-pertechnetate C)99mTc-sestamibi D)99mTc-pertechnetate or 99mTc-
sestamibi
C)99mTc-sestamibi
When positioning a patient for an LAO view of a gated equilibrium ventricular function study,
tilting the camera toward the patient's feet separates what two structures: A)left ventricle and
aorta B)left ventricle and left atrium C)left and right atria
B)left ventricle and left atrium. The left atrium is partially hidden by the aorta and pulmonary
artery. Tilting the detector caudally visually brings the left atrium out from under these structures
and separates it from the left ventricle.
Which tracer is excreted primarily via the hepatobiliary system: A)99mTc-sestamibi B)99mTc-
exametazime C)99mTc-medronate D)201Tl-thallous chloride
A)99mTc-sestamibi
A cardiac stress test requires the placement of how many electrodes on the patient's body: A)3
B)6 C)10 D)12
C)10. A cardiac stress test requires a 12-lead ECG tracing, which uses 10 electrodes attached to
the patient. 2 arm, 2 leg, and 6 chest leads.
Visualization of bone marrow uptake on a 99mTc-sulfer colloid liver/spleen image is most likely
the result of: A)improper colloid particle size B)insufficient tracer circulation time C)liver
dysfunction D)overactive bone marrow
,C)liver dysfunction. Bone marrow uptake is visualized on liver/spleen images when severe liver
dysfunction, such as advanced cirrhosis, is present.
During hepatobiliary imaging, which structure will NOT be visualized if cystic duct obstruction
is present: A)common hepatic duct B)common bile duct C)gallbladder D)small intestine
C)gallbladder. If cystic duct obstruction is present, the tracer will be unable to enter the
gallbladder. The cystic duct is the passage between the common bile duct and the gallbladder.
How long after the administration of 99mTc-pertechnetate does imaging begin for the
localization of a Meckel's diverticulum: A)immediately B)15-20min C)1hr D)2-3hr
A)immediately. For localization of a Meckel's diverticulum, imaging begins immediately after
administration of the tracer.
All of the following 99mTc-labeled radiopharmaceuticals may be appropriate for performing a
left-to-right cardiac shunt exam using the first-pass method except: A)sulfur colloid B)pentetate
C)sestamibi D)tetrofosmin
A)sulfur colloid. First-pass cardiac studies to identify or quantify left-to-right shunts are
performed with radiopharmaceuticals that can be administered in small volumes of 20-25mCi.
The glomerular filtration rate (GFR) is measured with which radiopharmaceutical: A)99mTc-
pentetate B)99mTc-succimer C)99mTc-gluceptate D)99mTc-meritiatide
A)99mTc-pentetate. Determination of GFR requires an agent that is completely filtered by the
glomeruli. 99mTc-pentetate (DTPA) is handled only by glomerular filtration.
Radionuclide cystography is performed by the direct method using which radiopharmaceutical:
A)99mTc-pentetate or medronate B)99mTc-pertechnetate or sulfur colloid C)99mTc-gluceptate
or sulfur colloid D)99mTc-pertechnetate or mertiatide
B)99mTc-pertechnetate or sulfur colloid. Direct radionuclide cystography is performed by
instilling 99mTc-pentetate, or sulfur colloid, into the urinary bladder. Imaging is performed as
the bladder is filling and emptying.
Filtered 99mTc-sulfur colloid is required for which of the following examinations:
A)gastroesophageal reflux B)gastric emptying C)LeVeen shunt patency D)lymphoscintigraphy
D)lymphoscintigraphy. Although all procedures listed may be performed with 99mTc-sulfur
colloid, only lymphoscintigraphy requires that sulfur colloid be filtered to remove the larger
particles.
, A patient with a nasogastric tube in place is transferred to the NM dept for an imaging procedure.
The technologist should: A)confirm physician orders for transfer and reestablish suction if
required B)cancel study C)use the tube to administer tracer
A) Nasogastric tubes are used for gastric decompression. A physician must order the transfer and
interruption of suction. The tech may be required to reestablish suction upon the patient's arrival
in the department.
The appearance of what structure indicates the beginning of the venous phase of a cerebral blood
flow study: A)anterior cerebral arteries B)carotid arteries C)nasopharynx D)superior sagittal
sinus
D)superior sagittal sinus. In a normal cerebral flow study, the first phase is the arterial phase,
indicated by activity in the carotid and anterior cerebral arteries. The capillary phase is followed
by the venous phase.
In performing cisternograpy, the purpose of acquiring the first image over the lower
thoracic/lumbar spine is to ascertain: A)the site of tracer administration B)the flow rate of the
cerebral spinal fluid C)that the tracer was not infiltrated
C)that the tracer was not infiltrated. The injection site should be imaged first to confirm that the
tracer has not infiltrated outside the subarachnoid space. Reinjections may be required if
infiltration is confirmed.
On Wednesday a patient had a 125I thyroid study performed; a 125I plasma volume is ordered to
be performed on Thursday. Should a baseline plasma sample be collected before performing the
plasma volume? True or False
True. A blood sample collected before the 125I-albumin is injected can provide the background
present in the patient's plasma. This will permit counts from the plasma sample containing 125I
to be corrected for any residual 123I.
89Sr-chloride is used to treat which of the following conditions: A)bone pain B)polycythemia
vera C)rheumatoid arthritis D)malignant effusions
A)bone pain. 89Sr-chloride is used to relieve bone pain resulting from skeletal metastases.
Whole-body imaging with 131I-sodium iodide is optimally performed how long after tracer
administration: A)12hr B)18-24hr C)48-72hr D)96hr or longer
C)48-72hr. Although 131I whole-body imaging may be performed as early as 24hr, optimum
images are obtained at 48-72hr after tracer administration.
