Exam 1 study guide

ABNORMAL CH 1 TEST 1. A group of emotional, cognitive, or behavioral symptoms that cause significant distress or significant problems is a(n): a. mental disorder. b. deviation. c. stressor. d. abnormal concept. 2. Abnormal psychology is a. the scientific study of troublesome feelings, thoughts, and behaviors associated with mental disorders. b. assertions about what might be abnormal emotional experience. c. a scientific study of how and why people become unique. d. the opposite of biological psychology. 3. Amanda has been severely depressed in the past year. She is constantly sad, almost to the point of numbness. She ponders constantly about what a failure she is and how nothing she does is ever right. She finds it hard to get out of bed and get going. Which of these symptoms is an example of a cognitive symptom of Amanda's mental disorder? a. Constant sadness b. Feeling numb c. Pondering her failures d. Difficulty getting out of bed 4. Michael is experiencing a number of thoughts that are making it difficult for him to stay focused on his work, although he is still able to accomplish the tasks he is assigned to complete. He may be classified as having a mental disorder on the basis of his a. behavioral symptoms that are causing distress in his coworkers. b. feelings of rejection. c. distress caused by his cognitive symptoms. d. inability to stay focused on a task. 5. Dr. Elliot is teaching a course on different mental disorders. The course focuses on exploring scientific thought on problematic feelings, thoughts, and behaviors associated with mental disorders. The learning objectives include strategies for evaluating patients who might have a mental disorder, understanding the causes behind mental disorders, and prevention and treatment strategies for mental disorders. The title of Dr. Elliot's course is most likely a. Abnormal Psychology. b. Testing and Assessment. c. Counseling Psychology. d. Community Psychology. 6. John has been reading articles posted on the web by people who say they suffer from mental disorders. He tells his friend that he is engaging in the study of abnormal psychology. According to your text, what is missing from his definition of abnormal psychology? a. Abnormal psychology involves scientific study b. The study of troublesome feelings associated with mental disorders c. Studying behavior that is considered abnormal d. Applying the techniques of psychology to abnormal behavior 7. The definition of abnormal psychology includes the practice of a. scientific study. b. introspection. c. comparison of humans to animals. d. reverse-psychology. 8. Your textbook describes normal behavior as behaviors a. we see in all people at all times. b. observed in particular cultures. c. that characterizes most people. d. that interfere with one's ability to adapt to life’s demands. 9. Which of the following is NOT one of the three criteria in the textbook that helps determine whether an emotion, thought, or behavior is abnormal? a. Deviance from the norm b. Presence of depression c. Difficulty meeting the demands of daily life d. Experience of personal distress 10. Deviance, adaptation difficulties, and personal distress are concepts used to describe a. mental retardation. b. students on probation from college. c. abnormal behavior. d. psychological maladjustment. 11. Which of the following criteria is considered when determining whether a behavior is normal or abnormal? a. Ability to learn from mistakes b. Poor academic performance c. Experience of personal distress d. Traditions for a culture 12. Patterns of behavior that deviate from the norms of society would be called a. prosocial behavior. b. normal behavior. c. abnormal behavior. d. college behavior. 13. Treva Throneberry vanished as a young woman and turned up in another town insisting that she was a high- school student named Brianna Stewart. Her behavior was considered abnormal because it a. was deviant from the norm. b. caused difficulty for individuals who worked with her. c. caused her significant personal distress. d. resulted in failing grades in school. 14. John has been diagnosed with having a mental disorder when he was found repeatedly cutting himself. Cutting behavior could be considered a. deviant from the norm. b. disappointing to people watching. c. disturbing. d. ritualistic. 15. Suppose you are trying to determine how much physical activity is normal. A definition of abnormal levels of physical activity based on the statistical approach would include a. extremely high levels of activity. b. extremely low levels of activity. c. extremely high and low levels of activity. d. average levels of activity. 16. Identification of deviance from the norm would be beneficial to a. assess abnormality. b. diagnose normalcy. c. develop a prognosis. d. establish treatment guidelines. 17. Statistical methods would be used to assess abnormality based on the criterion of a. survival of the fittest. b. experience of personal distress. c. deviance from the norm. d. difficulty adapting to life's demands. 18. Less frequent or less probable behaviors are considered to be abnormal or a. statistically deviant. b. statistically significant. c. statistically irrelevant. d. statistically modifiable. 19. One disadvantage of the deviation-from-the-norm criterion for mental disorders is that a. not all behaviors are maladaptive. b. cultures differ in how they define what is normal. c. daily problems prompt people to seek treatment. d. statistical deviance offers clear guidelines for researchers. 20. Different cultures have different ideas about what normal behavior is. This is a key limitation of which of the following ideas about defining abnormal behavior? a. Deviance from the norm b. Presence of depression c. Difficulties adapting to life demands d. Experience of personal distress 21. Dr. Jones is working with a client from a culture other than his own. He would like to use the deviation-from-the- norm criteria. This would be inappropriate to use because a. daily problems prompt people to seek treatment. b. statistical deviance only offers guidelines for researchers. c. cultures differ in how they define what is normal. d. none of these – there is no reason why he cannot use this criteria. 22. How does the Einstein example in your text illustrate a drawback of the statistical deviance approach to defining abnormality? a. Deviance is always a disorder b. The measurement accuracy is limited c. Too many people have high intelligence d. Statistical deviance from the norm is not necessarily a disorder 23. Suddenly disappearing from home and assuming a new identity, as Treva did, would be considered a. statistically far from the norm. b. statistically within the norm. c. statistically close to the norm. d. statistically irrelevant. 24. When a mental health professional treats someone from another culture, it is important for him/her to remember that a. a uniform approach to mental disorder may be used cross-culturally. b. symptoms of mental disorders differ from culture to culture. c. cultural analysis of scores is nearly impossible to perform. d. scoring high on an intelligence score may indicate culturally biased questions. 25. The fact that symptoms of mental disorders vary from culture to culture is important when a. a professional treats someone from another culture. b. studying abnormal psychology. c. identifying causes of a disorder. d. researching medical records. 26. One difficulty of using the deviation-from-the-norm criterion in determining if a behavior is abnormal is deciding a. the statistical point at which a behavior is abnormal. b. who will be responsible for determining statistical cut-off points. c. the definition of maladaptive behavior. d. the definition of deviance. 27. In determining whether a behavior is abnormal, one key judgment that is often made by mental health professionals is a. deciding how long a specific behavior has occurred. b. to determine if a cultural bias exists within the therapeutic relationship. c. whether the individual is experiencing sadness and irritability at the same time. d. whether the behavior interferes with a person’s ability to function effectively. 28. Josh is 18 and believes that something outside of him is controlling his thoughts and that he must retrace his steps four times to keep them under control. This behavior causes him to be released from his job due to tardiness. A mental health professional would say that his behavior is abnormal because it a. interferes with his ability to function effectively. b. has presented abnormally early in life. c. is not accepted in his culture. d. exposes him to ridicule. 29. According to the textbook, a behavior is one that interferes with a person’s life, including ability to care for oneself, have good relationships with others, and function well at school or at work. a. useless b. withdrawn c. depressed d. maladaptive 30. Sasha worries about her mother’s cancer so much that she cannot concentrate on her schoolwork, causing it to suffer. Her continual thoughts about her mother and trouble concentrating would be considered maladaptive because she a. deviated from the norm of her family. b. presented difficulties adapting to life’s demands. c. expressed personal distress to her therapist. d. was hospitalized for suicidal ideation. 31. Bob has always been a clean-shaven, well-kept individual. Lately he has failed to shower on a regular basis, neglected his oral care, and has not been able to eat as much as previously. It appears that Bob has begun to exhibit a. damage to the occipital lobe. b. maladaptive behavior. c. suicidal tendencies. d. personal distress. 32. Emotional experience and expression are MOST clearly influenced by a. IQ. b. the experience of maladaptive behavior. c. genetics. d. culture. 33. One problem with the difficulties-adapting-to-life-demands criterion in diagnosing a person as having a mental disorder is that people may engage in unusual behaviors that a. do not harm others. b. do not affect family members. c. are seen as normal in other cultures. d. do not interfere in daily functioning. 34. Terrance refuses to leave home due to the belief that there are too many free radicals that are specifically aiming to harm him and his complexion. He works from home, has all of his food and other needs delivered to him, and communicates on a regular basis with friends and family. The above illustrates the problem with the difficulties- adapting-to-life-demands criterion for diagnosing a mental disorder because people engage in a. behaviors that harm others from birth. b. behaviors to become self-actualizing. c. behaviors that are normal in other cultures than their own. d. odd behaviors that do not interfere with their daily functioning. 35. Problems with interpreting difficulty-adapting-to-life demands criterion include a. that people often do not recognize their problems. b. nature and nurture become confused. c. challenges in measuring the difference between good functioning and maladaptive behavior. d. being too judgmental and harsh. 36. Maladaptive behavior may result in a. changing one’s environment to better accommodate the behavior. b. seeking professional assistance. c. not seeking treatment. d. any of these may be responses to maladaptive behavior. 37. Margarette has an irrational fear of entering tunnels. As a result, she experiences a high level of personal distress. Jason is highly disruptive in school and does not experience personal distress, but his behavior is still considered abnormal because a. it produces a high level of distress for others around him. b. his parents experience the same behaviors outside of school. c. his actions occur in public. d. none of these would be reasons for identifying his behavior as abnormal. 38. One problem that mental health professionals encounter when using personal distress as a measure of maladaptive behavior is a. establishing a cut-off point that indicates abnormality. b. establishing therapeutic guidelines. c. combining culture and emotional response. d. all of these may present as problems that must be negotiated. 39. Which of the following limitations does the text cite regarding the interpretation of statistical deviance from the norm? a. Labels solve everything b. Culture conflict is quite minimal c. Identification is always cut and dry d. There are arbitrary cutoffs 40. Defining abnormality successfully involves identifying a. thoughts, movements, and intentions. b. deviance, dysfunction, and personal distress. c. time, date, and place. d. measures developed by each practitioner. 41. One critical aspect of being able to understand and effectively treat mental disorders such as partner abuse is a. a necessity for standard or consistent definition. b. the use of counter conditioning and reciprocal abuse. c. the admission of the behavior. d. to distinguish the abuser from the abuse. 42. We refer to emotions, thoughts, or behaviors as abnormal when they a. are statistically in the mean. b. interfere with functioning. c. are seen by the legal system as being abnormal. d. cause minimal distress to self or others. 43. John’s thoughts of death are causing him to lose sleep, eat poorly, and constantly worry. He expresses much concern over his current mental state, so much so that he has made an appointment to see a counselor. We would refer to his thoughts as abnormal since they a. are statistically in the mean. b. interfere with pursuing career goals. c. cause great personal distress. d. are seen by others as abnormal. 44. Which of the following study mental problems to see how disorders develop and continue and how they can be prevented or alleviated? a. Counseling psychologists b. Psychopathologists c. Mentalists d. Social workers 45. A standard or consistent definition of partner abuse is important because individuals who are physically violent against a partner may a. differ from those who are emotionally or sexually violent. b. use multiple forms of abuse against their partner. c. be resistant to therapeutic interventions. d. impede our understanding of abnormal psychology. 46. Experts in abnormal psychology view the abnormality of emotions, thoughts, or behaviors as a. a dichotomous distinction between normal and abnormal. b. a matter of degree. c. a matter of kind. d. dependent on the environmental context. 47. Applying a judgment about abnormality relative to deviance requires an understanding of a. normality as an all or nothing phenomenon. b. how to determine the reliability and validity of an assessment. c. a person's alter ego. d. normality as a continuum. 48. When mental health professionals say that behaviors exist on a continuum they are describing a. the possible magnitude of a potential problem behavior. b. how they believe a disorder developed. c. how many similar behaviors exist in a population. d. none of these are related to the continuum concept. 49. An important consideration when identifying anxiety and stress levels of an individual is a. how much of the stress they create themselves. b. the amount of impairment of daily functioning. c. if they are labeled or not. d. levels of isolation. 50. A person’s overall mood is also known as his/her a. cognitive state. b. self-esteem. c. emotional state. d. cognitive style. 51. When a mental health clinician describes an individual’s emotional state, he/she is referring to a. overall mood. b. avoidance behavior. c. cognitive outlook. d. emotional tendencies. 52. Which of the following is an example of a person's cognitive style? a. Elliot tends to avoid people. b. Shannon tends to feel nervous a lot. c. Zoe likes to maintain an active lifestyle. d. Brandon thinks pessimistic thoughts constantly. 53. A mental disorder characterized by avoidance of social situations, intense anxiety, and clinically significant impairment in functioning is a. social anxiety disorder. b. phobic disorder. c. dissociation disorder. d. antisocial personality disorder. 54. Research suggests that the same causal factors are responsible for the following levels of anxiety-related symptoms: a. mild and moderate. b. moderate and severe. c. mild and severe. d. mild, moderate, and severe. 55. As you read the textbook you will undoubtedly identify with some of the symptoms and disorders that are presented. This a. most likely indicates that you have a mental disorder. b. does not necessarily mean that you have a mental disorder. c. indicates abnormal behavior that should be evaluated immediately. d. confirms that a high percentage of the population suffers from mental disorders. 56. The occurrence of mental disorders among adults on a yearly basis is estimated to be a. 1 in 20. b. 1 in 10. c. 1 in 4. d. 1 in 3. 57. Approximately adults in the United States will experience a mental disorder every year. a. five in ten b. two in three c. one in ten d. one in four 58. The text example on neatness and OCD is meant to point out a. having a symptom that does not cause dysfunction is not a disorder. b. everyone is susceptible to OCD if given enough stress. c. OCD is an entirely genetic predisposition. d. all anxiety disorders are interchangeable. 59. During times of political conservatism and economic hardship, people tend to emphasize a. individual causes of abnormal behavior. b. physical causes of abnormal behavior. c. biological treatments such as psychosurgery. d. all of these. 60. Research has suggested that social, political, and economic forces a. have had little to do with trends in mental health and treatment. b. have shaped ideas concerning mental health and disorders. c. have been shown to be inconsistent toward mental health influences. d. only influence the lower socioeconomic strata. 61. Examining the development of abnormal psychology over time is important a. to help understand modern-day conceptualizations of abnormal psychology. b. to help understand modern-day attitudes toward abnormal psychology. c. to help understand modern-day treatment approaches to abnormal psychology. d. all of these. 62. If you were a person living in the times of ancient Egypt and developed a mental disorder, what sort of treatment would you be most likely to receive? a. A stay in an asylum b. Rest and abstinence from alcohol c. Bleeding and purging d. Exorcism 63. Early attempts at treating abnormal behavior have a predominant belief in a. the mind-brain connection. b. rejuvenation and experimentation. c. how community elders diagnosed that disorder. d. the supernatural. 64. Which of the following involves cutting a hole in a person’s skull to help release a harmful spirit? a. Exorcism b. Excision c. Trephination d. Tumorization 65. According to your text, all of the following were early treatments for mental disorder EXCEPT a. casting out the demonic spirit. b. making the person an unpleasant host for the demon. c. driving unwanted thoughts from the body. d. altering maladaptive behaviors. 66. The development of medical concepts among Egyptians and Greeks helped to a. replace supernatural theories with natural ones. b. restore normal brain function through electro-convulsive therapy. c. provide a rationale for the dissection of human cadavers. d. none of these resulted from the development of medical concepts. 67. The earliest known practitioner who believed that brain dysfunction, not demons and evil spirits, was the cause of abnormal behavior was a. Socrates. b. Hippocrates. c. Plato. d. Bhutto. 68. The father of modern medicine who believed the brain was the central organ of the body and that brain dysfunction caused abnormal behavior was a. Plato. b. Socrates. c. Hippocrates. d. Bhutto. 69. Throughout Greece and Rome, physicians emphasized a approach to learning about the causes of abnormal behavior. a. theoretical b. spiritual c. scientific d. theological 70. The Middle Ages had continued scientific progress in the Middle East while post-Roman empire Europe a. discovered many natural drug substances. b. returned to supernatural theories. c. was polarized between humane treatment and torture. d. reverted to Neanderthal morphology. 71. During the Renaissance period, treatment for abnormality a. continued on a dismal path of superstition and torture. b. sought a total abandonment of the concept. c. often portrayed insanity. d. saw a return of natural and scientific approaches. 72. The asylums created during the Renaissance were generally a. highly therapeutic with first rate treatment. b. lacking in treatment with poor living conditions. c. about the same as the community center punishment corridors. d. nonexistent. 73. Treatment during the Middle Ages focused on a. confinement and exorcism. b. holy objects or relics. c. pilgrimages to holy places. d. all of these were focus of treatment. 74. Mass madness occurred during which historical period? a. Middle Ages b. Stone Ages c. Renaissance d. Reform Movement 75. One possible cause of mass hysteria that occurred during the Middle Ages is a. lack of emotional stability. b. lack of feelings such as fear and panic. c. ingestion of fungi on food. d. belief that a person with mental disorders would undergo transformation into a werewolf. 76. New approaches to treating people with mental disorder in the Renaissance period included which of the following? a. Psychogenicism b. Lycanthropy c. Asylums d. Tarantism 77. Paracelsus introduced the notion of psychic or mental causes for abnormal behavior and posed a treatment that would become known as a. behaviorism. b. hypnosis. c. asylums. d. tarantism. 78. During the Renaissance, were places set aside for people with mental disorder. a. asylums b. developmental centers c. psychiatric hospitals d. psychiatric prisons 79. An individual who was key to the movement to change the deplorable conditions found in asylums was a. Hippocrates. b. Aristotle. c. William James. d. Philippe Pinel. 80. If you were to travel in time to meet Philippe Pinel and ask him what his life's work involved, he would probably tell you, a. "to rid the world of supernatural approaches to treating mental disorders." b. "to promote mental health through exorcism and religiosity." c. "to create more humane conditions in mental hospitals." d. "to integrate biological methods into the treatment of mental illness." 81. Shocked by the living conditions of patients, Pinel introduced changes that included a. more humane treatment. b. the availability of exercise. c. sunny rooms. d. all of these. 82. The Reform Movement instigated by Pinel was characterized by a. a slogan with no meaningful progress. b. government takeover of mental illness diagnosis. c. advances in the humane treatment of mental patients. d. isolation to small towns in France. 83. The humane type of care emphasized during the Reform Movement period was sometimes referred to as a. palliative care. b. moral treatment. c. over the top. d. amoral treatment. 84. The type of treatment that paved the way for the modern approach to mental disorders was known as a. the mental hygiene movement. b. institutionalization in asylums. c. supernatural treatment. d. moral treatment. 85. Pinel’s reforms in France soon spread to other locations. In America, is credited with making the most significant changes in treating individuals with mental disorder. a. William Tuke b. Clifford Beers c. Dorothea Dix d. all of these individuals shared in making changes within the United States 86. The mental hygiene movement emerged from a book titled A Mind that Found Itself by a. Clifford Beers. b. Dorothea Dix. c. Philip Pinel. d. Dorothea Beers. 87. The somatogenic perspective deals with causes, while the psychogenic perspective is about causes. a. psychological; physical b. physical; psychological c. arbitrary; concrete d. metaphysical; behavioral 88. The modern approach to abnormal psychology includes a. accepting those with mental disorder as people who need professional attention. b. placing people with a mental disorder into a psychiatric hospital. c. allowing police the ability to perform a mental hygiene arrest when necessary. d. placing individuals into asylums for their own protection. 89. In the modern era, methods are used to understand and treat mental disorder. a. scientific b. biomedical c. psychological d. all of these are methods used in the modern era. 90. A Mind That Found Itself was considered to be a highly influential book because it provided the basis for the a. hospitalization of patients. b. formation of group homes. c. mental hygiene movement. d. development of the DSM. 91. Several theoretical perspectives were developed during the late 19th century and throughout the 20th century. Which of the following perspectives was NOT one of these perspectives? a. Biopsychosocial b. Psychodynamic c. Sociocultural d. Cognitive 92. The somatogenic perspective emphasizes a. bodily causes of behavior. b. psychological causes of behavior. c. mind-related causes of behavior. d. psychosomatic causes of behavior. 93. Clifford Beers’ autobiography recounted his experience as a. a patient in a mental institution. b. a physician in the 1800s. c. a mental health counselor. d. the first psychiatrist in America. 94. Charice has to do a term paper for her course in Abnormal Psychology. She is reading a book she plans to use as a source in her paper. Her roommate asks her what the book is about, and Charice tells her it is a first-hand account of a man's experience with mental disorder and subsequent treatment. "You can't believe the kind of abuse and neglect that were considered 'treatment' during that era!" Charice exclaims. "This guy wrote this book about it and sparked a reform movement in treatment in the United States that later spread across the world." Charice is probably reading a book by a. Philippe Pinel. b. Hippocrates. c. Benjamin Rush. d. Clifford Beers. 95. Self-help gurus and their messages seem to fall into two categories: a. delusion and rehabilitation. b. hysteria and community. c. victimization and empowerment. d. individualism and support. 96. The self-help industry promotes a. victimization. b. empowerment. c. both victimization and empowerment. d. neither victimization nor empowerment. 97. The main emphasis in the dimensional perspective is on a. how many symptoms are present. b. how long the symptoms have been present. c. the degree of symptoms. d. isolating the effects of how long a symptom has been present. 98. The prevention perspective in mental health has its origins in a. personal hardiness. b. mental hygiene. c. yearly checkups. d. consistent denial. 99. The science of promoting mental health and thwarting mental disorder through education, early treatment, and public health measures is known as a. public health. b. psychogenics. c. somatogenics. d. mental hygiene. 100. The key to disorder prevention is a. subjective criteria. b. memorizing all disorder symptoms. c. interpreting others' behavior as disorder. d. identifying, responding to, and coping with risk factors. 101. A prevention approach is consistent with a. alternative therapies. b. being aware of the unconscious. c. a public health model. d. a private health model. 102. Regarding mental disorders and physical health, a. they seem to be unrelated. b. mental disorders have been associated with physical health decline. c. both seem to be entirely hereditary. d. the more disorders there are in a culture, the lower the health of that culture. 103. The model of prevention that focuses on promoting good health and good health practices to avert disease is known as a. the public health model. b. psychogenics. c. somatogenics. d. the moral treatment model. 104. Primary prevention is aimed at a. people in primary education. b. first time onset subjects. c. large numbers of people not yet experiencing mental disorder. d. the first efforts to influence someone. 105. Secondary prevention targets a. problems early on—while still manageable. b. the second onset of symptoms. c. people who contacted the subject. d. factors not yet known. 106. Tertiary prevention is about a. preventing disorder through social programs. b. reducing the severity, time length, and adverse effects of a disorder. c. the third attempt to intervene and help. d. allowing the disorder to run its course naturally. 107. Addressing emerging problems while they are still manageable and before they become resistant to intervention describes a. primary prevention. b. secondary prevention. c. tertiary prevention. d. combinational prevention. 108. Reducing the severity, duration, and negative effects of a mental disorder after it has occurred describes a. primary prevention. b. secondary prevention. c. tertiary prevention. d. combinational prevention. 109. Erin is depressed, and the main symptom her friends notice is that she seems sad and will not go out with them socially anymore. Alexander is depressed, and his main symptom is that he has increased his activity to an almost frenetic level so that he will not have time to dwell on the deep sadness that plagues him. The difference between Erin's experience of depression and Alexander's may be partly due to their difference in gender. This observation relates most closely to which theme of your text? a. Stigma b. Diversity c. Consumer perspective d. Dimensional perspective 110. Examining the effect of culture on the way people think, feel, and act is the focus of a. abnormal psychology. b. multicultural psychology. c. psychopathology. d. the mental hygiene movement. 111. The consumer perspective offered in your text a. provides tips on over consumption and addiction. b. is all-encompassing. c. systematically rejects dissimilar perspectives. d. helps readers become informed about scientific information on mental health. 112. When a person is characterized by others based on a single characteristic, such as being shunned or rejected, they are experiencing the effects of a. stigma. b. maladaptive behavior. c. social deviance. d. stereotypical response. 113. Stigma may occur when government or other institutional policies negatively affect opportunities for people who are seen as a. threatening. b. dangerous. c. less deserving of support. d. all of these. 114. Many people avoid psychological treatment and diagnosis because of a. excessive cost of treatment. b. the stigma associated with being labeled with a disorder. c. believing they have no problems whatsoever. d. feeling that they can handle it themselves. 115. The stigma of mental disorder is associated with a. a real tendency toward imbalance behavior. b. the stereotype of being unpredictable, dangerous, violent, and incompetent. c. a high number of actual events. d. an accurate understanding of mental factors. 116. When the media focuses on negative aspects and outcomes of mental disorders a. the public reacts with positive support. b. it results in prejudice and discrimination. c. massive public paranoia results. d. it seems to have no consequence. 117. Stigma likely arises from a stereotype that people with mental disorder are all of the following EXCEPT a. dangerous and violent. b. incompetent. c. irresponsible and unpredictable. d. caring and concerned. 118. One type of stigma that refers to the general disgrace the public confers on people with mental disorder that can result in prejudice, stereotyping, and discrimination is a. personal stigma. b. group stigma. c. public stigma. d. self-stigma. 119. State laws that limit health insurance coverage for mental health problems are an example of stigma. a. structural b. self c. public d. personal 120. One type of stigma that refers to the disgrace a person assigns to him/herself is a. group stigma. b. self-stigma. c. personal stigma. d. public stigma. 121. stigma happens when the public conveys a general disgrace, while stigma is more when a person assigns a disgrace to him/herself. a. Private; public b. Public; self c. General; specific d. Specific; general 122. The two main methods to fight stigma are a. rejection of labels and denial of symptoms. b. communication and denunciation. c. education and promoting personal contact. d. influencing and refuting. 123. The text attempts to fight stigma by a. isolated reports, sympathy building, and repetition. b. giving factual information to dispel myths. c. providing positive information and omitting negative information. d. appealing to emotions. 124. Stigma can be fought by a. distributing flyers to increase education. b. presenting factual information in courses regarding mental disorder. c. promoting personal contact with a mental disorder. d. all of these. 125. Stigma of mental disorder may best be fought by a. promoting personal contact with a person who has a mental disorder. b. scanning Internet social sites for information. c. attending church on a regular basis. d. none of these will help reduce stigma of mental disorder. 126. Larry was diagnosed with schizophrenia. As part of his treatment, once he has recovered some lucidity, he writes a memoir describing what the experience of having schizophrenia is like. This first-hand account of what it is like to experience schizophrenia is an example of a(n) a. scenario. b. narrative. c. discourse. d. explanation. ABNORMAL CH 2 TEST 1. In the opening scenario of Chapter 2 in your text, Mariella began experiencing a combination of physical and mental discontents. Her friends and college cohorts believed that she was suffering from a. homesickness. b. depression. c. anorexia. d. narcolepsy. 2. Mental health professionals use perspectives, called models, to a. discredit other professional’s ideas. b. understand why someone has problems. c. separate symptoms from syndromes. d. apply their own feelings to a diagnosis. 3. There are five main models used to explain mental disorders. These models influence a. the way we think about mental disorders. b. the way we assess mental disorders. c. the way we treat mental disorders. d. all of these are influenced by the five models. 4. There are five main models described in your text used to explain mental disorders. Which of the following is NOT one of the models included in your text? a. Cognitive-behavioral b. Sociocultural c. Psychosocial d. Psychodynamic 5. Ari has had a great deal of difficulty functioning in the last year. He has gone to a therapist for an evaluation and assessment to help diagnose the nature of his problems. As part of the assessment, the therapist shows him images of different inkblots and asks Ari to describe what he sees in the inkblot. The therapist believes that Ari's responses reveal unconscious conflicts that may be the root cause of his problems. Ari's therapist probably supports the model. a. cognitive-behavioral b. humanistic c. sociocultural d. psychodynamic 6. Which model of mental disorder focuses on external environmental events and includes the family systems perspective? a. Sociocultural b. Psychodynamic c. Cognitive d. Humanistic 7. Regarding models of abnormal behavior, a. each practitioner develops their own labels and descriptions. b. they are not accepted by the APA. c. many professionals integrate the models. d. strict, rigid boundaries dictate the exact interpretations. 8. The basis of the biological model is a. a patient must have knowledge of biology. b. nature and nurture work together. c. based on brain function and physical causes. d. a strong emphasis on the environment. 9. The person considered to be the father of psychiatric classification and a major contributor to the biological model was a. Emile Durkheim. b. Emil Kraepelin. c. Philippe Pinel. d. Clifford Beers. 10. When assessing syndromes, many psychiatrists believe a. they are all nearly interchangeable. b. the brain and the body are entirely separate. c. they have no bearing on treatment. d. each syndrome has its own biological cause. 11. The biological model rests on the assumption that mental states, emotions, and behaviors arise from a. brain function and other physical processes. b. motives and conflicts within a person. c. choice, free will, and personal growth. d. measurable environmental stimuli. 12. Emil Kraepelin noticed clusters of symptoms that became referred to as a. syndromes. b. psychosis. c. diagnostics. d. diagnosis. 13. Kraepelin believed syndromes to be separate from one another, and that each syndrome a. can be traced to genetics. b. has unique causes, symptoms, and outcomes. c. is impacted by neurotransmitters. d. has brain change associated with it. 14. Dementia praecox, one of the two major mental disorders proposed by Emil Kraepelin, is most similar to a. schizophrenia. b. bipolar disorder. c. obsessive-compulsive disorder. d. dissociative identity disorder. 15. Genetic material refers to genetic contained in the nucleus of every human cell. a. axons b. familial patterns c. “codes” d. neurotransmitters 16. The terms genotype and phenotype refer respectively to a. one's genetic composition and one’s observable characteristics. b. the allele combinations and the notion of personality. c. genetic engineering and physical alterations. d. one’s observable traits and one's genetic code. 17. When scientists study the impact of genetic and environmental influences, the research area is called a. genetic behavior. b. gene splicing. c. behavior genetics. d. genome mapping. 18. The research area dedicated to understanding what specific inherited genes contribute to mental disorders is called a. molecular genetics. b. behavioral genetics. c. chromosomal analysis. d. dementia praecox. 19. John has a number of observable characteristics that may have the ability to change over time. These observable characteristics are known as a person’s a. genotype. b. behavioral genetics. c. phenotype. d. neurotransmitter response. 20. The genetic composition of a person is known as a and is fixed at birth, whereas an observable characteristic of a person is known as a and can change over time. a. phenotype; genotype b. genotype; phenotype c. chromosome; genetic expression d. genetic expression; chromosome 21. Researchers in the field of analyze DNA to identify associations between specific genes and mental disorders. a. behavior genetics b. abnormal psychology c. maladaptive behavior d. molecular genetics 22. The amount of variation in a phenotype attributed to genetic factors is known as a. genotype. b. phenotype. c. heritability. d. molecular genetics. 23. Which disorder has the lowest genetic heritability? a. Depression b. Bipolar disorder c. Schizophrenia d. Substance use disorder 24. Liesl is working on a research grant that aims to identify the specific genes involved in autism. She and her colleagues want to understand how these genes work to produce the symptoms associated with autism in all its varying degrees. Liesl is involved in the study of a. psychiatry. b. child psychology. c. behavior genetics. d. molecular genetics. 25. The central nervous system is made up of a. neurons in the center of the brain. b. the endocrine and exoskeleton systems. c. the brain and spinal cord. d. internal cells that are mainly afferent in nature. 26. Nerve cells (neurons) have four basic structures: a. glia, neurotransmitters, membrane, and axon. b. dendrites, cell body, axon, and terminal buttons. c. axon, soma, cell body, and synapse. d. electrolyte, ion, membrane, and dendrite. 27. The small gap between neurons that facilitates neurotransmitter activity is called the a. terminal gap. b. fluid cleft. c. synapse. d. reabsorption zone. 28. When neurotransmitters are reabsorbed it is called a. polarization. b. reformation. c. permeable action. d. reuptake. 29. Decreased neurotransmitter activity happens when , and increased neurotransmitter activity happens when ____. a. depression occurs; anxiety or mania occurs b. medications block neurotransmitters; medications block the reabsorption c. membranes leak; membranes in large d. enzymes activate; and send deactivate 30. Medications influence neurotransmitter systems to treat mental disorder. Medications may to increase neurotransmitter levels. a. block synapses b. block reuptake c. stimulate membranes d. stimulate reuptake 31. According to Chapter 2 of your text, six major neurotransmitters will be discussed throughout your book. Which one of the following is NOT one of them? a. Dopamine b. Serotonin c. Adrenaline d. Norepinephrine 32. Which of the following is NOT the correct pairing between the neurotransmitter and its major functions? a. Serotonin; processing of information, regulation of mood, behavior, and thought processes b. Norepinephrine; regulation of arousal, mood, behavior, and sleep c. Dopamine; learning and memory d. Acetylcholine; motor behavior, reward, attention 33. The two hemispheres of the brain a. each control movement for the opposite side of the body. b. have generalized functions that either hemisphere can perform. c. do not communicate with each other. d. all of these are related to the two hemispheres of the brain. 34. The cerebral cortex of the brain has a. a smooth surface. b. four lobe areas in each hemisphere. c. the ability to perform only emotional processing. d. inner surfaces of the cerebrum. 35. The text suggests that the main cortex area that mental health researchers focus on is the a. frontal lobe. b. thalamus. c. occipital lobe. d. basal ganglia. 36. The section of the brain that is largely responsible for consciousness, memory, attention, and higher-order functioning is the a. cerebral cortex. b. frontal lobe. c. limbic system. d. thalamus. 37. The section of the brain responsible for movement, planning, inhibiting behavior, and decision making is the a. limbic system. b. occipital lobe. c. parietal lobe. d. frontal lobe. 38. The section of the brain associated with touch is the a. limbic system. b. occipital lobe. c. parietal lobe. d. frontal lobe. 39. The midbrain contains the , which is involved in arousal and stress or tension. a. reticular activating system b. medulla c. pons d. cerebellum 40. Which area of the brain regulates emotions and impulses and includes the hippocampus and the amygdala? a. Pons b. Thalamus c. Basal ganglia d. Limbic system 41. Based on your text's description of the function associated with different brain structures, which brain structure below is MOST likely to be associated with an eating disorder? a. Hypothalamus b. Thalamus c. Pons d. Medulla 42. Medications that decrease generally have antipsychotic effects to ease symptoms of schizophrenia. a. norepinephrine b. acetylcholine c. dopamine d. glutamate 43. Shayne has been diagnosed with depression. Her psychiatrist has just prescribed a medication, and it seems to be very effective. It probably is targeting which neurotransmitter to alleviate Shayne's symptoms? a. Glutamate b. Dopamine c. Serotonin d. Acetylcholine 44. Findings from the biological model have led to better knowledge about a. which genes are inherited. b. how neurotransmitter effects can help treat mental disorder. c. how brain changes over time lead to abnormal behavior. d. all of these have been assisted by the biological model. 45. The deep valley in the cerebral cortex that divides the frontal lobe from the rest of the brain is the a. longitudinal fissure. b. central fissure. c. lateral fissure. d. subcortical fissure. 46. The area of the brain that is located behind the parietal and temporal lobes, associated with vision, is the a. cerebellum. b. prefrontal cortex. c. occipital lobe. d. frontal lobe. 47. The structure located in the limbic system that is involved in emotion and aggression is the a. medulla. b. hippocampus. c. thalamus. d. amygdala. 48. Which of the following is NOT one of the limitations of the biological model? a. It does not provide a full account of any mental disorder. b. It does not explain how biological factors cause mental disorders. c. It ignores the role of family, stress, and other environmental factors. d. It has had very little impact on how we treat mental disorders. 49. Several basic principles comprise the psychodynamic perspective, including a. childhood experiences have little impact on adult personality. b. causes and purposes of human behavior are not always obvious. c. people use meditation to control anxiety or stress. d. all of the above are principles within the psychodynamic perspective. 50. A key aspect of the psychodynamic perspective is unconscious motivation, which refers to a. use of defense mechanisms to control anxiety or stress. b. hidden realms of emotion, thought, and behavior may drive us to act in a certain way. c. the idea that everything we do has meaning and purpose and is goal-directed. d. the concept that the id propels us to meet basic demands such as hunger. 51. Scientists in disciplines such as cognitive and social psychology and neuroscience have found that cognitive and behavioral processes a. always appear to be under cognitive control. b. do not always appear to be under cognitive control. c. are only measured at the conscious level. d. are only measured at the unconscious level. 52. Hidden realms of emotion, thought, and behavior may affect motives that drive us to act in certain ways. This is known as a. unconscious motivation. b. defense mechanisms. c. psychic determinism. d. primary process. 53. According to the psychodynamic model, are strategies used to cope with unconscious anxiety or stressors, such as conflict with others. a. unconscious motivations b. defense mechanisms c. psychic determinism d. primary process 54. The id operates on the principle. a. reality b. pleasure c. morality d. suggestive 55. The is an organized, rational system that uses higher-order thinking processes to obtain gratification. a. id b. ego c. superego d. defense mechanism 56. The ego uses processes to mediate demands of the id and demands of the environment. a. primary b. secondary c. tertiary d. moral 57. Dawud was at a party where pretty much everyone was intoxicated. Although Dawud would very much like to fit in with his peers at the party, he has been raised to believe that intoxication is wrong, and he can't bring himself to participate in the revelries. Which part of Dawud's personality, according to the psychodynamic model, has influenced Dawud's choice to abstain from the drinking at the party? a. Id b. Ego c. Superego d. Superid 58. Freud proposed that each person progresses through stages of development. a. erogenous b. psychodynamic c. retrosexual d. psychosexual 59. Holly constantly talks too much. She smokes, overeats, and bites her fingernails. A therapist who supports the psychodynamic model might see Holly as fixated on the stage of psychosexual development. a. oral b. anal c. phallic d. genital 60. Lydia is excessively neat and compulsive. A therapist who supports the psychodynamic model might argue that Lydia is fixated at the stage of psychosexual development. a. oral b. anal c. phallic d. latency 61. Sexual organs become the prime source of gratification during the stage. a. oral b. anal c. phallic d. genital 62. Fixation can be caused when a. excessive frustration or overindulgence at a psychosexual stage occurs. b. if the Oedipus complex overtakes the Electra complex. c. regression has occurred. d. a client represses feelings. 63. A child deprived or neglected during the oral stage of development may compensate in adulthood by engaging in behaviors such as a. smoking. b. talking. c. drinking alcohol. d. all of the above may be results. 64. The ego experiences when the id urges to seek impulsive gratification or when the superego imposes shame and guilt. a. anxiety b. depression c. desire d. withdrawal 65. A basic ego defense that occurs when a person banishes threatening feelings, thoughts, or impulses from consciousness is a. reaction formation. b. repression. c. regression. d. projection. 66. Which defense mechanism refers to attributing one’s own unacceptable motives or impulses to another person? a. Intellectualization b. Regression c. Projection d. Reaction formation 67. Jason has removed feelings and thoughts of his abusive childhood from his conscious memory through the process of a. reaction formation. b. repression. c. regression. d. projection. 68. Returning to a stage that previously gave a person much gratification is the defense mechanism called a. reaction formation. b. repression. c. regression. d. projection. 69. When unconscious feelings are attributed to another person, has occurred. a. reaction formation b. repression c. regression d. projection 70. Projection occurs when a. one's own feelings are attributed to another person. b. a person acts younger than they are. c. thoughts are pushed out of consciousness. d. a person transfers feelings to their therapist. 71. Mariella, from the scenario in Chapter 2 of the text, may have developed her depression due to a. unconscious conflict of emotions. b. conscious conflict of emotions. c. unconscious expression of emotions. d. conscious expression of emotions. 72. Psychodynamic mental health professionals often assess unconscious motivations and conflicts using techniques. a. behavioral b. cognitive c. projective d. biological 73. The projective hypothesis is an assumption based on the belief that people a. demonstrate unconscious needs in behavioral patterns of behavior. b. think about their unconscious needs and wants. c. reveal unconscious needs and conflicts when presented with ambiguous stimuli. d. reveal internal conflicts in brain imaging techniques. 74. Kalvin is completing a projective assessment. He is shown different cards with pictures on them and asked to generate a story about what the card depicts. His therapist then analyzes his responses for clues as to his unconscious motivations. Kalvin is most likely taking which personality test? a. Rorschach Inkblot Test b. Thematic Apperception Test c. Myers-Briggs Test d. The MMPI 75. From the perspective of the psychodynamic model, ego defenses are thought to be during sleep, making dream analysis a valuable tool. a. lower b. higher c. less creative d. more creative 76. The events depicted in a dream are known as the content. a. insight b. projective c. manifest d. latent 77. Ferris is telling his therapist about the crazy dream he had. "I went down to the dining hall, and when I got there, someone told me I had to jog around the building three times before I could get my breakfast. So I did, and as I ran, I bumped into my professor and she started chasing me." Ferris is describing the content of his dream to his therapist. a. manifest b. latent c. projective d. objective 78. The cornerstone of psychodynamic therapy and the method by which unconscious meanings of thoughts and behavior are revealed is a. insight therapy. b. projection. c. interpretation. d. dream analysis. 79. Sally begins to yell at her therapist in the same manner that she did to her father when she was a child. Psychodynamic therapy would explain this behavior as a. projection. b. transference. c. analysis. d. manifestation. 80. In the course of one therapy session, Stanley suddenly understands that the reason he has been depressed is because he is unconsciously angry at his parents for pushing him to be a doctor. Stanley's sudden understanding into his unconscious emotion and its connection to his depression illustrates a. projection. b. manifest content. c. insight. d. transference. 81. Clienttherapist interactions provide clues about the nature of a client’s problems as well as being an opportunity to interpret in an immediate situation. a. projection b. transference c. primary processes d. dream analysis 82. Perhaps the biggest weakness of the psychodynamic perspective is it has a. little empirical support. b. too much emphasis on biological processes. c. little behavioral support. d. labels behavior rather than explains it. 83. For years, psychodynamic theorists were accused of being a. antiscientific. b. behaviorists. c. easily swayed. d. humanists. 84. Involuntary hospitalization of people at serious risk of harming themselves or others is called a. competency to stand trial. b. insanity. c. criminal commitment. d. civil commitment. 85. A group of theorists that emphasize human growth, choice, and responsibility adopt a(n) model of psychology. a. behavioral b. cognitive c. humanistic d. eclectic 86. The assumption that one’s behavior is determined by perceptions of self and others is known as the approach. a. cognitive b. behavioral c. phenomenological d. psychodynamic 87. Javier believes that people are innately good and will quite naturally strive to grow and seek fulfillment. Javier is probably a proponent of the model. a. humanistic b. behavioristic c. cognitivistic d. eclectic 88. The individual who originated the idea that humans have basic and higher-order needs they strive to satisfy during their lifetime was a. Freud. b. Maslow. c. Rogers. d. Skinner. 89. Maslow believes the most basic needs a person has are a. physiological. b. safety. c. security. d. social. 90. The highest level of need that Maslow proposed is a. physiological. b. self-actualization. c. security. d. social. 91. As a senior in college, Elenita is facing a tough job market after she graduates. She very much wants to find a job with significant work that is viewed as prestigious. She has a large circle of close friends who support her in her quest for a great job. She lives in a nice apartment off campus and has sufficient money to pay her bills. Which of Maslow's needs is Elenita concerned with meeting as she faces graduation? a. Self-actualization b. Ego (esteem) c. Acceptance d. Safety 92. Maslow’s hierarchy of needs includes all of the following EXCEPT a. self-actualization. b. safety/security. c. social/belonging. d. unconditional positive regard. 93. Unhealthy people experience personal or other obstacles to and may develop mental problems as a result. a. physiological b. self-actualization c. security d. social 94. People thought to be moral beings who can understand reality and view things objectively are considered to have reached the level in Maslow's hierarchy of needs. a. physiological b. self-actualization c. security d. social 95. Client-centered therapy attempts to allow clients to become more person centered or autonomous and less worried about others' disapproval. This oversensitivity to the demands of others that client-centered therapy tries to overcome is called a. conditional wariness. b. other-centeredness. c. therapist guiding. d. self-discovery. 96. Rogers developed therapy that relies heavily on unconditional positive regard and empathy. a. unconditional b. conditional c. behavioral d. client-centered 97. A client-centered therapist establishes a therapeutic environment in which a client is a. completely accepted. b. unjudged. c. both completely accepted and unjudged. d. neither acceptance nor judgment are parts of the therapeutic environment. 98. Rollo May is responsible for creating psychology. a. positive b. biological c. psychodynamic d. existential 99. How closely one adheres to one’s personality is referred to as a. existential. b. reality. c. authenticity. d. other-centeredness. 100. Existential theorists believe that people are alone in the world and may therefore develop a sense of a. meaninglessness. b. authenticity. c. apprehension. d. anxiety. 101. Humanistic theorists support a model of assessment. a. quantitative b. qualitative c. nondirective d. directive 102. Treatment from a humanistic perspective is a. nondirective. b. directive. c. behavioral. d. biological. 103. The humanistic model is optimistic and tied to contemporary psychology. a. positive b. psychoanalysis c. behavioral d. biological 104. The humanistic approach has several limitations, including lack of a. empathy. b. biological support. c. empirical support. d. ability to assist clients. 105. Humanistic therapy has been criticized for all of the following EXCEPT a. being unscientific. b. lacking empirical support. c. its ineffectiveness with severe disorders and toward certain groups. d. being too harsh and confrontational. 106. Ned has become comfortable with his humanistic therapist and has likely responded to a therapeutic environment of a. acknowledgment, guidance, and conditional praise. b. respect, empathy, and complete acceptance. c. casual exchange, informal relationship, and support. d. minimal cost, maximum benefits, and no labels or stigma. 107. Rogers' client-centered approach has led to process variables that contribute to treatment success. One particularly helpful process variable is a therapeutic environment based on a. insight. b. empathy. c. instruction. d. all of these are included in a good environmental process variable. 108. According to your text, which perspective below focuses on both internal and external factors, has good empirical support, and applies to many people with a mental disorder? a. Cognitive-behavioral b. Psychoanalytic c. Psychosomatic d. Humanistic 109. The perspective focuses on directly observable actions that people perform. a. cognitive b. behavioral c. humanistic d. psychodynamic 110. Jazmine is a freshman at college. She is consumed with thoughts of how she might fail, and these thoughts tend to impede her ability to perform well on tests and assignments at college. Her counselor at the student health center has been working with her to develop new ways of thinking and probably emphasizes the perspective. a. cognitive b. behavioral c. humanistic d. psychodynamic 111. The perspective is based on the assumption that all behavior—normal or abnormal—is learned. a. cognitive b. behavioral c. humanistic d. psychodynamic 112. Learning to associate automatic responses with previously neutral stimuli is referred to as a. observational learning. b. classical conditioning. c. operant conditioning. d. positive reinforcement. 113. Carl wasn't always afraid of stoplights, but when he was little he was was kidnapped out of his mother's car while they were stopped at a stoplight. He was recovered within 48 hours. But now, even as an adult, he finds himself avoiding stoplights, and if he can't avoid them, he feels tension mounting. Carl's fear of stoplights is a(n) in the classical conditioning paradigm. a. unconditioned stimulus b. unconditioned response c. conditioned stimulus d. conditioned response 114. Reinforcement that involves giving a pleasant event or consequence after a behavior has occurred is known as reinforcement. a. cognitive b. behavioral c. positive d. negative 115. Positive reinforcement occurs when a behavior results in , and negative reinforcement occurs when a behavior results in . a. a pleasant event; the removal of an unpleasant event b. punishment; reward c. a pleasant outcome; a reward for bad behavior d. escape; punishment 116. Removing an aversive event following a behavior, which will increase the future likelihood of the behavior, is known as a. cognitive reinforcement. b. behavioral reinforcement. c. positive reinforcement. d. negative reinforcement. 117. Lorraine’s therapist studied under Aaron Beck’s guidance and subsequently became primarily focused on in therapy. a. cognitive-behavioral merging b. conditioning and behavior modification c. cognitive distortions d. psychodrama and role-playing 118. Erroneously blaming oneself for events leads to the cognitive distortion known as a. arbitrary inference. b. catastrophizing. c. personalization. d. external locus of control. 119. When we enter a situation with some expectation of what may happen, we use a network of accumulated knowledge known as a. cognitive schemas. b. expectancy effects. c. perspective taking. d. arbitrary inference. 120. Learning by observing and imitating others is evident during a. distortions. b. personalization. c. modeling. d. cognition. 121. The cognitive-behavioral model emphasizes that a. learning principles and cognitions interact. b. cognitions always come first then behavior follows. c. each individual has a different cognitive behavioral balance. d. identifying thoughts always informs behavior. 122. Mia has a great deal of anxiety around dogs. Her therapist notes that this anxiety disappears when Mia removes herself from the presence of the dog, thereby reinforcing her avoidance of dogs. This analysis of how anxiety precedes Mia's encounter with dogs and relief follows when Mia gets away from dogs is an example of which assessment technique? a. Projective testing b. MRI c. Functional analysis d. Structured interview 123. Functional analysis is a(n) approach in the model. a. assessment; cognitive-behavioral b. assessment; humanistic c. treatment; cognitive-behavioral d. treatment; humanistic 124. Exposure treatment, token economy, and rational restructuring are treatments that are part of which perspective? a. Humanistic b. Cognitive-behavioral c. Biological d. Sociocultural 125. Modeling, also known as vicarious conditioning, implies that mechanisms influence learning. a. reinforcement b. cognitive c. unconscious d. behavioral 126. A large collection of treatment techniques used to change patterns of thinking and behaving that contribute to a person’s problems is a. psychoanalysis. b. cognitive-affective therapy. c. cognitive-behavioral therapy. d. humanism. 127. Which of the following is the BEST example of a cognitive-behavioral technique that Aaron Beck might use to treat depression? a. Reinforce patient with discounts on therapy for showing up on time b. Ask patient to speak freely without editing him/herself c. Schedule activities to counter inactivity and focus on depressive feelings d. Provide empathy, understanding, and acceptance of the patient's depressive feelings 128. Albert Ellis proposed a major cognitive-behavioral therapy approach that is commonly referred to as a. rational restructuring. b. rationalization. c. cognitive restructuring. d. behavioral restructuring. 129. Susan is terrified of snakes. She becomes very anxious even thinking they exist. Her therapist is teaching her how to relax, after which they will construct a hierarchy of levels of exposure to snakes. Her therapist is using a. cognitive restructuring. b. behavioral management. c. humanism. d. systematic desensitization. 130. Gerald has been given plastic poker chips for desirable behavior in his institutional setting. He understands the chips have a certain point value and can be used later on for privileges. Gerald is responding to a(n) a. intermittent schedule. b. token economy. c. negative reinforcement with no punishment. d. projective value system. 131. John is terrified of spiders. His therapist has decided to place him in a room and have him confront the feared stimulus—in his case, spiders. His therapist is using a form of a. behavioral management. b. exposure treatment. c. cognitive restructuring. d. positive reinforcement. 132. Every time that Brandon raises his hand in class his teacher gives him a bean. At the end of the day, he can "trade" his beans for something he would like. His teacher is using a a. cognitive restructuring program. b. flooding exercise. c. token economy. d. systematic desensitization exercise. 133. The sociocultural perspective puts far greater emphasis on than the other major perspectives. a. family history b. environmental factors c. cognition d. unconscious conflict 134. The unique behavior and lifestyle shared by a group of people is referred to as a. ethnicity. b. race