ATI PN COMPREHENSIVE PREDICTOR ACTUAL
2025”2026 EXAM REVIEW 150 QUESTIONS AND
CORRECT ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES ALREADY
GRADED A+
1. A nurse is caring for a client who has heart failure and is experiencing
dyspnea. Which action should the nurse take first?
☑ A. Elevate the head of the bed
☐ B. Administer a prescribed diuretic
☐ C. Monitor oxygen saturation
☐ D. Call the provider
Rationale: Elevating the head of the bed relieves respiratory distress immediately, addressing
the most urgent symptom first.
2. A client is prescribed furosemide. Which electrolyte imbalance should the
nurse monitor for?
☑ A. Hypokalemia
☐ B. Hypernatremia
☐ C. Hypercalcemia
☐ D. Hypermagnesemia
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that causes potassium loss, so monitoring for
hypokalemia is critical.
3. A nurse is teaching a client about a new prescription for warfarin. Which
statement indicates understanding?
☑ A. “I will have my blood tested regularly.”
☐ B. “I can stop the medication if I feel fine.”
☐ C. “I will take it only on days I exercise.”
⛔ D. “I should take extra vitamin K if I feel weak.”
Rationale: Regular INR testing ensures therapeutic anticoagulation and prevents bleeding
complications.
,4. A client with type 1 diabetes is experiencing hypoglycemia. Which action
should the nurse take first?
☑ A. Give 15 g of fast-acting carbohydrate
☐ B. Administer insulin
☐ C. Check blood pressure
☐ D. Call the provider
Rationale: Treating hypoglycemia promptly prevents severe complications; fast-acting
carbohydrates raise blood glucose quickly.
5. A nurse is preparing to administer a blood transfusion. Which action is a
priority?
☑ A. Verify client identity and blood product compatibility
☐ B. Start the transfusion immediately
☐ C. Administer premedication without verification
☐ D. Document after transfusion only
Rationale: Verification prevents potentially life-threatening transfusion reactions.
6. A client has COPD and is receiving oxygen at 2 L/min via nasal cannula.
Which action should the nurse take?
☑ A. Monitor for signs of carbon dioxide retention
☐ B. Increase oxygen to 6 L/min
☐ C. Discontinue oxygen
☐ D. Administer a bronchodilator immediately
Rationale: COPD clients are at risk for hypercapnia; monitoring CO₂ levels is essential.
7. A client is receiving morphine for postoperative pain. Which side effect should
the nurse monitor for?
☑ A. Respiratory depression
☐ B. Hypertension
☐ C. Tachycardia
☐ D. Hyperactivity
Rationale: Morphine can suppress respiration, making monitoring for respiratory depression a
priority.
,8. A nurse is caring for a client with newly diagnosed hypertension. Which
lifestyle modification should the nurse teach?
☑ A. Reduce sodium intake
☐ B. Increase alcohol consumption
☐ C. Avoid exercise
☐ D. Increase saturated fats
Rationale: Reducing sodium helps lower blood pressure and prevent complications.
9. A client reports shortness of breath and swelling in the legs. Which diagnostic
test is most appropriate to assess for heart failure?
☑ A. Echocardiogram
☐ B. Chest X-ray
☐ C. Complete blood count
☐ D. Electroencephalogram
Rationale: An echocardiogram evaluates cardiac function and ejection fraction, confirming heart
failure.
10. A nurse is caring for a client with a nasogastric tube. Which action prevents
aspiration?
☑ A. Elevate the head of the bed to 30–45 degrees
☐ B. Lay the client flat
☐ C. Increase tube feeding rate rapidly
☐ D. Disconnect suction intermittently
Rationale: Elevating the head reduces the risk of reflux and aspiration during feeding.
11. Which intervention is priority for a client with neutropenia?
☑ A. Implement strict hand hygiene and infection precautions
☐ B. Administer a broad-spectrum antibiotic immediately
☐ C. Encourage visitors to bring flowers
☐ D. Allow unrestricted room access
, Rationale: Neutropenic clients are highly susceptible to infection; prevention is the primary
priority.
12. A client is receiving IV potassium. Which nursing action is essential?
☑ A. Monitor the IV site for infiltration
☐ B. Administer as a rapid bolus
☐ C. Give without diluting
☐ D. Skip cardiac monitoring
Rationale: IV potassium can irritate veins and cause arrhythmias; infiltration and cardiac
monitoring are essential.
13. A nurse is caring for a client with acute pancreatitis. Which lab result should
the nurse expect?
☑ A. Elevated serum amylase and lipase
☐ B. Decreased liver enzymes
☐ C. Decreased glucose
☐ D. Elevated platelets
Rationale: Pancreatic inflammation causes elevated digestive enzymes in the blood.
14. A client is experiencing hypovolemic shock. Which finding is priority to
report?
☑ A. Systolic BP 80 mmHg
☐ B. Mild thirst
☐ C. Dry lips
☐ D. Slight anxiety
Rationale: Hypotension indicates inadequate perfusion and requires immediate intervention.
15. Which action should a nurse take for a client receiving TPN via central line?
☑ A. Monitor blood glucose every 4–6 hours
☐ B. Clamp the line every hour
☐ C. Administer without filter
2025”2026 EXAM REVIEW 150 QUESTIONS AND
CORRECT ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES ALREADY
GRADED A+
1. A nurse is caring for a client who has heart failure and is experiencing
dyspnea. Which action should the nurse take first?
☑ A. Elevate the head of the bed
☐ B. Administer a prescribed diuretic
☐ C. Monitor oxygen saturation
☐ D. Call the provider
Rationale: Elevating the head of the bed relieves respiratory distress immediately, addressing
the most urgent symptom first.
2. A client is prescribed furosemide. Which electrolyte imbalance should the
nurse monitor for?
☑ A. Hypokalemia
☐ B. Hypernatremia
☐ C. Hypercalcemia
☐ D. Hypermagnesemia
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that causes potassium loss, so monitoring for
hypokalemia is critical.
3. A nurse is teaching a client about a new prescription for warfarin. Which
statement indicates understanding?
☑ A. “I will have my blood tested regularly.”
☐ B. “I can stop the medication if I feel fine.”
☐ C. “I will take it only on days I exercise.”
⛔ D. “I should take extra vitamin K if I feel weak.”
Rationale: Regular INR testing ensures therapeutic anticoagulation and prevents bleeding
complications.
,4. A client with type 1 diabetes is experiencing hypoglycemia. Which action
should the nurse take first?
☑ A. Give 15 g of fast-acting carbohydrate
☐ B. Administer insulin
☐ C. Check blood pressure
☐ D. Call the provider
Rationale: Treating hypoglycemia promptly prevents severe complications; fast-acting
carbohydrates raise blood glucose quickly.
5. A nurse is preparing to administer a blood transfusion. Which action is a
priority?
☑ A. Verify client identity and blood product compatibility
☐ B. Start the transfusion immediately
☐ C. Administer premedication without verification
☐ D. Document after transfusion only
Rationale: Verification prevents potentially life-threatening transfusion reactions.
6. A client has COPD and is receiving oxygen at 2 L/min via nasal cannula.
Which action should the nurse take?
☑ A. Monitor for signs of carbon dioxide retention
☐ B. Increase oxygen to 6 L/min
☐ C. Discontinue oxygen
☐ D. Administer a bronchodilator immediately
Rationale: COPD clients are at risk for hypercapnia; monitoring CO₂ levels is essential.
7. A client is receiving morphine for postoperative pain. Which side effect should
the nurse monitor for?
☑ A. Respiratory depression
☐ B. Hypertension
☐ C. Tachycardia
☐ D. Hyperactivity
Rationale: Morphine can suppress respiration, making monitoring for respiratory depression a
priority.
,8. A nurse is caring for a client with newly diagnosed hypertension. Which
lifestyle modification should the nurse teach?
☑ A. Reduce sodium intake
☐ B. Increase alcohol consumption
☐ C. Avoid exercise
☐ D. Increase saturated fats
Rationale: Reducing sodium helps lower blood pressure and prevent complications.
9. A client reports shortness of breath and swelling in the legs. Which diagnostic
test is most appropriate to assess for heart failure?
☑ A. Echocardiogram
☐ B. Chest X-ray
☐ C. Complete blood count
☐ D. Electroencephalogram
Rationale: An echocardiogram evaluates cardiac function and ejection fraction, confirming heart
failure.
10. A nurse is caring for a client with a nasogastric tube. Which action prevents
aspiration?
☑ A. Elevate the head of the bed to 30–45 degrees
☐ B. Lay the client flat
☐ C. Increase tube feeding rate rapidly
☐ D. Disconnect suction intermittently
Rationale: Elevating the head reduces the risk of reflux and aspiration during feeding.
11. Which intervention is priority for a client with neutropenia?
☑ A. Implement strict hand hygiene and infection precautions
☐ B. Administer a broad-spectrum antibiotic immediately
☐ C. Encourage visitors to bring flowers
☐ D. Allow unrestricted room access
, Rationale: Neutropenic clients are highly susceptible to infection; prevention is the primary
priority.
12. A client is receiving IV potassium. Which nursing action is essential?
☑ A. Monitor the IV site for infiltration
☐ B. Administer as a rapid bolus
☐ C. Give without diluting
☐ D. Skip cardiac monitoring
Rationale: IV potassium can irritate veins and cause arrhythmias; infiltration and cardiac
monitoring are essential.
13. A nurse is caring for a client with acute pancreatitis. Which lab result should
the nurse expect?
☑ A. Elevated serum amylase and lipase
☐ B. Decreased liver enzymes
☐ C. Decreased glucose
☐ D. Elevated platelets
Rationale: Pancreatic inflammation causes elevated digestive enzymes in the blood.
14. A client is experiencing hypovolemic shock. Which finding is priority to
report?
☑ A. Systolic BP 80 mmHg
☐ B. Mild thirst
☐ C. Dry lips
☐ D. Slight anxiety
Rationale: Hypotension indicates inadequate perfusion and requires immediate intervention.
15. Which action should a nurse take for a client receiving TPN via central line?
☑ A. Monitor blood glucose every 4–6 hours
☐ B. Clamp the line every hour
☐ C. Administer without filter
