NSG 3280 / NSG3280 EXAM 1|
PATHOPHYSIOLOGY FOR NURSES I | 100%
CORRECTLY ANSWERED AND RATED A+ | LATEST
2026/2027 | GALEN
What is anaerobic metabolism?
- Correct Answer - A metabolic process that occurs in the absence of
oxygen, allowing cells to generate energy.
What are free radicals?
- Correct Answer - Highly reactive molecules that can damage cellular
proteins and enzymes, contributing to dysfunction.
What are endorphins and enkephalins?
- Correct Answer - Neurotransmitters released during stress that
decrease pain and increase feelings of euphoria.
What causes reperfusion injury?
- Correct Answer - Calcium overload, formation of free radicals, and
subsequent inflammation contribute to secondary injury.
What mechanisms cause thermal burn injury?
,- Correct Answer - Injury from extreme heat occurs through
vasoconstriction, microvascular coagulation, and direct tissue
destruction.
What type of necrosis is characterized by dead tissue with preserved
architecture?
- Correct Answer - Coagulative necrosis, where dead cardiac tissue is
dissolved by proteolytic enzymes.
What is the latent period in disease progression?
- Correct Answer - A phase where a disease is established but the
patient shows no symptoms.
What are the primary effects of aldosterone?
- Correct Answer - Retention of sodium and water, and vasoconstriction,
which help manage stress-induced hemodynamic changes.
What foundational processes contribute to cellular aging?
- Correct Answer - Cellular and molecular damage from environmental
factors, decline in cell repair ability, and DNA damage.
What are endotoxins?
- Correct Answer - Toxins released from gram-negative bacteria upon
their death, contributing to immune response and inflammation.
What level of disease prevention is exemplified by free screenings?
- Correct Answer - Secondary prevention, aimed at early detection and
intervention.
,What is the relationship between stress exposure and growth hormone
secretion?
- Correct Answer - Acute stress increases growth hormone secretion,
while chronic stress decreases it.
What immediate metabolic response occurs in severe infection for Type
1 Diabetes? - Correct Answer - Increased release of catecholamines and
cortisol, leading to gluconeogenesis and potential hyperglycemia.
What causes polydipsia in diabetes? - Correct Answer - Excess fluid loss
from polyuria leads to dehydration, causing increased thirst.
What actions does Amylin take in glucose control? - Correct Answer -
Inhibits gastric emptying and suppresses glucagon release, contributing
to glucose regulation.
What metabolic adjustment occurs during initial exercise? - Correct
Answer - Release of glucagon and catecholamines promotes lipolysis
and glycogenolysis to meet energy demands.
What differentiates insulin and glucagon in glucose homeostasis? -
Correct Answer - Insulin lowers blood glucose by promoting glucose
uptake, while glucagon raises blood glucose by stimulating glycogen
breakdown.
What fasting glucose level indicates prediabetes? - Correct Answer - A
fasting glucose level between 100 mg/dL and 125 mg/dL indicates
prediabetes.
, What is the HbA1c level that indicates prediabetes? - Correct Answer -
An HbA1c level between 5.7% and 6.4% indicates prediabetes.
What is the primary mechanism causing chronic hyperglycemia in Type
1 Diabetes Mellitus? - Correct Answer - The autoimmune destruction of
pancreatic B-cells results in absolute insulin deficiency.
Which hormones are counter-regulatory to insulin? - Correct Answer -
Corticosteroids, glucagon, growth hormone, and catecholamines
promote increased blood glucose levels.
What role does the parasympathetic nervous system play in glucose
regulation after a meal? - Correct Answer - It stimulates B-cells to
release insulin, helping to lower blood glucose levels.
What is the metabolic process that continues unopposed in severe
hyperglycemia in Type 1 Diabetes? - Correct Answer - Gluconeogenesis
continues unopposed, contributing to high glucose levels.
What combination of diagnostic results confirms a transition from
prediabetes to diabetes? - Correct Answer - Fasting glucose of 126
mg/dL or higher, or HbA1c of 6.5% or higher confirms diabetes.
What screening is recommended for a 28-year-old Native American
patient with a BMI of 32? - Correct Answer - Type 2 screening is
recommended due to BMI over 25 and multiple risk factors.
PATHOPHYSIOLOGY FOR NURSES I | 100%
CORRECTLY ANSWERED AND RATED A+ | LATEST
2026/2027 | GALEN
What is anaerobic metabolism?
- Correct Answer - A metabolic process that occurs in the absence of
oxygen, allowing cells to generate energy.
What are free radicals?
- Correct Answer - Highly reactive molecules that can damage cellular
proteins and enzymes, contributing to dysfunction.
What are endorphins and enkephalins?
- Correct Answer - Neurotransmitters released during stress that
decrease pain and increase feelings of euphoria.
What causes reperfusion injury?
- Correct Answer - Calcium overload, formation of free radicals, and
subsequent inflammation contribute to secondary injury.
What mechanisms cause thermal burn injury?
,- Correct Answer - Injury from extreme heat occurs through
vasoconstriction, microvascular coagulation, and direct tissue
destruction.
What type of necrosis is characterized by dead tissue with preserved
architecture?
- Correct Answer - Coagulative necrosis, where dead cardiac tissue is
dissolved by proteolytic enzymes.
What is the latent period in disease progression?
- Correct Answer - A phase where a disease is established but the
patient shows no symptoms.
What are the primary effects of aldosterone?
- Correct Answer - Retention of sodium and water, and vasoconstriction,
which help manage stress-induced hemodynamic changes.
What foundational processes contribute to cellular aging?
- Correct Answer - Cellular and molecular damage from environmental
factors, decline in cell repair ability, and DNA damage.
What are endotoxins?
- Correct Answer - Toxins released from gram-negative bacteria upon
their death, contributing to immune response and inflammation.
What level of disease prevention is exemplified by free screenings?
- Correct Answer - Secondary prevention, aimed at early detection and
intervention.
,What is the relationship between stress exposure and growth hormone
secretion?
- Correct Answer - Acute stress increases growth hormone secretion,
while chronic stress decreases it.
What immediate metabolic response occurs in severe infection for Type
1 Diabetes? - Correct Answer - Increased release of catecholamines and
cortisol, leading to gluconeogenesis and potential hyperglycemia.
What causes polydipsia in diabetes? - Correct Answer - Excess fluid loss
from polyuria leads to dehydration, causing increased thirst.
What actions does Amylin take in glucose control? - Correct Answer -
Inhibits gastric emptying and suppresses glucagon release, contributing
to glucose regulation.
What metabolic adjustment occurs during initial exercise? - Correct
Answer - Release of glucagon and catecholamines promotes lipolysis
and glycogenolysis to meet energy demands.
What differentiates insulin and glucagon in glucose homeostasis? -
Correct Answer - Insulin lowers blood glucose by promoting glucose
uptake, while glucagon raises blood glucose by stimulating glycogen
breakdown.
What fasting glucose level indicates prediabetes? - Correct Answer - A
fasting glucose level between 100 mg/dL and 125 mg/dL indicates
prediabetes.
, What is the HbA1c level that indicates prediabetes? - Correct Answer -
An HbA1c level between 5.7% and 6.4% indicates prediabetes.
What is the primary mechanism causing chronic hyperglycemia in Type
1 Diabetes Mellitus? - Correct Answer - The autoimmune destruction of
pancreatic B-cells results in absolute insulin deficiency.
Which hormones are counter-regulatory to insulin? - Correct Answer -
Corticosteroids, glucagon, growth hormone, and catecholamines
promote increased blood glucose levels.
What role does the parasympathetic nervous system play in glucose
regulation after a meal? - Correct Answer - It stimulates B-cells to
release insulin, helping to lower blood glucose levels.
What is the metabolic process that continues unopposed in severe
hyperglycemia in Type 1 Diabetes? - Correct Answer - Gluconeogenesis
continues unopposed, contributing to high glucose levels.
What combination of diagnostic results confirms a transition from
prediabetes to diabetes? - Correct Answer - Fasting glucose of 126
mg/dL or higher, or HbA1c of 6.5% or higher confirms diabetes.
What screening is recommended for a 28-year-old Native American
patient with a BMI of 32? - Correct Answer - Type 2 screening is
recommended due to BMI over 25 and multiple risk factors.
