NU 578
UNIT 1 EXAM
University of South Alabama.
High-Yield Qs & Verified Answers
with Rationales
This Exam Features:
This document includes 50 high-yield Exam
questions with verified answers and detailed
rationales for Unit 1 of NU 578 at the University of
South Alabama. It is designed to help students quickly review and
reinforce core concepts likely to appear on assessments. The
structured Q&A format supports focused exam preparation and
strengthens clinical reasoning and test-taking skills.
,### Question 1
A patient is receiving methyldopa (Aldomet) for high blood pressure.
When will the Coomb's test be monitored?
A. At the beginning of treatment
B. Prior to treatment
C. At the end of treatment
D. At 6 months
E. B & D
Correct Answer: E. B & D
Expert Rationale:
Methyldopa can induce hemolytic anemia by autoimmune hemolysis; thus, a
Coomb's test should be done prior to treatment to establish a baseline and
around 6 months into therapy to detect hemolysis early. Monitoring only at the
beginning or end is insufficient given delayed autoimmune reactions.
---
### Question 2
To assess the renal function of a 72-year-old, the APN knows to check
which lab value?
A. Urinalysis
B. Creatinine clearance
C. BUN
,D. Creatinine
Correct Answer: B. Creatinine clearance
Expert Rationale:
Creatinine clearance is the most accurate measure of glomerular filtration rate
(GFR) and renal function, especially in the elderly where serum creatinine
alone may underestimate renal impairment due to reduced muscle mass.
---
### Question 3
A patient is taking Clopidogrel to prevent platelet aggregation. He
develops heartburn and begins to take Omeprazole, a proton pump
inhibitor. The NP knows the interaction of the two drugs may result in:
A. A complexation of the two drugs in the gut. The patient should take them 2
hours apart.
B. An elevation of Omeprazole in the blood. Enhanced effects may be seen.
C. An elevation of Clopidogrel in the blood. Enhanced effects may be seen.
D. A decreased effect of the Omeprazole due to metabolic inactivation.
E. A decreased effect of the Clopidogrel due to metabolic inactivation.
Correct Answer: E. A decreased effect of the Clopidogrel due to metabolic
inactivation.
Expert Rationale:
, Omeprazole inhibits CYP2C19, the enzyme responsible for activating
Clopidogrel (a prodrug). This interaction reduces Clopidogrel’s antiplatelet
efficacy, increasing risk for thrombotic events. Timing does not mitigate this
metabolic interaction.
---
### Question 4
A 29-year-old male with peptic ulcer disease is prescribed an
anticholinergic drug. Upon taking his medication, which of the following
assessment findings is most likely?
A. Dilated pupils
B. Hyperactive bowel sounds
C. Bradycardia
D. Drooling
E. Tenesmus
Correct Answer: A. Dilated pupils
Expert Rationale:
Anticholinergic drugs block parasympathetic activity, causing pupil dilation
(mydriasis), decreased secretions (dry mouth, not drooling), decreased bowel
motility (hypoactive sounds), and tachycardia (not bradycardia). Tenesmus is
unrelated.
---
UNIT 1 EXAM
University of South Alabama.
High-Yield Qs & Verified Answers
with Rationales
This Exam Features:
This document includes 50 high-yield Exam
questions with verified answers and detailed
rationales for Unit 1 of NU 578 at the University of
South Alabama. It is designed to help students quickly review and
reinforce core concepts likely to appear on assessments. The
structured Q&A format supports focused exam preparation and
strengthens clinical reasoning and test-taking skills.
,### Question 1
A patient is receiving methyldopa (Aldomet) for high blood pressure.
When will the Coomb's test be monitored?
A. At the beginning of treatment
B. Prior to treatment
C. At the end of treatment
D. At 6 months
E. B & D
Correct Answer: E. B & D
Expert Rationale:
Methyldopa can induce hemolytic anemia by autoimmune hemolysis; thus, a
Coomb's test should be done prior to treatment to establish a baseline and
around 6 months into therapy to detect hemolysis early. Monitoring only at the
beginning or end is insufficient given delayed autoimmune reactions.
---
### Question 2
To assess the renal function of a 72-year-old, the APN knows to check
which lab value?
A. Urinalysis
B. Creatinine clearance
C. BUN
,D. Creatinine
Correct Answer: B. Creatinine clearance
Expert Rationale:
Creatinine clearance is the most accurate measure of glomerular filtration rate
(GFR) and renal function, especially in the elderly where serum creatinine
alone may underestimate renal impairment due to reduced muscle mass.
---
### Question 3
A patient is taking Clopidogrel to prevent platelet aggregation. He
develops heartburn and begins to take Omeprazole, a proton pump
inhibitor. The NP knows the interaction of the two drugs may result in:
A. A complexation of the two drugs in the gut. The patient should take them 2
hours apart.
B. An elevation of Omeprazole in the blood. Enhanced effects may be seen.
C. An elevation of Clopidogrel in the blood. Enhanced effects may be seen.
D. A decreased effect of the Omeprazole due to metabolic inactivation.
E. A decreased effect of the Clopidogrel due to metabolic inactivation.
Correct Answer: E. A decreased effect of the Clopidogrel due to metabolic
inactivation.
Expert Rationale:
, Omeprazole inhibits CYP2C19, the enzyme responsible for activating
Clopidogrel (a prodrug). This interaction reduces Clopidogrel’s antiplatelet
efficacy, increasing risk for thrombotic events. Timing does not mitigate this
metabolic interaction.
---
### Question 4
A 29-year-old male with peptic ulcer disease is prescribed an
anticholinergic drug. Upon taking his medication, which of the following
assessment findings is most likely?
A. Dilated pupils
B. Hyperactive bowel sounds
C. Bradycardia
D. Drooling
E. Tenesmus
Correct Answer: A. Dilated pupils
Expert Rationale:
Anticholinergic drugs block parasympathetic activity, causing pupil dilation
(mydriasis), decreased secretions (dry mouth, not drooling), decreased bowel
motility (hypoactive sounds), and tachycardia (not bradycardia). Tenesmus is
unrelated.
---
