Primary Professional Military Education (Enlisted) Block 2 The Culture of the Navy ALL ANSWERS GUARANTEED GRADE A+ FALL-2021/2022 SOLUTION

SECTION 1: CHIEF PETTY OFFICER HISTORY, DUTIES, AND RESPONSIBILITIES 1. The only article of the CPO uniform described in the 1897 Uniform Regulations was the? ** hat device 2. Which regulation established the grade of chief petty officer on 1 April 1893? ** U.S. Navy Regulation Circular Number 1 3. On 23 May, 1978, the CNO approved new roles and responsibilities for a chief petty officer. Which of the following was a defined role? ** The top technical authority and expert within a rating 4. The CNO/MCPON Advisory Panel was established in 1971 to? ** Represent the enlisted force to Navy leadership on professional and personnel issues 5. The Career Compensation Act of 1949 established what significant change? ** It designated chief petty officers as paygrade E-7 instead of paygrade 1 6. What initiative led directly to the recommendation for establishing the billet of Master Chief Petty Officer of the Navy? ** The Retention Task Force of 1964 7. In the early 1900’s Sailors of all rates were promoted to fill what first? ** Voids in critical Navy billets, normally in their own command 8. During the early 1900’s chief petty officers could receive a permanent appointment based on? ** Satisfactory performance, as evaluated by the commanding officer 9. On 28 April 1967, became the first Master Chief Petty Officer of the Navy. ** GMCM Delbert Black 10. What is not a responsibility of the Master Chief Petty Officer of the Navy? ** Report directly to the Chief of Naval Personnel on enlisted retention rates 11. On 13 January 1967, GMCM Delbert Black was officially appointed as the first? ** Senior Enlisted Advisor of the Navy 12. The duties and responsibilities of a master chief petty officer in 1978 were? ** broadened to include contributing to command-level policy formulation 13. The paygrades of senior chief and master chief petty officer were established in what year? ** 1958 14. The Chief Petty Officer Core Competencies were developed to? ** Strengthen chief petty officer standards 15. According to the 1918 BlueJacket’s Manual, two roles of a chief petty officer were ** Technical expert and example setter SECTION 2: OVERVIEW OF MANPOWER MANAGEMENT 1. How often is the Enlisted Distribution and Verification Report (EDVR) published? ** Monthly 2. The AMD is a single source document that provides . ** quantitative and qualitative manpower requirements 3. OPNAVINST 1300.15, Navy Military Personnel Assignment Policy, states Navy policy is to make only permanent change of station (PCS) moves necessary for . ** national security and/or to ensure equitable treatment of Sailors 4. OPNAV Instruction 1000.16, Manual of Navy Total Force Manpower Policies and Procedures, defines manpower management as a . **methodical process 5. In manpower management, commands are responsible for what? ** Submitting requests to revise, add, or delete requirements 6. Which statement defines Projected Operational Environment (POE)? ** Environment in which a command is expected to operate 7. Placement is an advocate for and detailers are advocates for . ** Commands, Sailors 8. Which document provides the present and future enlisted manning of a command? ** Enlisted Distribution and Verification Report (EDVR) 9. TFFMS provide access to current manpower data for? ** resource sponsors 10. Changes to the AMD can come from what factors? ** Changes in mission or equipment/systems added or deleted from the platform 11. Manpower management determines manpower authorization priorities based on available funding and . ** personal inventory 12. Where do you find current and future peacetime and mobilization manpower requirements and authorizations? ** Activity Manning Document (AMD) 13. Who prepares the statements detailing Required Operational Capability (ROC)? ** Mission and warfare sponsors 14. For whom does the Personnel Readiness and Support branch (PERS 4013) perform placement functions? ** Enlisted 15. The methodical process of determining, validating, and using manpower requirements as a basis for budget decisions defines . ** manpower management 16. What is the single authoritative database for MPN manpower authorizations and end strength? ** Total Force Manpower Management System (TFFMS) 17. Where do you find personnel strength planning, recruiting, training, and personnel distribution? ** AMD 18. Which document defines military manpower authorizations allocated to a naval activity? ** AMD SECTION 3: THE FLEET RESPONSE PLAN 1. “Presence with a purpose” provides what? ** Routine deployments in support of specific combatant commander objectives or on shorter “pulse” employment periods 2. Which report issued a mandate for the U.S. military to transform leading to adoption of FRP? ** 2001 Quadrennial Defense Review 3. Who did Admiral Vern Clark task with developing a plan to replace the 18-month inter-deployment training cycle (IDTC)? ** Commander, Fleet Forces Command 4. When is a CSG considered surge ready? ** When they have completed integrated phase training 5. The Fleet Response Plan is often referred to as what? ** Fleet Readiness Plan 6. What time frame does the Fleet Response Plan use as its cycle? ** A 27-month cycle 7. At its core, the Fleet Response Plan is? ** a mission driven, capabilities-based response plan 8. The Fleet Response Plan calls for how many carrier strike groups to be deployable within 30 days? ** 6 9. When is a ship, sub, or squadron considered routine deployable? **After successfully completing all necessary capabilities training including completion of underway sustainment phase training and certification of the unit for forward deployed operations 10. Which Sea Power 21 initiative changed the way the U.S. Navy deploys and trains the Fleet? ** Sea Basing 11. What does the 6 + 2 plan provide? ** 6 CSGs available to deploy within 30 days plus 2 CSGs available to deploy within 90 days 12. Due to the war on terror, Secretary of the Navy England challenged the U.S. Navy to do what? ** Maintain its relevance 13. Under the 27-month Fleet Response Plan, a carrier strike group is surge ready for how many months? ** Approximately 16 months 14. The flexible deployment concept allows units that have attained high readiness to embark on deployments in support of specific national priorities such as . **homeland defense, multi-national exercises, security cooperation events, deterrent operations, or prosecution of the Global War on Terrorism 15. When is a CSG considered in emergency surge status? ** When they have successfully completed their unit level phase training phase SECTION 4: MILITARY FORMATIONS 1. What order allows room for the inspecting party to step between ranks to conduct an inspection of the Sailors? ** Open ranks 2. What type of command is the first word in “Parade Rest”? ** Preparatory 3. Traditionally, awards are handed out in what manner? ** From most senior award to most junior 4. As a leader, you can only command Sailors to the position of parade rest, from what position? ** Attention 5. Drill instills discipline and fosters what kind of habits? ** Precision and automatic response 6. During the Revolutionary War, developed a set of standardized drills for General George Washington and the Continental Army. ** Baron von Steuben 7. Which of the following is NOT a reason to conduct a personnel inspection? ** To use as a tool to punish your Sailors 8. As a leader, you will organize your Sailors into formation for which one of the following occasions? ** Awards ceremony 9. Which event would NOT require the Commanding Officer to order the ship to man the rails? ** Leaving the shipyards after 120 days 10. Who is known as the “Drillmaster of the American Revolution”? ** Baron von Steuben 11. At the beginning of the Revolutionary War, was the leaders' primary tool to achieve discipline in ranks. ** fear 12. What do you call the extreme right or left of an element? ** FLANK 13. Sailors are in a , when placed in formation one behind the other? ** File 14. Which of the following events would not require you, as a leader, to hold military quarters? ** Refueling evolution 15. What is the distance between ranks? ** 40 16. A/an can be a single person or a section of a larger formation. ** Element 17. When giving a command, what do you call the rise and fall of the pitch in your voice? ** inflection 18. What order allows room for the inspecting party to step between ranks to conduct an inspection of the sailors? ** OPEN RANKS 19. As a leader, which situation would cause you to expect a personnel inspection of your Sailors? ** Prior to the seasonal uniform change SECTION 5: MILITARY UNIFORMS, CUSTOMS, AND COURTESIES 1. When in a military vehicle and an officer is seen, who renders the hand salute? ** The right front passenger seat salutes 2. What should you do when the national anthem of a friendly foreign? ** Salute 3. The Air Force rank associated with its highest enlisted pay grade is that of ? ** Chief Master Sergeant 4. How do you recognize the Sergeant Major of the U.S. Army? ** The hat insignia and rank insignia contain the eagle from the great seal 5. What does Title 10, U.S. Code mandate with respect to uniforms? ** The requirement to generate, maintain, and update the uniform regulations 6. When walking with a senior, what side do you walk on? ** LEFT 7. Who exits a military vehicle first? ** The senior leaves first 8. What is the U.S. Army’s highest enlisted pay grade? ** Sergeant Major 9. What is meant by “under arms”? ** When wearing a side arm or carrying a weapon 10. At what distance do you begin your salute when approaching an officer? ** At six paces or closest point of approach. 11. What is the definition of “prescribable items”? ** Uniform items which may be directed or authorized for wear with the basic uniform. Items may be worn with basic uniforms at the individual’s discretion unless otherwise directed. 12. What Army rank is associated with the E-6 pay grade? ** Staff Sergeant NAVY FLEETS SECTION 1: INTRODUCTION TO NAVY FLEETS NO QUESTIONS SECTION 2: SECOND AND FOURTH FLEETS 1. The Atlantic Squadron was reorganized into the Atlantic in early 1941, because . ** Of the possibility of war breaking out in both the Atlantic and Pacific oceans 2. Which statement is accurate concerning the Battle of Santiago during the Spanish-American War? ** The U.S. Navy obtained a lopsided victory in which every Spanish ship was either sunk or run aground. 3. Among the Navy’s roles during the First World War was . ** All the answers are correct. 4. The opening of the Panama Canal enabled U.S. warships to transfer between the Atlantic and Pacific oceans . ** in less one-third the time 5. During World War II, numbered fleets were responsible for operations in the Atlantic Ocean. ** three 6. Select True or False: U.S. warships enforced the blockade during the 1962 Cuban Missile Crisis by sinking all Soviet-flagged vessels approaching the island. ** False 7. Navy units operating in the eastern Atlantic during the Second World War . ** All the answers are correct. 8. What was the Navy’s primary duty during the Civil War? ** Blockade the Confederate Coast. 9. When conducting operations within its own AOR, Second Fleet is under the operational control of . ** USNORTHCOM 10. What does the term “CHOP” stand for? **Change of Operational Control 11. The Fourth Fleet’s normal area of responsibility (AOR) is within which geographic combatant commander’s AOR? ** USNORTHCOM 12. Where is the headquarters for the U.S. Navy’s Second Fleet located? 1. What command, now known as USCENTCOM, was formed to underscore the U.S. policy laid out in the “Carter Doctrine”? ** Rapid Deployment Joint Task Force (RDJTF) 2. About of the oil exported from Fifth Fleet’s area of responsibility (AOR) transits through the Strait of Hormuz— a vital choke point. ** 90% 3. Over of the world’s oil reserves are located in the area of responsibility (AOR) of the Fifth Fleet. ** 50% 4. Operation NEW DAWN symbolizes . ** the diminishing role of U.S. forces in Iraq 5. Which of the following is NOT a choke point found in the Fifth Fleet’s area of responsibility (AOR)? ** Malacca Strait 6. How many operational units are permanently assigned to the Fifth Fleet? ** 0 7. The Navy’s Fifth Fleet is part of . ** USCENTCOM 8. The focus of Operation NEW DAWN will be on conducting operations. ** stability 9. The current headquarters of the Fifth Fleet is located in . ** Manama, Bahrain 10. Which fleet is assigned to the smallest area of responsibility (AOR)? ** Fifth Fleet 11. Which significant event marked the first massive buildup of U.S. forces in what is now the Fifth Fleet’s area of responsibility (AOR)? ** The establishment of an anti-Western/anti-United States nation in Iran 12. Navy and Marine aircraft executed almost 80% of the U.S. strikes in Afghanistan during what operation? ** Operation ENDURING FREEDOM 13. The area of responsibility (AOR) of the Fifth Fleet includes which of the following geographical areas? ** The western portion of the Indian Ocean, the Red and Arabian Seas, the Persian (Arabian) Gulf, Gulf of Oman and Gulf of Aden. 14. The past two decades have seen in Navy operations conducted in Fifth Fleet’s area of responsibility (AOR). ** an increase 15. Operation NEW DAWN is the successor to Operation . ** IRAQI FREEDOM 16. During Operation DESERT STORM, a relatively small amphibious force consisting of 17,000 embarked Marines were able to tie up an Iraqi force of approximately soldiers. ** 80,000 17. When was the first massive buildup of U.S. naval forces in the Fifth Fleet’s area of responsibility (AOR)? ** Late 1970’s 18. What failed operation was credited for increasing the emphasis on training for joint operations? ** Operation EAGLE CLAW 19. U.S. Navy ships have operated in what is now the Fifth Fleet’s area of responsibility (AOR) since the . ** early 1800’s SECTION 4: SIXTH FLEET 1. During the Civil War, the most well-known sinking of a Confederate commerce raider by a Union warship occurred when the USS Kearsarge sank the . ** CSS Alabama 2. In 1986, the Navy conducted Operation , which consisted of air strikes on Libya in retaliation for terrorist bombings in Germany. ** ELDORADO CANYON 3. The Sixth Fleet is assigned to . ** Commander, Naval Forces Europe 4. The Sixth Fleet’s responsibility to NATO include . Select all that apply. ** report to NATO’s Supreme Allied Commander Europe ** deter aggression against NATO members ** prepare to conduct maritime strike and amphibious/expeditionary operations 5. Europe, Africa, and Mediterranean operations in World War I included . Select all that apply. ** laying some 60,000 mines ** convoying ships across the Atlantic Ocean. ** clearing minefields after the war 6. Sixth Fleet’s commander is the maritime component commander of . Select all that apply. ** USEUCOM ** USAFRICOM 7. The U.S. maintained a presence in the Mediterranean in the years following World War II, because . ** of the threat posed by the Soviets to Turkey and Iran 8. During World War II, the Navy conducted amphibious operations in . Select all that apply. ** Southern Italy ** Sicily ** North Africa 9. Sixth Fleet’s area of responsibility encompasses . Select the best answer. ** the geographic area of USEUCOM and USAFRICOM 10. Which of the following attributes describe Sixth Fleet’s area of responsibility (AOR)? Select all that apply. ** covers 20 million square miles of ocean ** covers 30 percent of the earth’s landmass ** touches more than 67 percent of the earth’s coastline ** encompasses nearly 40 percent of the world’s population 11. The Sixth Fleet received its designation in . ** 1950 12. Fleet was established to control all U.S. naval forces in Europe, including the Allies’ cross-channel assault at Normandy. ** Twelfth 13. The Navy’s first overseas installation was . ** Port Mahon on the Spanish island of Minorca in 1807 15. The Sixth Fleet is headquartered in . ** Naples, Italy 16. When commanding NATO’s Naval Striking and Support Forces, Sixth Fleet’s commander reports to . ** Supreme Allied Commander, Europe (SACEUR) 17. Select True or False: A division of U.S. battleships operated as part of the British Grand Fleet during World War I. ** True 18. NATO’s Supreme Allied Commander, Europe (SACEUR) is dual-hatted as . ** Commander, USEUCOM 19. Select True or False: The Navy’s North Sea Mine Force conducted mine warfare against the German Navy in World War II. ** False SECTION 5: PACIFIC FLEET 1. In the period between the two World Wars, what was the mission of the U.S. Navy in the Pacific? ** All the answers are correct. 2. What two subordinate numbered fleets compose the U.S. Navy’s Pacific Fleet? ** Third Fleet and Seventh Fleet 3. Where is the headquarters for the U.S. Navy’s Pacific Fleet located? ** Pearl Harbor, Hawaii 4. Which of the following is NOT a current task of the Third Fleet? ** Monitoring the Straits of Hormuz and Bab al Mandeb 5. During the Civil War, what was the greatest threat in the Pacific? ** Confederate commerce raiders 6. Nearly percent of the world’s population lives within the area of responsibility (AOR) encompassed by the U.S. Navy’s Pacific Fleet. ** 50 7. Where is the headquarters for today’s Seventh Fleet located? ** Yokosuka, Japan 8. What external force caused the U.S., for the first time, to shift the major weight of American sea power to the Pacific? ** The rising threat of Japan 9. Which of the following statements is NOT true concerning the Battle of Leyte Gulf? ** General MacArthur began his invasion to capture Okinawa. 10. When did the U.S. Navy move the headquarters of the Pacific Fleet from the west coast to Hawaii? ** 1940's 11. When was the first time the majority of American sea power was assigned to the Pacific? ** 1920's 12. During the War of 1812, the USS Essex proceeded to capture or destroy fourteen ships belonging to which country? ** Britain 13. Who were the two primary commanders in the Pacific theater during World War II? ** Admiral Nimitz and General MacArthur 14. Since the end of World War II, which of the following operations has the Seventh Fleet been involved in? ** All the answers are correct. 15. Where is the headquarters for the U.S. Navy’s Third Fleet located? ** San Diego, CA 16. The U.S. Pacific Fleet is the Navy component command of . ** USPACOM CUSTOMS, HONORS, TRADITIONS, AND CEREMONIES SECTION 1: CUSTOMS AND TRADITIONS 1. Formal dinners promote . ** All the answers are correct. 2. Which of the following (is a)/are title(s) given to those who cross the equator at a significant line of longitude? ** Golden 3. The Persian Excursion certificate inducts Sailors into which special group? ** Mystic Society of One Thousand and One Nights 4. Sailors who have not crossed the equator are called . ** Pollywogs 5. The following certificate denotes Sailors who have crossed the Artic Circle . ** Blue Nose 6. The title given to Sailors who have sailed around the southern tip of South America (Cape Horn) is . ** Mossback 7. Initiation rites that include hazing are . ** a violation of SECNAV Instructions 8. What event resulted in the shift of the center of the Navy social life from the wardroom to the officer’s club? ** Alcohol was banned from U.S. Navy vessels in 1914. 9. A junior officer serving as boat officer when his/her ship is at anchor . ** should overrule the decisions of the coxswain only in emergency 10. Which of these rules of etiquette apply to conduct within the boat? ** Avoid walking on varnished areas. 11. The conduct of a Dining-In is defined by . ** OPNAV Instruction 1710.7 12. The Persian Excursion certificate inducts Sailors into which special group? ** Mystic Society of One Thousand and One Nights 13. What event resulted in the shift of the center of the Navy social life from the wardroom to the officer’s club? ** Alcohol was banned from U.S. Navy vessels in 1914. 14. Which of the following describes the burial at sea ceremony? ** Three volleys are fired, followed by “Taps.” 15. Among those eligible for burial at sea are . ** All the answers are correct. 11. Which statement is an example of proper boat etiquette? Juniors board the boat first. 12. If all of the following are in a boat, which one is ultimately responsible for its safe operation? Surface Warfare Lieutenant 15. The oldest of all seafaring traditions is . the burial at sea SECTION 2: SHIPS – CUSTOMS AND TRADITIONS 1. You are standing watch at night as the Officer of the Deck (OOD) on board a ship at anchor as a small boat approaches. You call out “Boat ahoy!” and the boat’s coxswain replies, “John Paul Jones!” He is . ** announcing that the Captain of the John Paul Jones is on board his boat 2. Ship launching ceremonies . ** began at the dawn of recorded history 3. Stars on Navy streamers . ** follow the practice of a bronze star for each action, and a silver star in lieu of five bronze stars 4. The U.S. Navy . ** was the last service to adopt battle streamers 5. The sloop Concord is notable because . ** it was the first Navy vessel christened by a woman 6. While on watch, the Officer of the Deck (OOD) . ** All the answers are correct. 7. Before commissioning, a ship must . ** complete and pass a series of Sea Trials 8. The christening ceremony includes . ** naming of the vessel, knocking supports away so the ship glides into the sea, and then breaking a bottle of champagne across the bow 9. Boat hailing protocols became necessary . ** in the days prior to WWII, when large ships usually anchored or moored, and boating was required 10. Ships in the U.S. Navy . ** are typically commissioned in public ceremonies with the ship’s sponsor and other prominent guests in attendance 11. While a ship is at anchor or at a pier, . ** the Officer of the Deck (OOD) stands watch on the quarterdeck 12. Battle streamers . ** commemorate the services of Sailors in the past 13. Hailing protocols . ** are not published in any regulation 14. Ship christening in the U.S. Navy . ** first was recorded for the USS Constitution in 1797 15. Today’s “Returning Home Pennant” . ** All the answers are correct. 16. On modern ships, the quarterdeck . ** is designated by the Commanding Officer 17. All of these activities are forbidden on the quarterdeck EXCEPT . ** walking on the port side 18. What is the tradition of the quarterdeck? ** All the answers are correct. 19. The Navy’s battle streamers . ** span the period from the Revolutionary War to Kosovo 20. All of these actions take place at the commissioning ceremony of a new ship EXCEPT . ** the Chief of Naval Operations reads the commissioning directive 21. The “Returning Home Pennant” . ** is distributed to the Commanding Officer, officers, and crew upon arrival in port 22. The “Returning Home Pennant” . ** is an extra long commissioning pennant SECTION 3: HONORS AND CEREMONIES 1. Morning and evening colors refers to . ** ceremonies in which the national ensign is raised and lowered 2. The highest sign of respect for traveling dignitaries is . ** passing honors 3. In which of these circumstances are passing honors rendered? ** A small boat carrying the mayor of the Greek village you are anchored near comes to pay an official visit. 4. The most traditional aspect of an official inspection is . ** side honors are rendered to the official 5. What is meant by “dressing ship”? ** Hoisting a display of flags in celebration of a festival 6. The change of command ceremony always includes . ** all hands called to quarters, orders read, and statements: “I relieve you, Sir,” and “I stand relieved” 7. Which of the following is a part of both the morning and evening colors ceremonies? ** All officers and crew face the ensign and salute. 8. There are three national holidays, including ceremonies involving a 21-gun salute at noon, which receive special remembrance by the U.S. Navy. These three are: ** Washington’s Birthday, Independence Day, and Memorial Day 9. Gun salutes are currently offered . ** in five second intervals 10. At the end of their careers, all Sailors may . ** All the answers are correct. 11. Half-masting the national ensign . ** is a symbol of mourning and respect 12. Instructions for planning a retirement ceremony are contained in ** MILPERSMAN 1800-010 13. Passing honors are ** All the answers are correct. 14. Gun salutes were considered a sign of good faith because . ** in the days of sail, firing left the ship vulnerable 15. At the end of their careers, all officers may . ** All the answers are correct. SECTION 4: NAVAL CUSTOMS 1. What led to the surprise of the Japanese forces which had intended to do the same to the U.S. fleet units? ** Navy intelligence specialists in Hawaii discovered the plan and warned fleet headquarters. 2. Which of these statements is true regarding “Anchors Aweigh”? ** It is played today at many athletic events and parades. 3. Why was the date of 13 October selected to celebrate the tradition and history of the naval service? ** It was on that day in 1775 that the Continental Congress voted to establish a Navy by outfitting two sailing vessels to intercept British transports. 4. What was the objective of the Japanese attack on Midway? ** The Japanese hoped to lure the U.S. Pacific Fleet into a battle where they could destroy it. 5. Have there been any changes or additions to the original version of “Anchors Aweigh”? Select all correct answers: ** Midshipman Royal Lovell wrote a third stanza. ** Midshipman George D. Lottman rewrote the lyrics into their present form so that they could be usable today at a wide range of events. 6. A popular use of the “Navy Hymn” is for the funerals of those who have served in or with the United States Navy. A president whose funeral included this hymn was . ** Franklin D. Roosevelt 7. Midway Night has been observed since 2000. What activities are considered appropriate to commemorate that World War II battle? ** All the answers are correct. 8. Where did the song known as the “Navy Hymn” to United States Navy men and women originate? ** A schoolmaster and clergyman of the Church of England wrote the original words around 1860. 9. Two days each year are designated specifically to celebrate the U.S. Navy’s heritage. These days are . ** Midway Night (about 4 June) and the Navy’s Birthday (13 October) 10. In general terms, what did the Continental Navy accomplish during the course of the War of Independence? ** All the answers are correct. 11. Why was the song “Anchors Aweigh” written? ** To inspire U.S. Naval Academy midshipmen at an Army-Navy football game in 1906 12. Where did the song known as the “Navy Hymn” to United States Navy men and women originate? ** A schoolmaster and clergyman of the Church of England wrote the original words around 1860. 14. What is the “Navy Hymn’s” connection to the United States Naval Academy? ** The first stanza of the “Navy Hymn” is sung to close each chapel service during Sunday’s Divine Services. 15. Advocates for a Navy in 1775, led by John Adams, proposed that a Navy was necessary for what purpose(s)? ** All the answers are correct. 16. The Battle of Midway is considered important for what reason? ** Until that point, the Japanese Navy was on the offensive and this battle was a major turning point in favor of the United States. 17. proclaimed the Navy Birthday as a day for reflection on Naval Heritage? ** Chief of Naval Operations, Admiral Jay L. Johnson 18. Why did some Americans oppose the establishment of a Navy? ** All the answers are correct. 19. What person or group of people was actually the first to expend funds to obtain services from a sea service in opposing the British military? ** George Washington used funds to contract for several schooners to intercept British supply ships. 17. The author of “Anchors Aweigh,” Charles Adam Zimmerman, received what sort of recognition by the midshipmen? ** All the answers are correct. ETHICS AND PROFESSIONALISM FOR THE WARFIGHTER SECTION 1: MILITARY ETHICS OVERVIEW 1. The Principle of Utility is All of the answers are correct 2. The Western ethical heritage is descended from ancient Greece, where ethics meant “custom.” Today, military ethics are derived from our Services’ core values and heritage 3. Thoughts such as: “life has no purpose or meaning,” “truth can not be known,” and “what I do doesn't matter” best typify which one of the following? Nihilism 4. The idea of absolute truth is not a fundamental tenet of the military concept of “duty”. False 5. Character-based ethics argues right choices come from building good character and pursuing virtue 6. Lawlessness and looting that often follow the apparent removal of all legitimate authority from an area in the wake of war or national disaster typifies: Freedom-based ethics 7. In the view of the rule-based system of ethics, there is the notion there are absolute truths and moral standards that are true at all times in all places for all people and all situations True 8. A supposition that some mix of common sense and scientific inquiry will always lead to a conclusion that is true typifies . a reason-based approach to truth and justice 9. Select the result of ethical failures by military personnel. All the answers are correct 10. Freedom-based ethics focus on decisions arrived at based on self-interests or impulses 11. Aristotelian virtue, stoicism, and VADM Stockdale’s leadership were founded upon the ethical approach of character-based ethics 12. Relativism is a subset of the following ethical system Freedom-based ethics 13. Some relativists would question whether reality can be accurately assessed or measured. True 14. Ethical systems may be generally classified as “freedom-based,” “rule-based,” or . character-based 15. An ethical person is someone who chooses to live the life people ought to live 16. Relativism postulates All the answers are correct 17. The character-based system of ethics argues right choices come from pursuing the “greatest happiness for the greatest number.” False 18. Utilitarianism is sometimes considered to be a subset of . consequentialism 19. Thoughts such as: “I do whatever I want,” “no one can stop me,” and “I take what I want and harm anyone who gets in my way” best typify which one of the following? Criminality SECTION 2: ETHICS IN THE PROFESSION OF ARMS 1. is the problematic philosophy of the ethical standard of “doing what is best for me;” it does nothing to preclude evil. Egoism 2. Moral development is a life-long process, with the objective of achieving moral effectiveness 3. What constitute(s) the body of moral principles or values governing military professionals? All the answers are correct. 4. Moral development theory tells us that there are sequential levels of moral reasoning. What is the ideal toward which moral development leads? It is the path to becoming a person of character. 5. Well-developed knowledge, abilities, and values in which of the following is NOT necessary for effective moral development? Moral relativism 6. Moral is the ability to recognize when a problem is not merely a narrow, technical dilemma that lends itself merely to a narrow, technical solution, but rather is one with some richer moral content. Awareness 7. is a common bond all military professionals share based on the mutual accountability that comes with self-regulation. Corporateness 8. A military professional must utilize any means necessary to contribute to the common good. False 9. Select True or False: Even with moral awareness, moral reasoning, and moral courage, it is still possible to act ineffectively. True 10. What differentiates a mercenary from a military professional? The military professional exhibits a moral dimension earning the trust of society. 11. The ability, right, and of self-regulation are part of what transforms an association into a profession. responsibility 12. Moral is the willingness and desire of an individual resulting in the execution of what he or she has determined (through knowledge, instinct and/or reasoning) is the “right thing to do,” regardless of difficulty courage 13. An expert with specialized knowledge and skill in a significant field of human endeavor” best defines a professional 14. Moral enables a person to work through a logical and objective process for determining and articulating reasons that distinguish right from wrong. reasoning 15. Moral development requires certain conditions to occur; people must be morally All the answers are correct 16. The key distinction(s) between a profession, craft, and art, is/are All the answers are correct 17. An officer has the obligation to exercise responsibility and be concerned with anything that might impact all of the following, EXCEPT personal recognition and remuneration 18. Which statement is NOT true regarding the professional responsibilities of military professionals? A military professional does not have an obligation with regards to influences on material and resource management 19. A key component of professional responsibility is . accountability 20. Which of the following are the three recognized characteristics of all professions? Expertise, responsibility, and corporateness 21. permits a military leader to exercise the ordered use of force to achieve a desired political objective that serves the Nation at large. Expertise 22. Select True or False: Extensive knowledge of right and wrong and sophisticated moral reasoning skills will necessarily lead to moral behavior. False 23. Select True or False: A military professional must utilize any means necessary to contribute to the common good. ** False SECTION 3: ETHICS AND THE WARFIGHTER 1. A demonstration of moral courage is indicative of the ability to demonstrate physical courage, and vice-versa. False 2. is the good personal character and reputation of honesty and loyalty. Honor 3. Which philosopher’s proposed system of ethics is most closely associated with the Navy’s Core Values? Aristotle: “Nicomachean Ethics” 4. is/are a duty-bound standard of performance to be adhered to, even in the most difficult circumstances. The Code of Conduct 5. The Geneva Convention provides legal protection for prisoners of war 6. Which one(s) of the following allow(s) for judicial penalties after repatriation for misdeeds committed while a prisoner of war? The Uniform Code of Military Justice 7. Which of the following is NOT a precept upon which the Code of Conduct is based? Truth is relative 8. The Code of Conduct only applies if the detaining country adheres to the Geneva Convention. False 9. Select the order of the Navy's Core Values respectively matching the following portions of the Oath of Enlistment. “I will bear true faith and allegiance.” “I will obey the orders of the President of the United States and the orders of the officers appointed over me, according to regulations and the Uniform Code of Military Justice.” “I will support and defend the Constitution of the United States against all enemies, foreign and domestic.” ** Honor, Commitment, Courage 10. In addition to granting prisoners of war certain rights, the Geneva Convention obligates prisoners of war to act in certain ways. Which of the following is NOT true regarding these obligations? The Geneva Convention forbids prisoners of war from attempting escape. 11. The Oath of Enlistement is significant in the Profession of Arms because it . clearly states a Sailor’s duty from the moment of enlistment 12. The Oath of Enlistment is clear regarding the hierarchy of loyalties. Which of the following best demonstrates this priority (highest to lowest)? Ship, shipmate, self 13. In the process of inspiring confidence in a team, a leader may need to manage the team’s perceptions of who the leader is, to the point of hiding certain information; perception management may be a legitimate goal. True 14. When a Sailor is presented with a potential or real conflict between honesty and loyalty, which of the two is more important? This is an ethical dilemma which can not be resolved without amplifying information and/or context. 15. The primary assertion of Aristotle’s “Nicomachean Ethics” is characteristics develop from corresponding activities 16. Regarding interrogation under the terms of the Geneva Convention, which one(s) of the following is/are true? The detaining power has the right to interrogate a prisoner of war.. 17. Which of the following statements is NOT part of the Code of Conduct? I will not make an attempt to escape, nor aid others in their attempt to escape. 18. What value must be balanced by a healthy sense of commitment so that a team sees its contribution to the overall mission, but the individuals of the team do not think of themselves as indispensable links to mission accomplishment? Responsibility 19. Which of the following is NOT a right of prisoners of war under the Geneva Convention? The right of enlisted personnel to refuse to perform paid labor 20. Which of the following is NOT true regarding professional oaths? A professional oath allows for value judgments to be based on relative truths 21. is the state of being involved in an obligation and provides the wherewithal to continue in a task to the realization of its completion. Commitment SECTION 4: THE JUST WAR TRADITION 1. The jus ad bellum criterion of just cause has traditionally included self-defense and defense of an innocent third party under attack 2. The notion that a just war may be morally preferable to an unjust peace can be traced back . more than 1600 years 3. While the moral burden of jus in bello falls primarily on military leaders, political leaders often play a key role in establishing targeting policy, approving specific targets, and developing rules of engagement. True 4. The jus ad bellum criterion of last resort requires . that all reasonable non-violent options be explored before using military force 5. Key principles of the jus in bello are proportionality and . discrimination 6. In order for a war to be considered just, it must meet a majority of the criteria of jus ad bellum. False 7. The jus ad bellum criterion of proper authority limits the decision-making authority to go to war to the most senior military commanders. False 8. The moral principles of the Just War Tradition . help to set the military professional apart 9. Jus in bello relates to . the legality of the actual conduct of hostilities 10. Jus ad bellum relates to . the justification for resorting to war 11. The Just War Tradition is the informal name of the Laws of Armed Conflict. False 12. Select True or False: Jus ad bellum and jus in bello govern all aspects of war. True 13. The jus in bello principle of discrimination requires that . non-combatants not be the direct object of attack 14. The following military personnel are considered to be non-combatants: Chaplains and medical personnel 15. The proportionality principle of jus in bello requires . ** that the harm done to civilians and non-combatants in a military operation not outweigh the good accomplished by the operation 16. The moral burden of jus ad bellum falls primarily on . political leaders 17. The jus ad bellum criterion of probability of success requires reasonable hope of accomplishing the intended good 18. All members of the U.S. military are bound by the Law of Armed Conflict and the Geneva Conventions. True 19. The just war tradition incorporates historical principles of . theology, philosophy, and law SECTION 5: STANDARDS OF CONDUCT AND GOVERNMENT ETHICS 1. The Commanding Officer of an aircraft carrier is retiring. Which gift(s), if accepted by the Commanding Officer would most likely NOT be prohibited? ** One of the carrier’s divisions pitch in $2.00 per sailor and buys the Commanding Officer a framed picture of the ship valued at approximately $90.00. Another division collects $1.00 per sailor and presents the Commanding Officer with a brass bell valued at approximately $75.00. The Chief’s Mess presents the Commanding Officer with a sword valued at approximately $200.00. 2. In response to an appeal by a local charity attempting to raise money to assist the victims of a natural disaster that had destroyed several hundred homes in the local community, a command desires to officially support and hold a “fun run.” The event will be part of the charity’s fundraising effort and monies raised will be turned over to that charity. Which of the following is true? ~ The Office of Personnel Management may approve emergency disaster appeals. 3. A command is taking part in the annual Combined Federal Campaign fund raising drive. Which of the following actions would most likely NOT be prohibited? ** The commanding officer announces at morning muster that the Combined Federal Campaign is a worthy cause and that he hoped each sailor would give some thought in their decision to giving or not. 4. The base commander is asked by a local church if it could use a softball field on the base for their annual picnic as its field was destroyed by a grass fire. As part of the church’s community outreach program, underprivileged children of the community are to be invited to partake in the festivities. Which of the following statements is NOT true? ** This is absolutely prohibited by the Standards of Conduct. 5. Which of the following is NOT true? ** Federal employees may solicit gifts to be used as door prizes at events such as Morale, Welfare, and Recreation fund raisers. 6. Which of the following would most likely be prohibited? ** A Commander’s husband works for a defense contractor that supplies the Commander's unit (she’s a department head) with supplies. Her husband is one of thirty executives at his company. She is invited to attend the contractor’s annual retreat with her husband. She is told by the contractor’s CEO that the spouses of all of the executives were invited. Upon arrival the Commander realizes that she is the only spouse in attendance and because of that, she and her husband are given a luxury suite while the other executives share double rooms. Because she was told all of the spouses were invited, she stays at the retreat. 7. While on official travel, a Commander is involuntarily bumped from her flight. The airline books the Commander on the next flight which won’t leave until the next morning and gives her one free round trip ticket as compensation. Which of the following statements is true? ** All of the answers are correct. 8. The main purpose of the Standards of Conduct is to . ** ensure Federal employees serve the public good 9. Which of the following statements is NOT true? ** The Standards of Conduct apply only to Department of Defense civilian employees. Military personnel are governed solely by the Uniform Code of Military Justice. 10. Which of the following is NOT a prohibited activity? ** In order to fund its annual summer picnic, a command’s Morale, Welfare, and Recreation committee plans to hold a bake sale the week prior to the picnic. 11. Civilian Department of Defense employees who violate the Standards of Conduct may face . Select all answers that would make the above statement true: ** termination ** fines and prosecution by the Federal government 12. Which of the following would be prohibited? ** The commanding officer of a ship is given a pen worth $9.00 by an Ensign (the ship’s communication’s officer) as a Christmas present. Two months later the commanding officer is given a framed picture of the ship worth $7.50 by the Ensign as a birthday present. Two months later, the Ensign gives the commanding officer a stuffed animal for his daughter as an Easter present worth $8.00. 13. Which of the following actions is most likely to be prohibited? ~ The maintenance officer of a F/A 18 squadron is offered $2000.00 to write a magazine article concerning the maintenance scheduling procedures he was introducing into his squadron. 14. Which statement is NOT true? ** Each agency within the executive branch of the Federal government has its own, unique ethical code. SECTION 6: LAWFUL AND UNLAWFUL ORDERS 1. Which of the following is true? ~ Lawful orders can only be given to a service member from other service members. ~ All orders from competent authority are presumed lawful. 2. Which of the following is true? ** A Seaman that willfully disobeys a lawful order issued by a Third Class Petty Officer may be prosecuted under Article 91 of the Uniform Code of Military 3. Which of the following statements is true? ** An order that contradicts an earlier order given by an officer senior to the one giving the contradicting order may be a lawful order. 4. An officer (LT) receives an order from a superior (CDR) which annuls an order received from another superior (CAPT). The LT protests this new order and shows the CDR the orders from the CAPT. The LT even represents the facts in writing to the CDR. The CDR insists that his order be followed. What should the LT do? ** Follow the order issued by the CDR and report the circumstances of the case to the CAPT. 5. What is the proper action for a service member to take when given an order that is obviously illegal? ** Refuse the order and report to higher authority. 6. Which of the following is NOT true? ** A service member may only receive a lawful order from a service member who is senior to him or her in rank. 7. Which of the following is NOT true? ** Navy Regulations, Chapter 10, paragraph 1039 provides that flag officers are only required to obey orders from a military police officer if the military police officer is a warrant or commissioned officer. 8. In 1995, Army Specialist 4 Michael New refused to wear United Nations beret and armband as part of his uniform as he believed that the order to do so was not a lawful order. Which of the following statements is true? ** A military court-martial determined the order to be lawful and he was convicted of failure to obey a lawful order. 9. The maximum punishment for insubordinate conduct towards a warrant officer is . ** discharge from the service with a dishonorable discharge, forfeiture of all pay and allowances, and confinement for two years 10. A LT orders a group of enlisted sailors to cease what they are doing in order to help load a truck with supplies so that the supplies can get to the airfield in time to be loaded on a plane headed for Iraq. The sailors inform the LT that their commanding officer (who is also the LT’s commanding officer) had ordered them to finish testing the unit’s radios in preparation for an inspection the following day. The LT then directs the sailors to help with loading the truck and then return to the radios. The sailors then head over to help load the truck. Which of the following statements is true? ** Navy Regulations, Chapter 10, Paragraph 1024 requires the LT to immediately report his actions to his commanding officer and explain the necessity of diverting the sailors from the task the commanding officer ordered them to accomplish. 11. A Navy LT is accused of willfully disobeying a lawful order given to him by a Marine major. At the time the order was given, the LT had never seen the major before, the major was not in uniform and did not have his military ID with him. The LT did not obey the given order. Which of the following is true? ** The LT might be not guilty of violating article 90 of the UCMJ if he did not know that the individual giving him the order was a Marine major. 12. A Third Class Petty Officer willfully disobeys a lawful order given him by a warrant officer. If prosecuted, the petty officer would be accused of violating . ** Article 91 of the Uniform Code of Military Justice 13. Navy Reserve medical detachment, headed by a Reserve Component Medical Corps Captain, is attached to a Navy ship commanded by a Navy Commander. Which of the following is true? ** The Commander may issue orders to the Captain as provided for by Navy Regulations, Chapter 10, paragraph 1039. 14. The maximum penalty for willfully disobeying a superior commissioned officer is . ** death during time of war 15. A LT driving home is pulled over by a Seaman Recruit in his duties as a member of the base police force. Believing the LT to be driving while drunk, the Seaman Recruit orders the LT to exit the automobile in order to conduct a field sobriety test. The LT refuses to and only exits the vehicle when the Seaman Recruit’s supervisor, a LCDR arrives and orders the LT to exit the car and take the test. The LT complies and is found not to be impaired. Which of the following statements is true? ** The LT may be found guilty of violating Article 92 of the Uniform Code of Military Justice. 16. provides instruction on when a junior service member may issue orders to a military senior. ** Navy Regulations, Chapter 10, Paragraph 1039 17. In order for a service member to be found guilty of Failure to Obey a General Order . ** it must be shown beyond a reasonable doubt that the general order was in effect and that the service member either violated or failed to obey the general order 18. A commissioned officer may be found guilty violating all of the following EXCEPT . ~ Article 92 of the Uniform Code of Military Justice ~ Article 91 of the Uniform Code of Military Justice 19. A service member is accused of violating a general order issued by the base commander. Which of the following is true? ** The service member is most likely being prosecuted for violating Article 92 of the Uniform Code of Military Justice. 20. What should a service member do when given an order that is unclear, but appears to be an unlawful order? Select all answers which make the above statement true: ** Ask for clarification of the order, in writing if necessary. ** Determine if the order is in contradiction to previously issued orders. THE END OF BLOCK 2 Block 3 How the Navy Thinks About War The Governance of the Navy Roles Missions and Functions of the DoN SECTION 1: ROLES, MISSIONS, AND FUNCTIONS 1. Amphibious operations is a Department of the Navy (DON) function primarily associated with: ** The Marine Corps 2. Maritime power projection can be displayed in the form of . ** All the answers are correct. 3. The primary role of the Navy is to . ** conduct prompt and sustained combat operations at sea 4. Select True or False. From the beginning, Congress intended the U.S. Marine Corps to serve as a “second land army” in the event the U.S. Army required additional ground combat forces. ** False 5. Strategic sealift is a vital function of the Department of the Navy (DON) because: ** Deployed Navy and Marine Corps forces need periodic resupply of consumable goods to sustain operations. 6. Which statement is TRUE? ** Congress specifies broad roles for the Services. 7. functions pertain to activities in support of other Services. ** Collateral 8. Strategic deterrence is convincing a potential adversary that . ** All the answers are correct. 9. Sea control is an important function of the Department of the Navy (DON) because: ** It provides the ability to conduct operations in a specific area, while preventing an adversary the use of the same common sea space. 10. Since 1958, the primary task of the Services has been to . ** provide trained and ready forces to the combatant commanders 11. The use of naval special warfare forces is an example of which function of the Department of the Navy (DON)? ** Maritime power projection 12. Which of the following does NOT fall under the Department of the Navy? ** The Director of the Coast Guard 13. direct(s) that naval aviation shall be an integral part of the naval Service and grant(s) it authority to develop aircraft, weapons, tactics, technique, organization, and equipment of naval combat and service elements. ** Congress 14. The mission of the U.S. Armed Forces is: ** To complete tasks assigned to combatant commanders by the President or Secretary of Defense 15. Which of the following is a role of the United States Marine Corps? ** All the answers are roles of the United States Marine Corps. 16. functions authorize a Service to develop force structure to accomplish them. ** Primary 17. Which of the following statements is FALSE? ** Congress assigns specific tasks, or missions, directly to the combatant commanders. 18. The Marine Corps is tasked with which Department of the Navy (DON) functions? ** Land operations and amphibious operations 19. Service-specific functions were initially outlined by President Truman in Executive Order 9877 in the late . ** 1940's SECTION 2: NATIONAL MILITARY ORGANIZATION 1. The statutory members of the National Security Council are the . ~ President, Vice President, Secretary of State, Secretary of Defense, National Security Advisor, and the Director for Homeland Security ~ President, Vice President, Secretary of State, Secretary of Defense, and the Assistant to the President for National Security Affairs ~ President, Vice President, Secretary of Defense, and the Secretary of State 2. Combatant commanders are responsible directly to the . ** Secretary of Defense and the President 3. Which of the following statements is TRUE? ** The Chief of Naval Operations, as a member of the Joint Chiefs of Staff, may submit advice to the President that is in disagreement with the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff. 4. Which of the following statements is FALSE? ~ The Secretary of Defense is in both the operational and administrative chains of command. ~ The Secretary of the Navy reports to the Secretary of Defense in the administrative chain of command. ~ The Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff is in the operational chain of command of every U.S. military unit. 5. The responsibilities of the Service Chiefs include all of the following EXCEPT . ** reporting to the Secretary of Defense as part of the operational chain of command 6. Which of the following statements is FALSE? ** The Vice Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff is subordinate to the Service Chiefs. 7. Which statement is TRUE? ~ The functional combatant commanders are directly subordinate to the geographic combatant commanders. ~ The four geographic combatant commanders report directly to the Secretary of ~ The Vice Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff is senior to the service chiefs. 8. The two types of Combatant Commands are . ** geographic and functional 9. Which of the following would make this statement FALSE? The Commandant of the Coast Guard . ** as a military Service Chief, is a member of the Joint Chiefs of Staff 10. Which of the following statements concerning the Unified Command Plan (UCP) is FALSE? ** The document is prepared by the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff and signed by the President. 11. Which of the following statements is TRUE? ~ Only the President of the United States has the authority to commit American military forces into combat. ~ Each military unit has one chain of command for accomplishing operational missions and one chain of command that provides the necessary support functions. 12. Which of the following is NOT a responsibility of the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff? ~ Military training and education ~ Operational command of military units not involved in combat ~ Developing the National Military Strategy 13. Which combatant commander is also the Commander of the North American Aerospace Defense Command (NORAD)? ~ U.S. Northern Command ~ U.S. Joint Forces Command 14. Which of the following is NOT a Combatant Command? ** U.S. Military Sealift Command 15. Which of the following statements is TRUE? ** U.S. Special Operations Command is the lead Combatant Command in the U.S. Global War on Terrorism. 16. Which of the following statements is FALSE? ** The President of the United States has the authority to determine the members of the National Security Council. 17. Which of the following statements is FALSE? ** The Chief of Naval Operations, as a Service Chief, is in operational control of Navy special operations forces. 18. Which Combatant Commands have their headquarters outside of the United States? ** U.S. European Command (Germany) and U.S. Africa Command (Germany) 19. Which of the following Combatant Commands has the support of NATO as one of its missions? ** U.S. European Command 20. Which statement concerning the National Security Council is TRUE? ~ The National Security Council reports directly to the Secretary of Defense. ~ The Secretary of State is a member of the National Security Council. SECTION 3: STRATEGIC GUIDANCE FOR THE ARMED FORCES 1. is an instrument of national power. ** Economic 2. The National Strategies comprise the two capstone documents for the Department of Defense. ** Defense and Military 3. All other national strategies are subordinate to the . ** National Security Strategy (NSS) 4. The National Strategy discusses the ways and means the Department of Defense will achieve its strategic objectives. ** Defense 5. Which of the following is NOT one of the four instruments of national power discussed in Joint Publication 1? ** Production 6. Select True or False: The military instrument of national power is most effective when its use is synchronized with the other three instruments. ** True 7. Select True or False: When a combatant commander uses military forces on foreign soil, the combatant commander of the region in which U.S. forces are employed, retains control of those forces. ** True 8. Who is responsible for combining military and diplomatic activities in their regions of responsibility? ** Combatant commanders 9. The is top-level strategic guidance that is prepared by the executive branch of government and signed by the President. ** National Security Strategy (NSS) 10. Select True or False: Possessing a credible threat of military force tends to undermine the effectiveness of diplomacy. ** False 11. Per Joint Publication 3-0, Doctrine for Joint Operations, the art and science of employing instruments of national power in a synchronized and integrated fashion to achieve theater, national, and/or multinational objectives is called . ** strategy 12. The provides a framework for establishing national priorities, choosing a strategic approach, and allocating resources necessary to achieve national goals. ~ Contingency Mutual Support (CMS) ~ National Security Strategy (NSS) 13. Select True or False: Military might is the United States’ most important instrument of national power. ** False 14. Which organization coordinates the employment of America’s instruments of national power? ** National Security Council 15. is/are responsible for supporting worldwide economic and trade relationships that advance fundamental U.S. objectives. ** The U.S. government 16. The is focused on the military instrument of national power and the Department of Defense. ** National Defense Strategy (NDS) 17. All other national strategies are subordinate to the . ** National Security Strategy (NSS) 18. Select True or False: When a combatant commander uses military forces on foreign soil, the combatant commander of the region in which U.S. forces are employed, retains control of those forces. ** True 19. The instrument of national power is the primary means through which the U.S. engages with foreign nations or groups. ** diplomatic 20. The is the law that requires the President to prepare the National Security Strategy for Congress. ~ Goldwater-Nichols Act ~ Taft-Hartley Act ~ Bill of Rights SECTION 4: JOINT VISION FOR FUTURE WARFIGHTING 1. A Joint Operating Concept . ~ identifies broad principles and capability gaps ~ is placed in operational context by associated Joint Functional Concepts ~ identifies broad principles and essential capabilities 2. A joint concept is . ** a visualization of future military operations that describes how a commander might employ capabilities to achieve desired effects and objectives 3. Which of the Joint Concepts has the narrowest focus? ** Joint Integrating Concept 4. Required capabilities and attributes are identified by . ** Joint Functional Concepts 5. The Joint Operations Concepts Development Process . ** describes a systematic process that will assist in guiding the creation of a Joint Force that will succeed in the battlespace of tomorrow 6. A Joint Operating Concept describes how a Joint Force Commander will accomplish a strategic objective . ** 8-20 years in the future 7. Full Spectrum Dominance is . ~ the ability to achieve superiority in technology across the joint community