NSG 533
EXAM 1
Advanced Pharmacology
Actual Questions with Verified Answers
Wilkes University
Pass the Exam with Confidence
What You Will Get:
➢100 Exam Questions w/ Answers
➢Expert Rationales included.
➢Exam 1 Comprehensive Study Guide
,Table of Contents
NSG 533 Exam 1 ................................................................................ 2
NSG 533 Exam 1 ............................................................................. 25
NSG 533 Exam 1 Focused Study Guide .............................. 50
NSG 533 Exam 1
Question 1
A patient is diagnosed with Helicobacter pylori infection. Which regimen represents
the standard clarithromycin triple therapy?
A) Clarithromycin 500mg BID + amoxicillin 1g BID + PPI BID
B) Clarithromycin 500mg BID + metronidazole 500mg TID + PPI BID
C) Amoxicillin 1g BID + clarithromycin 500mg BID + metronidazole 500mg BID + PPI BID
D) Both A and B are acceptable clarithromycin triple therapy regimens
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Clarithromycin triple therapy consists of clarithromycin 500mg BID plus a PPI
BID, with EITHER amoxicillin 1g BID OR metronidazole 500mg TID as the third agent.
Option A represents the amoxicillin-based regimen; Option B represents the
metronidazole-based regimen (used in penicillin-allergic patients or areas with high
macrolide resistance). Option C describes a nonbismuth-based quadruple therapy, not
triple therapy.
Question 2
Which of the following describes the nonbismuth-based quadruple therapy for H.
pylori? (Select all that apply)
,A) Amoxicillin 1g BID
B) Clarithromycin 500mg BID
C) Metronidazole 500mg BID
D) PPI BID
E) Bismuth subsalicylate 300mg QID
Correct Answer: A, B, C, D
Rationale: Nonbismuth-based quadruple therapy (also called concomitant therapy)
includes four medications: amoxicillin 1g BID, clarithromycin 500mg BID, metronidazole
500mg BID, and a PPI BID. This regimen does NOT include bismuth subsalicylate—that is
reserved for bismuth quadruple therapy. The quadruple approach is used when
clarithromycin resistance is a concern or as first-line in some guidelines.
Question 3
A patient with a documented penicillin allergy requires H. pylori treatment. Which
alternate regimen should be recommended?
A) Continue standard clarithromycin triple therapy with amoxicillin; penicillin allergy is
rarely true
B) Bismuth quadruple therapy: bismuth subsalicylate 300mg QID + metronidazole 250–
500mg QID + tetracycline 500mg QID + PPI BID
C) Nonbismuth-based quadruple therapy with amoxicillin substituted for azithromycin
D) PPI monotherapy for 14 days
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In patients with true penicillin allergy, bismuth quadruple therapy is the
recommended alternative. This regimen includes bismuth subsalicylate 300mg QID,
metronidazole 250–500mg QID, tetracycline 500mg QID, and a PPI BID. Tetracycline is used
instead of amoxicillin, and the bismuth provides additional mucosal protection and
antimicrobial activity. Option D (PPI monotherapy) would not eradicate H. pylori.
Question 4
Which proton pump inhibitor (PPI) is recommended as the MOST efficacious for
treating moderate to severe GERD?
A) Omeprazole
B) Esomeprazole
,C) Pantoprazole
D) All PPIs have similar efficacy
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: All PPIs have similar efficacy in reducing gastric acid secretion and healing
erosive esophagitis. They provide significant acid suppression and greatest relief of
symptoms, especially in moderate to severe GERD. While individual PPIs may vary slightly
in pharmacokinetics (e.g., esomeprazole is the S-isomer of omeprazole), clinical outcomes
are generally comparable. Selection is often based on drug interactions, cost, and formulary
availability rather than intrinsic efficacy.
Question 5
Which lifestyle modifications should be recommended for a patient with
gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)? (Select all that apply)
A) Eating smaller meals
B) Losing weight if overweight
C) Elevating the head of the bed (HOB) at night
D) Smoking cessation
E) Avoiding alcohol
F) Increasing caffeine intake
Correct Answer: A, B, C, D, E
Rationale: Key lifestyle modifications for GERD include: eating smaller meals (reduces
gastric distension and transient LES relaxations), weight loss (decreases intra-abdominal
pressure), elevating HOB 6–8 inches (uses gravity to reduce nocturnal reflux), smoking
cessation (nicotine decreases LES tone), and avoiding alcohol (relaxes LES and irritates
mucosa). Caffeine can also decrease LES tone and should be avoided, not increased.
Question 6
Which over-the-counter (OTC) medication class is used to treat diarrhea by adding
bulk to the stool?
A) Antimotility agents
B) Antisecretory agents
C) Bulk-forming agents
D) Probiotics
,Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Bulk-forming agents such as calcium polycarbophil and psyllium absorb water
and add bulk to stool, which can help regulate bowel movements in both diarrhea and
constipation. They work by increasing stool viscosity and transit time. These are generally
safe for long-term use and are first-line for functional diarrhea.
Question 7
Which OTC medications are classified as antimotility agents for diarrhea treatment?
(Select all that apply)
A) Loperamide
B) Diphenoxylate
C) Bismuth subsalicylate
D) Psyllium
Correct Answer: A, B
Rationale: Antimotility agents reduce intestinal motility and prolong transit time, allowing
more water absorption. Loperamide (Imodium) and diphenoxylate (Lomotil) are the
primary OTC antimotility agents. Bismuth subsalicylate is an antisecretory/anti-
inflammatory agent. Psyllium is a bulk-forming agent. Caution: Antimotility agents should
NOT be used in infectious diarrhea (especially C. difficile or dysentery) as they can worsen
the condition by trapping the pathogen.
Question 8
Bismuth subsalicylate is classified as which type of OTC antidiarrheal agent?
A) Bulk-forming agent
B) Antimotility agent
C) Antisecretory agent
D) Probiotic
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Bismuth subsalicylate (Pepto-Bismol) is an antisecretory agent that reduces
fluid secretion into the intestinal lumen. It also has antimicrobial properties (effective
against H. pylori and some enteropathogens) and anti-inflammatory effects. It coats the
gastric and intestinal mucosa, providing symptomatic relief. The subsalicylate component is
,an analog of aspirin and should be avoided in children with viral illness due to Reye's
syndrome risk.
Question 9
Which OTC bulk-forming agents are used to treat constipation? (Select all that apply)
A) Psyllium
B) Methylcellulose
C) Calcium polycarbophil
D) Docusate sodium
Correct Answer: A, B, C
Rationale: Bulk-forming agents (fiber supplements) for constipation include psyllium
(Metamucil), methylcellulose (Citrucel), and calcium polycarbophil (FiberCon). These
agents absorb water, increase stool bulk, and stimulate peristalsis. Docusate sodium is an
emollient/stool softener, not a bulk-forming agent. Adequate fluid intake is essential when
using bulk-forming laxatives to prevent intestinal obstruction.
Question 10
Which OTC emollient laxatives are used to treat constipation? (Select all that apply)
A) Docusate sodium
B) Docusate calcium
C) Bisacodyl
D) Senna
Correct Answer: A, B
Rationale: Emollients (stool softeners) include docusate sodium (Colace) and docusate
calcium (Surfak). They work by lowering surface tension, allowing water and fat to
penetrate the stool, making it softer and easier to pass. They are particularly useful for
patients who should avoid straining (e.g., post-MI, post-operative, hemorrhoids). Bisacodyl
and senna are stimulant laxatives, not emollients.
Question 11
Which medications are classified as stimulant laxatives for OTC constipation
treatment? (Select all that apply)
,A) Bisacodyl
B) Anthraquinones (senna)
C) Docusate sodium
D) Psyllium
Correct Answer: A, B
Rationale: Stimulant laxatives directly stimulate the enteric nervous system and intestinal
smooth muscle, increasing peristalsis. Bisacodyl (Dulcolax) and senna (Senokot, an
anthraquinone) are the primary OTC stimulant laxatives. They are reserved for short-term
use or when bulk-forming agents fail. Chronic use can lead to cathartic colon and electrolyte
imbalances. Docusate is an emollient; psyllium is bulk-forming.
Question 12
A patient is being discharged after chemotherapy and will be managing
chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting (CINV) at home. Which counseling
points are essential? (Select all that apply)
A) CINV is typically treated with a combination of antiemetics targeting different
mechanisms
B) Breakthrough medications should be available even if the patient received prophylactic
treatment
C) Delayed nausea and vomiting is most difficult to control and commonly occurs with
cisplatin and cyclophosphamide-based regimens
D) Using medications with different mechanisms of action (MOA) is recommended
E) A variety of antiemetics may be used, including lorazepam, dexamethasone,
methylprednisolone, prochlorperazine, promethazine, metoclopramide, 5-HT3 antagonists,
dronabinol, and aprepitant
Correct Answer: A, B, C, D, E
Rationale: Comprehensive CINV management includes: combination antiemetic therapy
(multimodal approach targeting different receptors), availability of breakthrough
medications (rescue therapy), awareness that delayed CINV (occurring >24 hours post-
chemo) is hardest to control—especially with cisplatin and cyclophosphamide, using agents
with different MOAs to maximize efficacy, and a broad armamentarium of antiemetics.
Patient education on when and how to take medications, hydration, and when to call the
provider is critical.
,Question 13
In which clinical scenarios should antibiotics be recommended for a patient with
diarrhea? (Select all that apply)
A) Traveler's diarrhea
B) Escherichia coli infection
C) Shigella infection
D) Salmonella infection
E) Clostridioides difficile infection
F) Viral gastroenteritis
Correct Answer: A, B, C, D, E
Rationale: Antibiotics are indicated for diarrhea caused by specific infectious agents:
traveler's diarrhea (often E. coli), enteroinvasive E. coli, Shigella, Salmonella (in severe cases
or high-risk patients), and C. difficile (requires specific antibiotics like vancomycin or
fidaxomicin). Viral gastroenteritis (e.g., norovirus, rotavirus) is self-limiting and does NOT
require antibiotics—antibiotics would be ineffective and potentially harmful by disrupting
flora.
Question 14
A patient with type 2 diabetes is already on three oral agents (including metformin)
but remains uncontrolled. What is the recommended next step?
A) Add a fourth oral agent to the regimen
B) Discontinue all oral agents and initiate insulin monotherapy
C) Discontinue oral agents other than metformin and initiate insulin
D) Increase the doses of the current three oral agents to maximum
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Current evidence does not support the efficacy of four oral antidiabetic agents.
The recommended approach is to discontinue the oral agents (other than metformin) and
initiate insulin therapy. Metformin is typically continued (unless contraindicated) because
it reduces insulin requirements and provides cardiovascular benefits. This step represents
the transition from oral therapy to insulin when glycemic targets are not met with triple
oral therapy.
Question 15
, A patient with type 2 diabetes on metformin monotherapy has an A1C of 8.2%. What
is the recommended next step in therapy?
A) Increase metformin to maximum tolerated dose and recheck in 3 months
B) Start dual therapy by adding either a GLP-1 receptor agonist or an SGLT2 inhibitor to
metformin
C) Switch to insulin immediately
D) Add a sulfonylurea as the only acceptable second agent
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: For patients with A1C 7.5–9.0% on metformin monotherapy, dual therapy is
recommended. The preferred add-on agents are a GLP-1 receptor agonist (GLP-1 RA) or an
SGLT2 inhibitor (SGLT2i) due to their cardiovascular benefits, weight effects, and low
hypoglycemia risk. The choice depends on patient factors: GLP-1 RAs are preferred for
weight loss and ASCVD risk reduction; SGLT2is are preferred for heart failure or chronic
kidney disease. Sulfonylureas are lower priority due to hypoglycemia and weight gain risks.
Question 16
Which adjunctive medications are recommended for ALL patients with diabetes?
(Select all that apply)
A) Antiplatelet therapy (aspirin)
B) Statin therapy
C) Blood pressure control with ACE inhibitors or ARBs if hypertensive
D) Metformin
E) Annual influenza vaccination
Correct Answer: A, B, C, E
Rationale: Standard of care for all diabetic patients includes: antiplatelet therapy with
aspirin (for secondary prevention or primary prevention in high ASCVD risk), statin
therapy (regardless of baseline LDL due to diabetes as ASCVD equivalent), blood pressure
control (target <130/80 mmHg; ACE inhibitors/ARBs are preferred for renal protection),
and annual influenza vaccination (and other appropriate immunizations). Metformin is
first-line pharmacotherapy for type 2 diabetes but is not considered an "adjunctive"
therapy—it is core diabetes treatment.
Question 17
Which class of antidiabetic medications is associated with WEIGHT GAIN?
EXAM 1
Advanced Pharmacology
Actual Questions with Verified Answers
Wilkes University
Pass the Exam with Confidence
What You Will Get:
➢100 Exam Questions w/ Answers
➢Expert Rationales included.
➢Exam 1 Comprehensive Study Guide
,Table of Contents
NSG 533 Exam 1 ................................................................................ 2
NSG 533 Exam 1 ............................................................................. 25
NSG 533 Exam 1 Focused Study Guide .............................. 50
NSG 533 Exam 1
Question 1
A patient is diagnosed with Helicobacter pylori infection. Which regimen represents
the standard clarithromycin triple therapy?
A) Clarithromycin 500mg BID + amoxicillin 1g BID + PPI BID
B) Clarithromycin 500mg BID + metronidazole 500mg TID + PPI BID
C) Amoxicillin 1g BID + clarithromycin 500mg BID + metronidazole 500mg BID + PPI BID
D) Both A and B are acceptable clarithromycin triple therapy regimens
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Clarithromycin triple therapy consists of clarithromycin 500mg BID plus a PPI
BID, with EITHER amoxicillin 1g BID OR metronidazole 500mg TID as the third agent.
Option A represents the amoxicillin-based regimen; Option B represents the
metronidazole-based regimen (used in penicillin-allergic patients or areas with high
macrolide resistance). Option C describes a nonbismuth-based quadruple therapy, not
triple therapy.
Question 2
Which of the following describes the nonbismuth-based quadruple therapy for H.
pylori? (Select all that apply)
,A) Amoxicillin 1g BID
B) Clarithromycin 500mg BID
C) Metronidazole 500mg BID
D) PPI BID
E) Bismuth subsalicylate 300mg QID
Correct Answer: A, B, C, D
Rationale: Nonbismuth-based quadruple therapy (also called concomitant therapy)
includes four medications: amoxicillin 1g BID, clarithromycin 500mg BID, metronidazole
500mg BID, and a PPI BID. This regimen does NOT include bismuth subsalicylate—that is
reserved for bismuth quadruple therapy. The quadruple approach is used when
clarithromycin resistance is a concern or as first-line in some guidelines.
Question 3
A patient with a documented penicillin allergy requires H. pylori treatment. Which
alternate regimen should be recommended?
A) Continue standard clarithromycin triple therapy with amoxicillin; penicillin allergy is
rarely true
B) Bismuth quadruple therapy: bismuth subsalicylate 300mg QID + metronidazole 250–
500mg QID + tetracycline 500mg QID + PPI BID
C) Nonbismuth-based quadruple therapy with amoxicillin substituted for azithromycin
D) PPI monotherapy for 14 days
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In patients with true penicillin allergy, bismuth quadruple therapy is the
recommended alternative. This regimen includes bismuth subsalicylate 300mg QID,
metronidazole 250–500mg QID, tetracycline 500mg QID, and a PPI BID. Tetracycline is used
instead of amoxicillin, and the bismuth provides additional mucosal protection and
antimicrobial activity. Option D (PPI monotherapy) would not eradicate H. pylori.
Question 4
Which proton pump inhibitor (PPI) is recommended as the MOST efficacious for
treating moderate to severe GERD?
A) Omeprazole
B) Esomeprazole
,C) Pantoprazole
D) All PPIs have similar efficacy
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: All PPIs have similar efficacy in reducing gastric acid secretion and healing
erosive esophagitis. They provide significant acid suppression and greatest relief of
symptoms, especially in moderate to severe GERD. While individual PPIs may vary slightly
in pharmacokinetics (e.g., esomeprazole is the S-isomer of omeprazole), clinical outcomes
are generally comparable. Selection is often based on drug interactions, cost, and formulary
availability rather than intrinsic efficacy.
Question 5
Which lifestyle modifications should be recommended for a patient with
gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)? (Select all that apply)
A) Eating smaller meals
B) Losing weight if overweight
C) Elevating the head of the bed (HOB) at night
D) Smoking cessation
E) Avoiding alcohol
F) Increasing caffeine intake
Correct Answer: A, B, C, D, E
Rationale: Key lifestyle modifications for GERD include: eating smaller meals (reduces
gastric distension and transient LES relaxations), weight loss (decreases intra-abdominal
pressure), elevating HOB 6–8 inches (uses gravity to reduce nocturnal reflux), smoking
cessation (nicotine decreases LES tone), and avoiding alcohol (relaxes LES and irritates
mucosa). Caffeine can also decrease LES tone and should be avoided, not increased.
Question 6
Which over-the-counter (OTC) medication class is used to treat diarrhea by adding
bulk to the stool?
A) Antimotility agents
B) Antisecretory agents
C) Bulk-forming agents
D) Probiotics
,Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Bulk-forming agents such as calcium polycarbophil and psyllium absorb water
and add bulk to stool, which can help regulate bowel movements in both diarrhea and
constipation. They work by increasing stool viscosity and transit time. These are generally
safe for long-term use and are first-line for functional diarrhea.
Question 7
Which OTC medications are classified as antimotility agents for diarrhea treatment?
(Select all that apply)
A) Loperamide
B) Diphenoxylate
C) Bismuth subsalicylate
D) Psyllium
Correct Answer: A, B
Rationale: Antimotility agents reduce intestinal motility and prolong transit time, allowing
more water absorption. Loperamide (Imodium) and diphenoxylate (Lomotil) are the
primary OTC antimotility agents. Bismuth subsalicylate is an antisecretory/anti-
inflammatory agent. Psyllium is a bulk-forming agent. Caution: Antimotility agents should
NOT be used in infectious diarrhea (especially C. difficile or dysentery) as they can worsen
the condition by trapping the pathogen.
Question 8
Bismuth subsalicylate is classified as which type of OTC antidiarrheal agent?
A) Bulk-forming agent
B) Antimotility agent
C) Antisecretory agent
D) Probiotic
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Bismuth subsalicylate (Pepto-Bismol) is an antisecretory agent that reduces
fluid secretion into the intestinal lumen. It also has antimicrobial properties (effective
against H. pylori and some enteropathogens) and anti-inflammatory effects. It coats the
gastric and intestinal mucosa, providing symptomatic relief. The subsalicylate component is
,an analog of aspirin and should be avoided in children with viral illness due to Reye's
syndrome risk.
Question 9
Which OTC bulk-forming agents are used to treat constipation? (Select all that apply)
A) Psyllium
B) Methylcellulose
C) Calcium polycarbophil
D) Docusate sodium
Correct Answer: A, B, C
Rationale: Bulk-forming agents (fiber supplements) for constipation include psyllium
(Metamucil), methylcellulose (Citrucel), and calcium polycarbophil (FiberCon). These
agents absorb water, increase stool bulk, and stimulate peristalsis. Docusate sodium is an
emollient/stool softener, not a bulk-forming agent. Adequate fluid intake is essential when
using bulk-forming laxatives to prevent intestinal obstruction.
Question 10
Which OTC emollient laxatives are used to treat constipation? (Select all that apply)
A) Docusate sodium
B) Docusate calcium
C) Bisacodyl
D) Senna
Correct Answer: A, B
Rationale: Emollients (stool softeners) include docusate sodium (Colace) and docusate
calcium (Surfak). They work by lowering surface tension, allowing water and fat to
penetrate the stool, making it softer and easier to pass. They are particularly useful for
patients who should avoid straining (e.g., post-MI, post-operative, hemorrhoids). Bisacodyl
and senna are stimulant laxatives, not emollients.
Question 11
Which medications are classified as stimulant laxatives for OTC constipation
treatment? (Select all that apply)
,A) Bisacodyl
B) Anthraquinones (senna)
C) Docusate sodium
D) Psyllium
Correct Answer: A, B
Rationale: Stimulant laxatives directly stimulate the enteric nervous system and intestinal
smooth muscle, increasing peristalsis. Bisacodyl (Dulcolax) and senna (Senokot, an
anthraquinone) are the primary OTC stimulant laxatives. They are reserved for short-term
use or when bulk-forming agents fail. Chronic use can lead to cathartic colon and electrolyte
imbalances. Docusate is an emollient; psyllium is bulk-forming.
Question 12
A patient is being discharged after chemotherapy and will be managing
chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting (CINV) at home. Which counseling
points are essential? (Select all that apply)
A) CINV is typically treated with a combination of antiemetics targeting different
mechanisms
B) Breakthrough medications should be available even if the patient received prophylactic
treatment
C) Delayed nausea and vomiting is most difficult to control and commonly occurs with
cisplatin and cyclophosphamide-based regimens
D) Using medications with different mechanisms of action (MOA) is recommended
E) A variety of antiemetics may be used, including lorazepam, dexamethasone,
methylprednisolone, prochlorperazine, promethazine, metoclopramide, 5-HT3 antagonists,
dronabinol, and aprepitant
Correct Answer: A, B, C, D, E
Rationale: Comprehensive CINV management includes: combination antiemetic therapy
(multimodal approach targeting different receptors), availability of breakthrough
medications (rescue therapy), awareness that delayed CINV (occurring >24 hours post-
chemo) is hardest to control—especially with cisplatin and cyclophosphamide, using agents
with different MOAs to maximize efficacy, and a broad armamentarium of antiemetics.
Patient education on when and how to take medications, hydration, and when to call the
provider is critical.
,Question 13
In which clinical scenarios should antibiotics be recommended for a patient with
diarrhea? (Select all that apply)
A) Traveler's diarrhea
B) Escherichia coli infection
C) Shigella infection
D) Salmonella infection
E) Clostridioides difficile infection
F) Viral gastroenteritis
Correct Answer: A, B, C, D, E
Rationale: Antibiotics are indicated for diarrhea caused by specific infectious agents:
traveler's diarrhea (often E. coli), enteroinvasive E. coli, Shigella, Salmonella (in severe cases
or high-risk patients), and C. difficile (requires specific antibiotics like vancomycin or
fidaxomicin). Viral gastroenteritis (e.g., norovirus, rotavirus) is self-limiting and does NOT
require antibiotics—antibiotics would be ineffective and potentially harmful by disrupting
flora.
Question 14
A patient with type 2 diabetes is already on three oral agents (including metformin)
but remains uncontrolled. What is the recommended next step?
A) Add a fourth oral agent to the regimen
B) Discontinue all oral agents and initiate insulin monotherapy
C) Discontinue oral agents other than metformin and initiate insulin
D) Increase the doses of the current three oral agents to maximum
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Current evidence does not support the efficacy of four oral antidiabetic agents.
The recommended approach is to discontinue the oral agents (other than metformin) and
initiate insulin therapy. Metformin is typically continued (unless contraindicated) because
it reduces insulin requirements and provides cardiovascular benefits. This step represents
the transition from oral therapy to insulin when glycemic targets are not met with triple
oral therapy.
Question 15
, A patient with type 2 diabetes on metformin monotherapy has an A1C of 8.2%. What
is the recommended next step in therapy?
A) Increase metformin to maximum tolerated dose and recheck in 3 months
B) Start dual therapy by adding either a GLP-1 receptor agonist or an SGLT2 inhibitor to
metformin
C) Switch to insulin immediately
D) Add a sulfonylurea as the only acceptable second agent
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: For patients with A1C 7.5–9.0% on metformin monotherapy, dual therapy is
recommended. The preferred add-on agents are a GLP-1 receptor agonist (GLP-1 RA) or an
SGLT2 inhibitor (SGLT2i) due to their cardiovascular benefits, weight effects, and low
hypoglycemia risk. The choice depends on patient factors: GLP-1 RAs are preferred for
weight loss and ASCVD risk reduction; SGLT2is are preferred for heart failure or chronic
kidney disease. Sulfonylureas are lower priority due to hypoglycemia and weight gain risks.
Question 16
Which adjunctive medications are recommended for ALL patients with diabetes?
(Select all that apply)
A) Antiplatelet therapy (aspirin)
B) Statin therapy
C) Blood pressure control with ACE inhibitors or ARBs if hypertensive
D) Metformin
E) Annual influenza vaccination
Correct Answer: A, B, C, E
Rationale: Standard of care for all diabetic patients includes: antiplatelet therapy with
aspirin (for secondary prevention or primary prevention in high ASCVD risk), statin
therapy (regardless of baseline LDL due to diabetes as ASCVD equivalent), blood pressure
control (target <130/80 mmHg; ACE inhibitors/ARBs are preferred for renal protection),
and annual influenza vaccination (and other appropriate immunizations). Metformin is
first-line pharmacotherapy for type 2 diabetes but is not considered an "adjunctive"
therapy—it is core diabetes treatment.
Question 17
Which class of antidiabetic medications is associated with WEIGHT GAIN?
