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ATI PN COMPREHENSIVE PREDICTOR
EXIT ACTUAL EXAM 2026 -2027 | 180
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED
ANSWERS | ALREADY A GRADED | NEW
AND REVISED
1. A client with chronic heart failure reports increasing
shortness of breath and swelling in the ankles. Which
assessment finding requires the nurse’s immediate
attention?
A. Blood pressure 128/76 mmHg
B. Weight gain of 2 pounds in 1 week
C. Oxygen saturation of 86% on room air
D. Mild dependent edema in both ankles
Rationale: Oxygen saturation of 86% indicates
hypoxemia and requires immediate intervention to
prevent respiratory compromise.
2. A nurse is preparing to administer a new prescription of
digoxin to a client with heart failure. The nurse notes the
client’s apical pulse is 52 beats/min. What is the most
appropriate action?
A. Administer the medication and document
B. Hold the medication and notify the healthcare
provider
C. Administer half the dose and reassess in 1 hour
D. Give the medication with food to prevent nausea
Rationale: Digoxin can cause bradycardia. Holding the
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dose and notifying the provider prevents potential cardiac
complications.
3. A client is newly diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus.
Which statement indicates the client understands dietary
management?
A. "I will avoid all carbohydrates completely."
B. "I will focus on balanced meals with controlled
portions of carbohydrates."
C. "I only need to monitor sugar in desserts."
D. "Skipping meals will help lower my blood sugar."
Rationale: Clients should consume balanced meals with
consistent carbohydrate intake; total avoidance or
skipping meals is unsafe.
4. A nurse receives a telephone order from a provider for a
client’s new antibiotic. Which action is required by law
before administering the medication?
A. Administer the medication immediately
B. Ask the client to confirm the prescription
C. Repeat the order back to the provider for
verification
D. Document the order without verification
Rationale: The Joint Commission requires read-back
verification of telephone or verbal orders to prevent
errors.
5. A client is scheduled for surgery and asks about fasting.
Which response demonstrates correct preoperative
teaching?
A. "You can drink clear liquids up until 1 hour before
surgery."
B. "Eating a light snack is fine before surgery."
C. "You should not eat or drink anything after
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midnight before surgery."
D. "You only need to avoid dairy products before surgery."
Rationale: NPO after midnight reduces the risk of
aspiration during anesthesia.
6. A nurse is caring for a client with chronic kidney disease
who is on a fluid-restricted diet. The client asks for 250 mL
of juice. The nurse should:
A. Offer the juice without counting it toward fluid intake
B. Allow the juice and record it as part of total fluid
intake
C. Refuse and do not provide fluids
D. Substitute the juice with ice chips
Rationale: All fluids must be accounted for in fluid-
restricted diets to prevent fluid overload.
7. A client with COPD is using a home oxygen concentrator.
Which statement by the client indicates a need for further
teaching?
A. "I should keep the nasal cannula in place while
sleeping."
B. "I will clean the tubing weekly."
C. "I can smoke as long as I am careful."
D. "I will keep oxygen away from open flames."
Rationale: Oxygen is highly flammable, and clients must
avoid smoking to prevent fire hazards.
8. A nurse is evaluating a client who received morphine 30
minutes ago. The client’s respiratory rate is 8 breaths/min,
and the oxygen saturation is 89%. What is the priority
action?
A. Encourage deep breathing
B. Administer naloxone as prescribed and support
ventilation
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C. Document the findings and reassess in 30 minutes
D. Place the client in Trendelenburg position
Rationale: Morphine overdose can depress respiration.
Naloxone is the antidote and immediate intervention is
critical.
9. A client reports sudden onset of right-sided weakness and
slurred speech. Which action should the nurse take first?
A. Notify the provider
B. Assess airway, breathing, and circulation (ABCs)
C. Prepare the client for a CT scan
D. Check blood glucose
Rationale: ABCs take priority in acute neurological
events to prevent life-threatening complications.
10. A nurse is providing discharge teaching for a client
prescribed warfarin. Which statement indicates the client
understands dietary precautions?
A. "I can take as much vitamin K as I like."
B. "I will maintain a consistent intake of green leafy
vegetables."
C. "I should avoid all protein-rich foods."
D. "I only need to monitor salt intake."
Rationale: Vitamin K intake should be consistent to
prevent fluctuations in warfarin effectiveness and
bleeding risk.
11. A client with a history of peptic ulcer disease presents
with coffee-ground emesis. Which action should the nurse
take first?
A. Start an IV infusion of normal saline
B. Assess vital signs and hemodynamic status
C. Prepare the client for an endoscopy
D. Administer antacids
ATI PN COMPREHENSIVE PREDICTOR
EXIT ACTUAL EXAM 2026 -2027 | 180
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED
ANSWERS | ALREADY A GRADED | NEW
AND REVISED
1. A client with chronic heart failure reports increasing
shortness of breath and swelling in the ankles. Which
assessment finding requires the nurse’s immediate
attention?
A. Blood pressure 128/76 mmHg
B. Weight gain of 2 pounds in 1 week
C. Oxygen saturation of 86% on room air
D. Mild dependent edema in both ankles
Rationale: Oxygen saturation of 86% indicates
hypoxemia and requires immediate intervention to
prevent respiratory compromise.
2. A nurse is preparing to administer a new prescription of
digoxin to a client with heart failure. The nurse notes the
client’s apical pulse is 52 beats/min. What is the most
appropriate action?
A. Administer the medication and document
B. Hold the medication and notify the healthcare
provider
C. Administer half the dose and reassess in 1 hour
D. Give the medication with food to prevent nausea
Rationale: Digoxin can cause bradycardia. Holding the
,2|Page
dose and notifying the provider prevents potential cardiac
complications.
3. A client is newly diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus.
Which statement indicates the client understands dietary
management?
A. "I will avoid all carbohydrates completely."
B. "I will focus on balanced meals with controlled
portions of carbohydrates."
C. "I only need to monitor sugar in desserts."
D. "Skipping meals will help lower my blood sugar."
Rationale: Clients should consume balanced meals with
consistent carbohydrate intake; total avoidance or
skipping meals is unsafe.
4. A nurse receives a telephone order from a provider for a
client’s new antibiotic. Which action is required by law
before administering the medication?
A. Administer the medication immediately
B. Ask the client to confirm the prescription
C. Repeat the order back to the provider for
verification
D. Document the order without verification
Rationale: The Joint Commission requires read-back
verification of telephone or verbal orders to prevent
errors.
5. A client is scheduled for surgery and asks about fasting.
Which response demonstrates correct preoperative
teaching?
A. "You can drink clear liquids up until 1 hour before
surgery."
B. "Eating a light snack is fine before surgery."
C. "You should not eat or drink anything after
,3|Page
midnight before surgery."
D. "You only need to avoid dairy products before surgery."
Rationale: NPO after midnight reduces the risk of
aspiration during anesthesia.
6. A nurse is caring for a client with chronic kidney disease
who is on a fluid-restricted diet. The client asks for 250 mL
of juice. The nurse should:
A. Offer the juice without counting it toward fluid intake
B. Allow the juice and record it as part of total fluid
intake
C. Refuse and do not provide fluids
D. Substitute the juice with ice chips
Rationale: All fluids must be accounted for in fluid-
restricted diets to prevent fluid overload.
7. A client with COPD is using a home oxygen concentrator.
Which statement by the client indicates a need for further
teaching?
A. "I should keep the nasal cannula in place while
sleeping."
B. "I will clean the tubing weekly."
C. "I can smoke as long as I am careful."
D. "I will keep oxygen away from open flames."
Rationale: Oxygen is highly flammable, and clients must
avoid smoking to prevent fire hazards.
8. A nurse is evaluating a client who received morphine 30
minutes ago. The client’s respiratory rate is 8 breaths/min,
and the oxygen saturation is 89%. What is the priority
action?
A. Encourage deep breathing
B. Administer naloxone as prescribed and support
ventilation
, 4|Page
C. Document the findings and reassess in 30 minutes
D. Place the client in Trendelenburg position
Rationale: Morphine overdose can depress respiration.
Naloxone is the antidote and immediate intervention is
critical.
9. A client reports sudden onset of right-sided weakness and
slurred speech. Which action should the nurse take first?
A. Notify the provider
B. Assess airway, breathing, and circulation (ABCs)
C. Prepare the client for a CT scan
D. Check blood glucose
Rationale: ABCs take priority in acute neurological
events to prevent life-threatening complications.
10. A nurse is providing discharge teaching for a client
prescribed warfarin. Which statement indicates the client
understands dietary precautions?
A. "I can take as much vitamin K as I like."
B. "I will maintain a consistent intake of green leafy
vegetables."
C. "I should avoid all protein-rich foods."
D. "I only need to monitor salt intake."
Rationale: Vitamin K intake should be consistent to
prevent fluctuations in warfarin effectiveness and
bleeding risk.
11. A client with a history of peptic ulcer disease presents
with coffee-ground emesis. Which action should the nurse
take first?
A. Start an IV infusion of normal saline
B. Assess vital signs and hemodynamic status
C. Prepare the client for an endoscopy
D. Administer antacids
