NURS 511 CHARMBERLAIN UNIVERSITY MIDTERM AND FINAL EXAM
REVIEW AND BEST PRACTICE 100 QUESTIONS AND CORRECT
ANSWERS 2026 LATEST EDITION GUARANTEE A+ GRADE
1. Janet is a 30-year-old woman who has been recently diagnosed with a herniated disc at the level of
L5-S1. She is currently in the emergency room with suspicion of cauda equina compression. Which of
the following is a sign or symptom of cauda equina compression?
A. Gastrocnemius weakness
B. Reduced or absent ankle reflex
C. Numbness of the lateral foot
D. Paresthesia of the perineum and buttocks
Answer: D
Rationale: Saddle anesthesia or paresthesia in the perineal and buttock region is a hallmark sign of
cauda equina compression, requiring urgent intervention.
2. The patient has acute pancreatitis with 7 of the diagnostic criteria from Ranson's Criteria. In order
to plan care, the clinician understands that this criteria score has which of the following meanings?
A. A high mortality rate
B. An increased chance of recurrence
C. 7% chance of the disease becoming chronic
D. All of the above
Answer: A
Rationale: A Ranson score of 7 indicates severe pancreatitis with a high risk of mortality; it guides
intensity of care and monitoring.
3. Reuben, age 24, has HIV and just had a routine viral load test done. The results show a falling viral
load. What does this indicate?
A. A favorable diagnostic trend
B. Disease progression
C. The need to be more aggressive with Reuben's medications
D. The eradication of the HIV
Answer: A
Rationale: A declining viral load indicates effective antiretroviral therapy and disease control.
4. Which is the differentiating symptom between labyrinthitis and vestibular neuritis?
A. Symptoms with vestibular neuritis are usually acute in onset, whereas with labyrinthitis the onset is
more gradual
B. Hearing loss may be associated with vestibular neuritis, but not with labyrinthitis
C. Symptoms with labyrinthitis are usually acute in onset, whereas with vestibular neuritis the onset is
,more gradual
D. Hearing loss may be associated with labyrinthitis, but not with vestibular neuritis
Answer: D
Rationale: Labyrinthitis affects both balance and hearing, whereas vestibular neuritis typically affects
only balance.
5. The clinician has instructed Sam, a 25-year-old patient with low back strain, to use NSAIDs to
manage his symptoms of pain and discomfort. Which of the following statements would be most
appropriate when teaching Sam about the use of NSAIDs to manage his pain?
A. You should start with the lowest dose that is effective in managing your pain because long-term use
of NSAIDs can result in gastrointestinal (GI) disorders such as ulcers and hemorrhage
B. You should start with the lowest dose that is effective in managing your pain in order to avoid
developing tolerance to the medication
C. You should take the maximum recommended dose of NSAIDs so that you will not need to take
narcotics to control your pain
D. None of the above
Answer: A
Rationale: Using the lowest effective dose minimizes risk of GI bleeding, ulcers, and other complications
of chronic NSAID use.
6. Which of the following patients are at risk for developing urinary tract cancer?
A. The 45-year-old woman who is 100 pounds overweight
B. The 78-year-old man who smokes three packs of cigarettes a day
C. The 84-year-old man who worked in the asbestos mines
D. All of the above
Answer: D
Rationale: Obesity, smoking, and exposure to carcinogens such as asbestos are known risk factors for
urinary tract cancers.
7. The clinician is caring for Diane, a 22-year-old woman who presents with an injured ankle. Which of
the following clues in Diane’s exam or history would alert the clinician to the need for obtaining
radiographs?
A. If she was not able to bear weight immediately after the injury
B. If the ankle developed marked swelling and discoloration after the injury
C. If crepitation occurs with palpation or movement of the ankle
D. All of the above
Answer: D
Rationale: Inability to bear weight, marked swelling, and crepitus are red flags for fractures requiring
radiographic evaluation.
, 8. A patient is seen with a sudden onset of flank pain accompanied by nausea, vomiting, and
diaphoresis. In addition to nephrolithiasis, which of the following should be added to the list of
differential diagnoses?
A. Pancreatitis
B. Peptic ulcer disease
C. Diverticulitis
D. All of the above
Answer: D
Rationale: Acute flank pain with systemic symptoms can be caused by multiple abdominal or renal
pathologies, so broad differential diagnosis is necessary.
9. Acute angle-closure glaucoma involves a sudden severe rise in intraocular pressure. Which of the
following ranges represents normal intraocular pressure?
A. 0 to 7 mmHg
B. 8 to 21 mmHg
C. 22 to 40 mmHg
D. 40–80 mmHg
Answer: B
Rationale: Normal intraocular pressure ranges between 8–21 mmHg; higher readings indicate ocular
hypertension or glaucoma.
10. A 28-year-old patient is seen with complaints of diarrhea. Which of the following questions would
help the clinician establish the diagnosis of irritable bowel syndrome (IBS)?
A. Feels relief after a bowel movement
B. Sometimes is constipated
C. Does not defecate in the middle of the night
D. All of the above
Answer: D
Rationale: Relief after defecation, alternating bowel habits, and absence of nocturnal symptoms are key
diagnostic features of IBS.
11. The presence of hairy leukoplakia in a person with no other symptoms of immune suppression is
strongly suggestive of which type of infection?
A. HSV Type 2
B. HIV
C. Pneumonia
D. Syphilis
Answer: B
REVIEW AND BEST PRACTICE 100 QUESTIONS AND CORRECT
ANSWERS 2026 LATEST EDITION GUARANTEE A+ GRADE
1. Janet is a 30-year-old woman who has been recently diagnosed with a herniated disc at the level of
L5-S1. She is currently in the emergency room with suspicion of cauda equina compression. Which of
the following is a sign or symptom of cauda equina compression?
A. Gastrocnemius weakness
B. Reduced or absent ankle reflex
C. Numbness of the lateral foot
D. Paresthesia of the perineum and buttocks
Answer: D
Rationale: Saddle anesthesia or paresthesia in the perineal and buttock region is a hallmark sign of
cauda equina compression, requiring urgent intervention.
2. The patient has acute pancreatitis with 7 of the diagnostic criteria from Ranson's Criteria. In order
to plan care, the clinician understands that this criteria score has which of the following meanings?
A. A high mortality rate
B. An increased chance of recurrence
C. 7% chance of the disease becoming chronic
D. All of the above
Answer: A
Rationale: A Ranson score of 7 indicates severe pancreatitis with a high risk of mortality; it guides
intensity of care and monitoring.
3. Reuben, age 24, has HIV and just had a routine viral load test done. The results show a falling viral
load. What does this indicate?
A. A favorable diagnostic trend
B. Disease progression
C. The need to be more aggressive with Reuben's medications
D. The eradication of the HIV
Answer: A
Rationale: A declining viral load indicates effective antiretroviral therapy and disease control.
4. Which is the differentiating symptom between labyrinthitis and vestibular neuritis?
A. Symptoms with vestibular neuritis are usually acute in onset, whereas with labyrinthitis the onset is
more gradual
B. Hearing loss may be associated with vestibular neuritis, but not with labyrinthitis
C. Symptoms with labyrinthitis are usually acute in onset, whereas with vestibular neuritis the onset is
,more gradual
D. Hearing loss may be associated with labyrinthitis, but not with vestibular neuritis
Answer: D
Rationale: Labyrinthitis affects both balance and hearing, whereas vestibular neuritis typically affects
only balance.
5. The clinician has instructed Sam, a 25-year-old patient with low back strain, to use NSAIDs to
manage his symptoms of pain and discomfort. Which of the following statements would be most
appropriate when teaching Sam about the use of NSAIDs to manage his pain?
A. You should start with the lowest dose that is effective in managing your pain because long-term use
of NSAIDs can result in gastrointestinal (GI) disorders such as ulcers and hemorrhage
B. You should start with the lowest dose that is effective in managing your pain in order to avoid
developing tolerance to the medication
C. You should take the maximum recommended dose of NSAIDs so that you will not need to take
narcotics to control your pain
D. None of the above
Answer: A
Rationale: Using the lowest effective dose minimizes risk of GI bleeding, ulcers, and other complications
of chronic NSAID use.
6. Which of the following patients are at risk for developing urinary tract cancer?
A. The 45-year-old woman who is 100 pounds overweight
B. The 78-year-old man who smokes three packs of cigarettes a day
C. The 84-year-old man who worked in the asbestos mines
D. All of the above
Answer: D
Rationale: Obesity, smoking, and exposure to carcinogens such as asbestos are known risk factors for
urinary tract cancers.
7. The clinician is caring for Diane, a 22-year-old woman who presents with an injured ankle. Which of
the following clues in Diane’s exam or history would alert the clinician to the need for obtaining
radiographs?
A. If she was not able to bear weight immediately after the injury
B. If the ankle developed marked swelling and discoloration after the injury
C. If crepitation occurs with palpation or movement of the ankle
D. All of the above
Answer: D
Rationale: Inability to bear weight, marked swelling, and crepitus are red flags for fractures requiring
radiographic evaluation.
, 8. A patient is seen with a sudden onset of flank pain accompanied by nausea, vomiting, and
diaphoresis. In addition to nephrolithiasis, which of the following should be added to the list of
differential diagnoses?
A. Pancreatitis
B. Peptic ulcer disease
C. Diverticulitis
D. All of the above
Answer: D
Rationale: Acute flank pain with systemic symptoms can be caused by multiple abdominal or renal
pathologies, so broad differential diagnosis is necessary.
9. Acute angle-closure glaucoma involves a sudden severe rise in intraocular pressure. Which of the
following ranges represents normal intraocular pressure?
A. 0 to 7 mmHg
B. 8 to 21 mmHg
C. 22 to 40 mmHg
D. 40–80 mmHg
Answer: B
Rationale: Normal intraocular pressure ranges between 8–21 mmHg; higher readings indicate ocular
hypertension or glaucoma.
10. A 28-year-old patient is seen with complaints of diarrhea. Which of the following questions would
help the clinician establish the diagnosis of irritable bowel syndrome (IBS)?
A. Feels relief after a bowel movement
B. Sometimes is constipated
C. Does not defecate in the middle of the night
D. All of the above
Answer: D
Rationale: Relief after defecation, alternating bowel habits, and absence of nocturnal symptoms are key
diagnostic features of IBS.
11. The presence of hairy leukoplakia in a person with no other symptoms of immune suppression is
strongly suggestive of which type of infection?
A. HSV Type 2
B. HIV
C. Pneumonia
D. Syphilis
Answer: B
