Test Bank for the Human Body in Health & Disease 9th Edition by Patton 2023/2024

Test Bank for the Human Body in Health & Disease 9th Edition by Patton d. ammonia to urea for excretion into the urine. ANS: C 61. Ketosis develops in response to a. glycolysis. b. hyperglycemia. c. activation of the urea cycle. d. rapid and incomplete catabolism of fatty acids. ANS: D 62. Which of the following is least related to the aerobic metabolism of glucose? a. Intramitochondrial b. Ketones c. CO 2 + H 2 d. Oxygen ANS: B O + ATP 63. The reaction of –COOH and –NH 2 a. forms urea. b. creates a peptide bond. c. forms glycogen. d. forms a ketone body. ANS: B 64. Which of the following is (are) necessary for the synthesis of urea? a. Ketone bodies b. Insulin c. Glycogen d. Liver enzymes ANS: D 65. Which of the following is true of urea? Urea is a. nitrogen containing. b. produced by hepatic cells. c. eliminated in the urine. d. All of the above are true. ANS: D 66. Which of the following is characteristic of RNA but not DNA? a. Deoxyribose b. Adenine and thymine c. Double stranded S - The Marketplace to Buy and Sell your Study Material d. Uracil and adenine ANS: D 67. Transcription a. occurs within the nucleus. b. involves DNA and mRNA. c. involves tRNA and mRNA. d. More than one of the above are true. ANS: D 68. Translation a. occurs within the nucleus. b. involves DNA and tRNA. c. involves tRNA and mRNA. d. refers to the production of a complementary strand of DNA. ANS: C 69. A strand of DNA reads ATTCGCAGG. A strand of mRNA reads a. TAGGCGTCC. b. UUGGCGCUC. c. UTTCGCTCC. d. UAAGCGUCC. ANS: D 70. Which of the following represents base pairing? a. CCGTTACTG b. Sugar-phosphate, sugar-phosphate, sugar-phosphate c. Ribose-deoxyribose, ribose-deoxyribose, ribose-deoxyribose d. A-T, T-A, C-G, A-U ANS: D 71. Which of the following occurs first? a. Reading the mRNA code by tRNA b. mRNA leaves the nucleus through the nuclear pores c. Transcription d. Translation ANS: C 72. Which of the following is true of sucrose, maltase, and lactase? a. All are double sugars. b. All are proteolytic. c. All are disaccharidases. d. All are storage forms of monosaccharides. ANS: B S - The Marketplace to Buy and Sell your Study Material Chapter 5: Microbiology Basics Test Bank MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which of the following is defined as a disease-producing microorganism? a. Normal flora b. Pathogen c. Arthropod d. Parasite ANS: B 2. Which word best characterizes Typhoid Mary? a. Immune b. Symptomatic c. Carrier d. Fomite ANS: C 3. Which of the following describes the signs and symptoms that develop in response to a pathogen? a. Syndrome b. Allergy c. Infection d. Immunity ANS: C 4. Influenza is best described as a(n) a. localized infection. b. allergic reaction. c. bacterial infection. d. systemic infection. ANS: D 5. Cocci, bacilli, and curved rods are classified as a. viruses. b. pathogens. c. bacteria. d. parasites. ANS: C 6. Bacteria a. include cocci, bacilli, and curved rods. b. are not part of the normal flora of the intestines. c. cause mycotic infections. d. include mold and yeast. ANS: A 7. An abscess is a. an example of a systemic infection. b. always viral in origin. c. an example of a mycotic infection. d. an example of a localized infection. ANS: D 8. Which of the following is least descriptive of staphylococci? a. Grapelike arrangement b. Bacterial c. Gram-positive d. Underlying cause of rheumatic fever ANS: D 9. Rickettsiae are a. classified as fungi. b. viruses. c. often carried by fleas, ticks, and body lice. d. arthropod vectors. ANS: C 10. Streptococci and staphylococci are a. viruses. b. gram-positive bacteria. c. arthropods. d. parasites. ANS: B 11. Rickettsiae and chlamydiae are classified as a. viruses. b. bacteria. c. arthropods. d. bacilli. ANS: B 12. Which of the following are classified as gram-positive and gram-negative? a. Viruses b. Bacteria c. Fungi d. Yeast ANS: B S - The Marketplace to Buy and Sell your Study Material 13. Which of the following is least descriptive of Candida albicans? a. Causative organism of impetigo b. Fungal infection c. Yeast infection d. Antibiotic-induced superinfection ANS: A 14. Tetanus, tuberculosis, and diphtheria are a. staphylococcal infections. b. caused by a spirochete. c. localized infections. d. bacterial infections. ANS: D 15. Which highly coiled microorganism resembles a corkscrew? a. Staphylococcus b. Streptococcus c. Bacillus d. Spirillum ANS: D 16. Clostridium tetani and Clostridium difficile a. are gram-negative bacilli. b. are anaerobic. c. are always pathogenic. d. cause the “tineas,” such as athlete’s foot and ringworm. ANS: B 17. Which of the following is least descriptive of Treponema pallidum? a. Causes syphilis b. Classified as a bacterium c. Is most often spread by the fecal-oral route d. Is a spirochete ANS: C 18. What is the significance of bacterial spore formation? The bacterium a. becomes more sensitive to the effects of antibiotics. b. becomes more resistant to harsh environmental conditions. c. increases its reproductive activity. d. permanently loses its ability to cause disease. ANS: B 19. Which of the following requires another living host for its continued existence? a. Arthropod b. Pathogen c. Parasite d. Bacterium ANS: C 20. Which of the following is called the acid-fast bacillus? a. Staphylococcus aureus b. Salmonella typhi c. Mycobacterium tuberculosis d. Clostridium tetani ANS: C 21. A mycotic infection is caused by a(n) a. parasite. b. bacterium. c. fungus. d. arthropod. ANS: C 22. With regard to infectious disease, arthropods most often act as a. parasites. b. causative organisms of disease. c. vectors. d. fomites. ANS: C 23. Which disease is caused by a sporozoan carried by a mosquito? a. Typhoid fever b. Tetanus c. Malaria d. Rocky Mountain spotted fever ANS: C 24. Infections such as athlete’s foot and ringworm are referred to as a. systemic. b. mycotic. c. parasitic. d. bacterial. ANS: B S - The Marketplace to Buy and Sell your Study Material 25. Which group includes single-cell animal-like microbes, such as amebas? a. Bacilli b. Arthropods c. Viruses d. Protozoa ANS: D 26. Which “bad air” disease is caused by a plasmodium? a. Measles b. Tinea c. Tetanus d. Malaria ANS: D 27. Which of the following is most related to the rusty nail infection? a. Clostridium b. Mycotic c. Viral d. Parasitic ANS: A 28. Tinea is most related to a. ringworm. b. tetanus. c. systemic infection. d. treatment with anthelmintics. ANS: A 29. A fomite is a a. worm. b. parasite. c. vector. d. host. ANS: C 30. A helminth is a(n) a. parasite. b. arthropod. c. worm. d. bacterium. ANS: C 31. Amebic dysentery and giardiasis are a. mycotic infections. b. caused by Salmonella. c. worm infestations. d. caused by protozoan parasites. ANS: D 32. The ova of which of these parasitic and pathogenic multicellular animals usually appear in the stool of the infected person? a. Worms b. Viruses c. Arthropods d. Spirochetes ANS: A 33. The tick associated with Rocky Mountain spotted fever is referred to as a(n) a. arthropod vector. b. causative organism. c. spirochete. d. fungus. ANS: A 34. The acid-fast bacillus is a. most often spread through droplet infection. b. eradicated by a single dose of penicillin. c. pathogenic only in humans. d. most often diagnosed by a urine culture. ANS: A 35. Rocky Mountain spotted fever is most effectively treated with an _____ drug. a. antiviral b. anthelmintic c. antibiotic d. antifungal ANS: C 36. Biting flies, fleas, and ticks a. most often cause systemic infections. b. are best described as ectoparasites. S - The Marketplace to Buy and Sell your Study Material c. are classified as helminths. d. cause mycotic infections. ANS: B 37. Which of the following lives in the intestinal tract and lays its eggs in the perianal area, causing severe pruritus? a. Clostridium tetani b. Pinworms c. Salmonella typhi d. Candida albicans ANS: B 38. Ectoparasites are most likely to cause a. itching and discomfort. b. high fever. c. paralysis. d. loss of consciousness. ANS: A 39. Rickettsiae require a living host for their survival and are therefore considered to be a. pathogenic. b. parasitic. c. fungal. d. communicable. ANS: B 40. Which of the following is both a vector and an arthropod? a. Contaminated drinking glass b. Virus c. Worm d. Flea ANS: D 41. Typhoid Mary harbored the Salmonella pathogen in her a. urine (kidneys). b. respiratory secretions (lungs). c. nasal secretions (nose). d. bile (gallbladder). ANS: D 42. Herpes varicella-zoster a. is a fungus. b. generally causes an antibiotic-induced superinfection. c. causes chickenpox. d. responds well to antibiotics. ANS: C 43. A pox infection a. is always caused by herpes varicella-zoster. b. occurs only in humans. c. is a skin lesion. d. is communicable but never contagious. ANS: C 44. Herpes varicella-zoster may lay dormant in the nerves for many years; when awakened in later life, it causes a. “the great pox.” b. shingles. c. tinea capitis. d. smallpox. ANS: B 45. The puerperal fever described by Dr. Semmelweiss is best described as a. a localized infection. b. age-related degenerative disease. c. nosocomial infection. d. pandemic. ANS: C 46. Which of the following is true of commensal organisms that populate the normal flora? a. They live harmoniously without harming the person. b. Unless they are destroyed with an antibiotic, the person develops an infection. c. The organisms are usually walled off as an abscess. d. All commensal organisms are confined to the large intestine (bowel). ANS: A 47. Iron deficiency anemia is endemic in low economic areas of a city, meaning a. most of the population has iron deficiency anemia. b. the iron deficiency anemia is untreatable. c. the iron deficiency anemia has been eradicated. d. the iron deficiency anemia always exists in small numbers in the community. ANS: D 48. Which of the following is least descriptive of a vector?