BSN HESI 315 Pharmacology
Exam v1 (New 2026/ 2027 Update)
Questions and Verified Answers
with Rationales|100% Correct|
Grade A- Nightingale
Which client should the nurse identify as being at highest risk for complications during the use of
an opioid analgesic?
A young adult with inflammatory bowel disease.
Rationale:
The principal indication for opioid use is acute pain, and a client with inflammatory bowel
disease is at risk for toxic megacolon or paralytic ileus related to slowed peristalsis, a side effect
of morphine. Adverse effects of morphine do not pose as great a risk for clients with diabetes or a
fracture as for the client with bowel disease.
The healthcare provider prescribes digitalis (Digoxin) for a client diagnosed with heart failure.
Which intervention should the nurse implement prior to administering the digoxin?
Assess the serum potassium level.
Rationale:
Hypokalemia (decreased serum potassium) will precipitate digitalis toxicity in persons receiving
digoxin. The nurse should monitor the client's serum potassium levels. Blood pressure and
respiratory rate will not inform the nurse about potential safety issues with digitalis.
, BSN HESI 315 Pharmacology
Exam v1 (New 2026/ 2027 Update)
Questions and Verified Answers
with Rationales|100% Correct|
Grade A- Nightingale
A client with hyperlipidemia receives a prescription for niacin (Niaspan). Which client teaching
is most important for the nurse to provide?
Expected duration of flushing.
Rationale:
Flushing of the face and neck, lasting up to an hour, is a frequent reason for discontinuing niacin.
Inclusion of this effect in client teaching may promote compliance in taking the medication.
While nutrition tips and managing pruritis are worthwhile instructions to help clients minimize
or cope with normal side effects associated with niacin (Niaspan), flushing is intense and causes
the most concern for the client.
A client who was prescribed atorvastatin (Lipitor) one month ago calls the triage nurse at the
clinic complaining of muscle pain and weakness in his legs. Which statement reflects the correct
drug-specific teaching the nurse should provide to this client?
Make an appointment to see the healthcare provider, because muscle pain may be an indication
of a serious side effect.
Rationale:
Myopathy, suggested by the leg pain and weakness, is a serious, and potentially life-threatening,
complication of Lipitor, and should be evaluated immediately by the healthcare provider.
, BSN HESI 315 Pharmacology
Exam v1 (New 2026/ 2027 Update)
Questions and Verified Answers
with Rationales|100% Correct|
Grade A- Nightingale
An antacid (Maalox) is prescribed for a client with peptic ulcer disease. The nurse knows that the
purpose of this medication is to
maintain a gastric pH of 3.5 or above.
Rationale:
The objective of antacids is to neutralize gastric acids and keep pH of 3.5 or above which is
necessary for pepsinogen inactivity.
Which dosing schedule should the nurse teach the client to observe for a controlled-release
oxycodone prescription?
Every 12 hours.
Rationale:
A controlled-release oxycodone provides long-acting analgesia to relieve moderate to severe
pain, so a dosing schedule of every 12 hours provides the best around-the-clock pain
management. Controlled-release oxycodone is not prescribed for breakthrough pain on a PRN or
as needed schedule. Using a schedule of every 4 to 6 hours may jeopardize patient safety due to
cumulative effects.
, BSN HESI 315 Pharmacology
Exam v1 (New 2026/ 2027 Update)
Questions and Verified Answers
with Rationales|100% Correct|
Grade A- Nightingale
A client with osteoarthritis receives a new prescription for celecoxib (Celebrex) orally for
symptom management. The nurse notes the client is allergic to sulfa. Which action is most
important for the nurse to implement prior to administering the first dose?
Notify the healthcare provider.
Rationale:
Celebrex contains a sulfur molecule, which can lead to an allergic reaction in individuals who are
sensitive to sulfonamides, so the healthcare provider should be notified of the client's allergies.
The nurse is assessing a client who is experiencing anaphylaxis from an insect sting. Which
prescription should the nurse prepare to administer this client?
Epinephrine.
Rationale:
Epinephrine is an adrenergic agent that stimulates beta receptors to increase cardiac automaticity
in cardiac arrest and relax bronchospasms in anaphylaxis. On the ither hand, dopamine is a
vasopressor used to treat clients with shock. Ephedrine causes peripheral vasoconstriction and is
used in the treatment of nasal congestion. Diphenhydramine is an antihistamine decongestant
used in the treatment of mild allergic reactions and motion sickness. Epinephrine is the
medication of choice in treating anaphylaxis.
Exam v1 (New 2026/ 2027 Update)
Questions and Verified Answers
with Rationales|100% Correct|
Grade A- Nightingale
Which client should the nurse identify as being at highest risk for complications during the use of
an opioid analgesic?
A young adult with inflammatory bowel disease.
Rationale:
The principal indication for opioid use is acute pain, and a client with inflammatory bowel
disease is at risk for toxic megacolon or paralytic ileus related to slowed peristalsis, a side effect
of morphine. Adverse effects of morphine do not pose as great a risk for clients with diabetes or a
fracture as for the client with bowel disease.
The healthcare provider prescribes digitalis (Digoxin) for a client diagnosed with heart failure.
Which intervention should the nurse implement prior to administering the digoxin?
Assess the serum potassium level.
Rationale:
Hypokalemia (decreased serum potassium) will precipitate digitalis toxicity in persons receiving
digoxin. The nurse should monitor the client's serum potassium levels. Blood pressure and
respiratory rate will not inform the nurse about potential safety issues with digitalis.
, BSN HESI 315 Pharmacology
Exam v1 (New 2026/ 2027 Update)
Questions and Verified Answers
with Rationales|100% Correct|
Grade A- Nightingale
A client with hyperlipidemia receives a prescription for niacin (Niaspan). Which client teaching
is most important for the nurse to provide?
Expected duration of flushing.
Rationale:
Flushing of the face and neck, lasting up to an hour, is a frequent reason for discontinuing niacin.
Inclusion of this effect in client teaching may promote compliance in taking the medication.
While nutrition tips and managing pruritis are worthwhile instructions to help clients minimize
or cope with normal side effects associated with niacin (Niaspan), flushing is intense and causes
the most concern for the client.
A client who was prescribed atorvastatin (Lipitor) one month ago calls the triage nurse at the
clinic complaining of muscle pain and weakness in his legs. Which statement reflects the correct
drug-specific teaching the nurse should provide to this client?
Make an appointment to see the healthcare provider, because muscle pain may be an indication
of a serious side effect.
Rationale:
Myopathy, suggested by the leg pain and weakness, is a serious, and potentially life-threatening,
complication of Lipitor, and should be evaluated immediately by the healthcare provider.
, BSN HESI 315 Pharmacology
Exam v1 (New 2026/ 2027 Update)
Questions and Verified Answers
with Rationales|100% Correct|
Grade A- Nightingale
An antacid (Maalox) is prescribed for a client with peptic ulcer disease. The nurse knows that the
purpose of this medication is to
maintain a gastric pH of 3.5 or above.
Rationale:
The objective of antacids is to neutralize gastric acids and keep pH of 3.5 or above which is
necessary for pepsinogen inactivity.
Which dosing schedule should the nurse teach the client to observe for a controlled-release
oxycodone prescription?
Every 12 hours.
Rationale:
A controlled-release oxycodone provides long-acting analgesia to relieve moderate to severe
pain, so a dosing schedule of every 12 hours provides the best around-the-clock pain
management. Controlled-release oxycodone is not prescribed for breakthrough pain on a PRN or
as needed schedule. Using a schedule of every 4 to 6 hours may jeopardize patient safety due to
cumulative effects.
, BSN HESI 315 Pharmacology
Exam v1 (New 2026/ 2027 Update)
Questions and Verified Answers
with Rationales|100% Correct|
Grade A- Nightingale
A client with osteoarthritis receives a new prescription for celecoxib (Celebrex) orally for
symptom management. The nurse notes the client is allergic to sulfa. Which action is most
important for the nurse to implement prior to administering the first dose?
Notify the healthcare provider.
Rationale:
Celebrex contains a sulfur molecule, which can lead to an allergic reaction in individuals who are
sensitive to sulfonamides, so the healthcare provider should be notified of the client's allergies.
The nurse is assessing a client who is experiencing anaphylaxis from an insect sting. Which
prescription should the nurse prepare to administer this client?
Epinephrine.
Rationale:
Epinephrine is an adrenergic agent that stimulates beta receptors to increase cardiac automaticity
in cardiac arrest and relax bronchospasms in anaphylaxis. On the ither hand, dopamine is a
vasopressor used to treat clients with shock. Ephedrine causes peripheral vasoconstriction and is
used in the treatment of nasal congestion. Diphenhydramine is an antihistamine decongestant
used in the treatment of mild allergic reactions and motion sickness. Epinephrine is the
medication of choice in treating anaphylaxis.
