NURSING HEALTH ASS APEA TB 2 Exam Questions and
Answers 100%correct/verified Rated A+ new update 2026
Question:
What is the recommendation of American Cancer Society for initial screening of
an African-American male for prostate cancer?
Digital rectal exam starting at age 40 yearsPSA starting at age 45
yearsDiscussions starting at age 40-45 years CorrectHe should be screened
starting at age 50 years.
Explanation:
American Cancer Society guidelines recommend beginning screening discussion
at age 40-45 years for males at high risk for developing prostate cancer (e.g. a
first degree relative with prostate cancer before age 65 or African American
race). The reason for “screening discussions” is to keep males involved in
individual decision making. The PSA threshold is 4.0 ng/mL. Testing is
discouraged for males with less than a 10 year expected survival. US Preventive
Services Task Force does not recommend screening.
Question:
What is American Cancer Society’s recommendation for prostate screening in a 70 year-old mal
He should be screened annually with PSA only.He should be screened annually
with PSA and DRE.He should be screened until he has a life expectancy of less
than 10 years. CorrectScreening can stop at age 75 years.
Explanation:
Prostate cancer screening at age 70 years includes both prostate specific
antigen measurement (PSA) and digital rectal exam (DRE). Prostate cancer is
typically a slow growing tumor, thus if life expectancy is < 10 years, screening is
not cost-effective.
Question:
A 70 year-old male presents to your clinic with a lump in his breast. How should
this be evaluated? Palpation and ultrasound IncorrectMammogram and
ultrasound CorrectUltrasound onlyMammogram only
Explanation:
,This patient has a lump identified in the breast. Since males can develop breast
cancer, it must be evaluated in the same means that a female breast lump would
be evaluated. He should have a clinical breast exam to identify the position of
the lump, and any other abnormal findings such as nodes or other lumps. Then,
he should have mammogram and ultrasound to help evaluate the lump. If the
findings were suspicious for a malignancy, the patient would be referred to a
surgeon.
Question:
A 22 year-old male who is otherwise healthy complains of scrotal pain. His pain
has developed over the past 4 days. He is diagnosed with epididymitis. What is
the most likely reason?
His ageInfection with Chlamydia CorrectUnderlying hydroceleUrinary tract infection
Explanation:
Several factors predispose males to epididymitis. In men under age 35, the
most common cause of epididymitis is infection with Chlamydia trachomatis. In
older men, urinary tract pathogens are more typical. In pre-pubertal boys,
bicycle riding and heavy physical exertion are most common. In pre-pubertal
boys, consideration should be given to congenital abnormalities.
Question:
Digital rectal exam may be performed to assess the prostate gland. Which term
does NOT describe a prostate gland that may have a tumor?
NodularAsymmetricalBoggy CorrectIndurated
Explanation:
A boggy prostate describes a gland that is edematous and tender, such as is
seen in a patient with bacterial prostatitis. The other terms indicate an
abnormality that could represent a prostate gland tumor.
Question:
A male patient has epididymitis. His most likely complaint will be:
2|Pa
,burning with urination.testicular pain.scrotal pain. Correctpenile discharge.
Explanation:
The most common complaint is scrotal pain. It usually develops over a period
of days. Occasionally, it develops acutely and will be accompanied by fever,
chills, and a very ill-appearing patient. Burning with urination is possible if the
underlying cause is a urinary tract infection, but, this is not usual. This
presentation is seen more commonly in older males. Testicular pain is not a
common complaint with epididymitis. Penile discharge would not indicate an
infection in the epididymis since the epididymis is a tightly coiled tubular
structure located on the testis.
Question:
What is the recommendation of American Cancer Society for screening an
average risk 40 year-old Caucasian male for prostate cancer?
Digital rectal examSerum prostate specific antigen (PSA)Digital rectal exam and
PSAHe should be screened starting at age 50 years. Correct
Explanation:
American Cancer Society recommends initial prostate screening of an average
risk male at age 50 years with PSA testing with or without digital rectal exam.
If the initial PSA is < 2.5 ng/mL, the screen can be repeated in 2 years. If the
PSA is > 2.5, annual screening should take place.
Question:
Which of the following results in a clinically insignificant increase in the
prostate specific antigen (PSA)? Digital rectal exam CorrectEjaculationProstatitis
IncorrectProstate biopsy
Explanation:
Digital rectal exam (DRE) leads to a clinically insignificant increase of 0.26-
0.4 ng/ml for about 48-72 hours afterwards. Prostate biopsy increases the
PSA about 8 ng/ml for up to 4 weeks following biopsy. Prostate infection and
ejaculation both can increase the PSA levels.
3|Pa
, Question:
Hesselbach’s triangle forms the landmark for:
inguinal hernia. Correctfemoral hernia.abdominal hernia.umbilical hernia.
Explanation:
Direct inguinal hernias occur through Hesselbach’s triangle. The inguinal
ligament, the rectus muscle, and the epigastric vessels form the triangle. When
there is a weakness in the floor of the inguinal canal, a hernia can result.
Inguinal hernias are the most common groin hernias in men and women. Repair
of this is the most common surgical procedure performed in the US.
Question:
Which of the following medications should be avoided in a 65 year-old male
with benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)?
Doxazosin IncorrectCiprofloxacinPseudoephedrine CorrectPropanolol
Explanation:
Nasal decongestants like pseudoephedrine should be avoided in men with BPH.
These will increase the urge to urinate. Urinary frequency is a bothersome
symptom of males with BPH. Medications that are known to impair urination are
muscle relaxants, narcotics, tricyclic antidepressants such as amitriptyline, and
medications with anticholinergic properties such as antihistamines.
Question:
A localized tumor in the prostate gland associated with early stage prostate
cancer is likely to produce: urinary hesitancy. Incorrectlow back pain.urinary
frequency.an absence of symptoms. Correct
Explanation:
Localized tumors associated with early stage prostate cancer usually produce
no symptoms or clinical manifestations. Occasionally, localized tumors produce
UTI symptoms, nocturia, daytime voiding frequency, and diminished force of
urinary stream. These symptoms are common with benign prostatic
4|Pa
Answers 100%correct/verified Rated A+ new update 2026
Question:
What is the recommendation of American Cancer Society for initial screening of
an African-American male for prostate cancer?
Digital rectal exam starting at age 40 yearsPSA starting at age 45
yearsDiscussions starting at age 40-45 years CorrectHe should be screened
starting at age 50 years.
Explanation:
American Cancer Society guidelines recommend beginning screening discussion
at age 40-45 years for males at high risk for developing prostate cancer (e.g. a
first degree relative with prostate cancer before age 65 or African American
race). The reason for “screening discussions” is to keep males involved in
individual decision making. The PSA threshold is 4.0 ng/mL. Testing is
discouraged for males with less than a 10 year expected survival. US Preventive
Services Task Force does not recommend screening.
Question:
What is American Cancer Society’s recommendation for prostate screening in a 70 year-old mal
He should be screened annually with PSA only.He should be screened annually
with PSA and DRE.He should be screened until he has a life expectancy of less
than 10 years. CorrectScreening can stop at age 75 years.
Explanation:
Prostate cancer screening at age 70 years includes both prostate specific
antigen measurement (PSA) and digital rectal exam (DRE). Prostate cancer is
typically a slow growing tumor, thus if life expectancy is < 10 years, screening is
not cost-effective.
Question:
A 70 year-old male presents to your clinic with a lump in his breast. How should
this be evaluated? Palpation and ultrasound IncorrectMammogram and
ultrasound CorrectUltrasound onlyMammogram only
Explanation:
,This patient has a lump identified in the breast. Since males can develop breast
cancer, it must be evaluated in the same means that a female breast lump would
be evaluated. He should have a clinical breast exam to identify the position of
the lump, and any other abnormal findings such as nodes or other lumps. Then,
he should have mammogram and ultrasound to help evaluate the lump. If the
findings were suspicious for a malignancy, the patient would be referred to a
surgeon.
Question:
A 22 year-old male who is otherwise healthy complains of scrotal pain. His pain
has developed over the past 4 days. He is diagnosed with epididymitis. What is
the most likely reason?
His ageInfection with Chlamydia CorrectUnderlying hydroceleUrinary tract infection
Explanation:
Several factors predispose males to epididymitis. In men under age 35, the
most common cause of epididymitis is infection with Chlamydia trachomatis. In
older men, urinary tract pathogens are more typical. In pre-pubertal boys,
bicycle riding and heavy physical exertion are most common. In pre-pubertal
boys, consideration should be given to congenital abnormalities.
Question:
Digital rectal exam may be performed to assess the prostate gland. Which term
does NOT describe a prostate gland that may have a tumor?
NodularAsymmetricalBoggy CorrectIndurated
Explanation:
A boggy prostate describes a gland that is edematous and tender, such as is
seen in a patient with bacterial prostatitis. The other terms indicate an
abnormality that could represent a prostate gland tumor.
Question:
A male patient has epididymitis. His most likely complaint will be:
2|Pa
,burning with urination.testicular pain.scrotal pain. Correctpenile discharge.
Explanation:
The most common complaint is scrotal pain. It usually develops over a period
of days. Occasionally, it develops acutely and will be accompanied by fever,
chills, and a very ill-appearing patient. Burning with urination is possible if the
underlying cause is a urinary tract infection, but, this is not usual. This
presentation is seen more commonly in older males. Testicular pain is not a
common complaint with epididymitis. Penile discharge would not indicate an
infection in the epididymis since the epididymis is a tightly coiled tubular
structure located on the testis.
Question:
What is the recommendation of American Cancer Society for screening an
average risk 40 year-old Caucasian male for prostate cancer?
Digital rectal examSerum prostate specific antigen (PSA)Digital rectal exam and
PSAHe should be screened starting at age 50 years. Correct
Explanation:
American Cancer Society recommends initial prostate screening of an average
risk male at age 50 years with PSA testing with or without digital rectal exam.
If the initial PSA is < 2.5 ng/mL, the screen can be repeated in 2 years. If the
PSA is > 2.5, annual screening should take place.
Question:
Which of the following results in a clinically insignificant increase in the
prostate specific antigen (PSA)? Digital rectal exam CorrectEjaculationProstatitis
IncorrectProstate biopsy
Explanation:
Digital rectal exam (DRE) leads to a clinically insignificant increase of 0.26-
0.4 ng/ml for about 48-72 hours afterwards. Prostate biopsy increases the
PSA about 8 ng/ml for up to 4 weeks following biopsy. Prostate infection and
ejaculation both can increase the PSA levels.
3|Pa
, Question:
Hesselbach’s triangle forms the landmark for:
inguinal hernia. Correctfemoral hernia.abdominal hernia.umbilical hernia.
Explanation:
Direct inguinal hernias occur through Hesselbach’s triangle. The inguinal
ligament, the rectus muscle, and the epigastric vessels form the triangle. When
there is a weakness in the floor of the inguinal canal, a hernia can result.
Inguinal hernias are the most common groin hernias in men and women. Repair
of this is the most common surgical procedure performed in the US.
Question:
Which of the following medications should be avoided in a 65 year-old male
with benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)?
Doxazosin IncorrectCiprofloxacinPseudoephedrine CorrectPropanolol
Explanation:
Nasal decongestants like pseudoephedrine should be avoided in men with BPH.
These will increase the urge to urinate. Urinary frequency is a bothersome
symptom of males with BPH. Medications that are known to impair urination are
muscle relaxants, narcotics, tricyclic antidepressants such as amitriptyline, and
medications with anticholinergic properties such as antihistamines.
Question:
A localized tumor in the prostate gland associated with early stage prostate
cancer is likely to produce: urinary hesitancy. Incorrectlow back pain.urinary
frequency.an absence of symptoms. Correct
Explanation:
Localized tumors associated with early stage prostate cancer usually produce
no symptoms or clinical manifestations. Occasionally, localized tumors produce
UTI symptoms, nocturia, daytime voiding frequency, and diminished force of
urinary stream. These symptoms are common with benign prostatic
4|Pa
