FUTURE RN Mock Board Nursing Exam| TRAI | Over 250 Questions and answers Updated 2025/26.

FUTURE RN Mock Board Nursing Exam| TRAI | Over 250 Questions and answers Updated 2025/26. CLOSED DOOR (TRAI) NURSING PRACTICE 1 NURSING PRACTICE 2 NURSING PRACTICE 3 NURSING PRACTICE 4 NURSING PRACTICE 5 NURSING PRACTICE 1 Situation 1: Nurse Nellie is planning to conduct qualitative research about the life experiences of teenage mothers in the community. 1. Which appropriate research design Nurse Nellie should use in her planned study? A. Grounded theory B. Phenomenology C. Case Study D. Ethnography 2. After she had decided to conduct the study, which of the following nursing actions should she do next? A. Create conceptual framework B. Make a research proposal C. Decide for the data analysis D. Plan for data collection 3. Which is the appropriate means to present qualitative data? A. Themes B. BAR Graph C. Pie Graph D. Linear Graph 4. Which of the following nursing actions Nurse Nelie must do in doing data saturation of qualitative data? A. Do resurvey B. Use case study C. Do interview more than once D. Seek advice of expert 5. One of the study questions in the proposed study is about the needs of teenage mothers. In choosing a framework to make the topic more stable, which theory Nurse Nellie should adopt in her study? A. Roy B. Maslow's C. Orem D. Kings Situation 2: Nursie Kaye is fully aware that being a public health nurse her work is guided by ethico-moral principles. 6. Which is the main goal of ethical practice of the nursing profession including the community setting? A. To protect the nurse and co-workers B. To prevent reprimand from physicians C. For the patient family satisfaction D. Centered on the welfare of clients and protect their rights 7. As public health nurse, Nurse Kaye makes sure all the supplies and medicine needed for the care of the community are available. This is an example of the principle of ___? A. Justice B. Respect C. Fair treatment D. Beneficence 8. Select nurses' action in keeping with the principle of confidentiality. A. Hides identity of patient B. Share information from patient's chart in public C. Keeps all matters about the patient a secret D. Discusses the case of a patient with others. 9. Nurse Kaye is always guided by the principle of beneficence in all that she does to all her patients. Which of the following nursing actions is aligned with the principle of beneficence? A. Equal and fair allocation of resources to all. B. Getting informed consent C. Keep records of patients form public viewing D. Promoting patient safety at all times. 10. Nurse Kaye tapped all the newly hired nurses to be members of her new project. She is observing the ethical principle of A. Justice B. Autonomy C. Non-maleficence D. Respect Situation 3: Nurse Red is alarmed with the rising numbers of re-emerging cases of pulmonary tuberculosis (PTB) in the Philippines. 11. Case finding for PB in the community requires that the nurse should identify persons having sputum characterized as A. Rusty, frothy B. Yellowish C. Bloodstained D. Greenish 12. In the care of patients with communicable diseases, Nurse Red should know the feces, urine, blood, and other body fluids are considered as: A. Portal of entry B. Vehides of Transmission C. Reservoir of agent D. Portal of exit 13. With the onset of the rainy season, the nurses are closely monitoring the increase of dengue cases. They should focus their health teaching on ways to prevent dengue by A. Destroying breeding places of the vector B. Using repellent lotion C. Burning of dried leaves D. Wearing of protective clothing 14. Outbreaks of typhoid fever occur in the community. Nurse Red should inform the residents that the transmission of the disease is through, A. A vector B. Food and water C. Blood and Body fluids D. Air 15. There are several causes of Rabies in the community. Which of the following preventive measures should Nurse Red teach the families? A. Impound all dogs B. Impose “No pets allowed” rule C. Have the dogs vaccinated D. Report to the authorities households with dog/s GOOD LUCK, FUTURE RN! Page 1/19MOCK BOARDS Situation 4: Nurse Vina had been working as a public health nurse. In working with families she values the importance of family care plans and other concepts about community health nursing. 16. Nurse Vina is in charge of the animal bite program at the health center. Which of the following is the causative agent of rabies? A. Parasite B. Virus C. Bacteria D. Fungi 17. Which is the best strategy to control the incidence of rabies in the community? A. Impound Dogs B. Kill stray dogs C. Responsible pet owner D. Fine the owners 18. Which best advice should the nurse give in case of a dog bite? A. Wash wound with garlic B. Do not feed the dog C. Bleed the bitten area D. Wash thoroughly with running water 19. What advice should be given to the owner of the dog in case of dog bite. A. Give away the animal B. Impound the dog C. Kill the dog D. Feed well and observe 20. Which important information the nurse should inform the public about rabies? A. It could be prevented B. It is an ordinary disease C. Rabies is not deadly D. It kills Situation 5: Nurse Vikki is a newly hired Community Health Nurse. At the start of her duty, she takes into consideration that she should assume numerous roles and functions that are primarily focused on promoting a healthy community. 21. In order for Nurse Vikki to become effective in her caregiving role to the different types of clientele in the community, she should be equipped with the basic knowledge about A. statistics B. nursing process C. research D. nursing theories 22. As planner and programmer in the community setting, Nurse Vikki should understand that the PRIMARY objective of Community Health Nursing is focused on the importance of A. Curative aspect of care B. Restoration of full function C. Rehabilitative part of care D. Optimum health and wellness. 23. The BEST Community Health Nursing principle that will guide Nurse Vikki in the effective performance of her various roles and functions is focused on the community that A. Has different health needs and problems B. Is considered as a primary client. C. Has various structures and resources D. Is composed of individuals and families 24. As health monitory which of the following should be considered by the nurse as health threats in the community? 1. Ineffective breastfeeding 2. Fire hazards 3. Inadequate immunization 4. Polluted water supply A. 3.4 B. 2,3,4 C. 1,2,3,4 D. 1,2 25. Which is the INITIAL task of Nurse Vikki as a community organizer? A. Formulates individuals, family groups and community care plans. B. Motivates and enhances community participation. C. Prepares and submits required reports on time. D. Coordinates with individuals, families, group for health services. Situation 6: Nurse Drew assumes various roles and functions as a community health nurse. He considers collaboration and teamwork as essential in public health. 26. Which of the following is the rationale why team work is essential in health care? A. Helping one another B. Makes work lighter C. Patient safety D. Promotes camaraderie 27. What are the main components of collaboration? A. Shared vision B. Achievement of goals C. Working together D. Partnership 28. Nurse Drew, as a member of the health team, describes himself as a good team player. Which of the following are the BEST characteristics of a good team player? 1. Sense of humor 2. Good listener 3. Inspires others 4. Proactive thinking A. 1,2,3,4 B. 1,2 C. 1,2,3 D. 3,4 29. Which of the following is an essential element of effective collaboration? A. Communication B. Belongs to one team C. Networking D. Delegation 30. Nurse Drew in his dealings with his co -workers instills collaborative partnership in doing their task. Which is the aim of this type of partnership? A. Make work faster and easier B. Shared goals - ULTIMATE GOAL C. Change and influence group behavior D. Staffs' satisfaction GOOD LUCK, FUTURE RN! Page 2/19MOCK BOARDS Situation 7: Nurse Yana has been promoted as Nurse Manager in the health unit. Her functions include management of resources and environment and budgeting. 31. As nurse manager, which should she consider important when preparing the budget needed for the operation of the unit. A. All things and equipment need to be new yearly. B. Budget is implemented with or without money at hand. C. Cost-effectiveness and efficiency are important. D. Budget is not essential for quality assurance. 32. In the process of planning, Which of the following, Nurse Yana should use the plan that would review the strengths and weakness of the organization A. Operational B. Nursing Care C. Strategic D. Program 33. For cost effectiveness measure, which of the following is the BEST nursing action A. All things should be kept at the supervisors office B. Identify resources needed to accomplish task C. Assign the utility worker to keep track D. Allow everyone to take responsibility 34. Nurse Yana advocates for a safe staffing pattern at the health center. Which BEST practice she should instill from the staff? A. Delegates task B. Give all freedom to be honest in their attendance C. Staffing pattern not important in community setting D. Requires staff to report on time. 35. Which of the following is a measure of a safe work environment? 1. Complies with standards 2. Observe protocols 3. Adheres to policies 4. Observe quality A. 2,3,4 B. 1,2 C. 3,4 D. 1,2,3,4 Situation 8: Nurse Riley reviews all pertinent laws that affect public health nursing. 36. RA 9173 is otherwise known as the Philippine Nursing Act of 2002. Which is the primary aim of this law? A. To enhance the competence of professional nurses B. To regulate the practice of professional nursing in the country C. To facilitate the mobility of nurses to other countries D. To promote the well-being of health workers. 37. The nurse closely monitors the work she delegated to the barangay health worker. She is legally guided by this principle A. Respondeat superior B. The good samaritan C. Res ipsa loquitur D. Jurisprudence 38. This Law promotes the well-being and living conditions of health workers especially those from the government-managed facilities A. Continuing professional development B. Magna Carta for health workers. C. Philippine qualifications framework D. Local government code. 39. It mandates the compulsory immunization of children below 8 years A. PD 996 B. RA 11223 C. RA 9172 D. RA 10912 40. This law allows every Filipino to avail of affordable medicines A. Local Government Code B. Primary Health Care C. Universal Health Care D. Generic Drug Act Situation 9: When prioritizing problems in the community, the problems are categorized as health status, health resource, or health-related. 41. Nurse Juris is correct in identifying which of the following is a health resource problem. A. Feud between the Midwife and Head of the Barangay Sanitation Committee B. High Maternal Mortality Rate C. Absence of Midwife in the community to render health services D. Increase in number of deaths from Pneumonia 42. There are five criteria for prioritizing community health problems. If Nurse Juris is estimating the proportion of the population affected by the problem, she is using what criterion in prioritization? A. Magnitude of the Problem B. Social concern C. Nature of the Problem D. Modifiability of the Problem 43. Select a barrier to goal setting between the nurse and the family. A. Educational attainment B. Socio economic status C. Nature of employment D. Failure of family to perceive existence of problem 44. Which is the MOST appropriate intervention should the nurse do to help the family perform the health tasks? A. Refer family to barangay officials for guidance B. Help the family recognize the problem C. Allow family to decide to use health resources D. Leave the family what action take on their problem 45. Choose the step of the nursing process that identifies the family health seeking behavior. A. Implementation B. Evaluation C. Assessment D. Planning Situation 10: Nurse Viana as a public health nurse together with other members of the health team ensure there is quality in health and nursing care in their workplace. 46. Which of the following is an important tool of assessing quality in the delivery of health services? A. Research B. Standards C. Nursing process D. Legislation 47. Choose the keywords that BEST describes quality improvement in public health. A. Status quo GOOD LUCK, FUTURE RN! Page 3/19MOCK BOARDS B. Improvement process C. Very conventional D. Perfect health facility 48. Choose the description that quality exists at the health center. A. Patient satisfaction B. Selected delivery of services C. Controlled by local officials D. Rapid turnover 49. Nurse Viana would like to enhance the process standard at the health center. Which should be her priority nursing initiative? A. Revise manual for operation B. Hire more new graduates C. Upgrade the health equipment D. Reduce operational expenses 50. Identify to whom Nurse Viana would seek help to improve health resources like medicines in order to provide quality nursing care at the health center. A. Head of the church B. Secretary of Health C. Mayor D. Governor Situation 11: Nurse Krissy is about to start her community organizing activities. Together with her core group, their goal is to be successful in community organization through effective communication. 51. Nurse Krissy would like to communicate to the people the health problems they had identified. In reaching out to every household in the community, which is the best strategy the nurse should employ? A. Call for general assembly. B. Use social media C. Send memorandum D. Write a letter to residents. 52. Which communication technique should nurse cris employ in order to successfully capture the details of the meeting? A. Summarizing B. Restating C. Reassuring D. Validating 53. Nurse Krissy received information from some community residents who suspect that a neighbor is abusing his young child. Which should be the priority nursing action? A. Report to police authorities B. Notify the social worker C. Ignore the information D. Validate the information 54. In organizing the community in the midst of a major health crisis, which strategy should the nurse Krissy employ to effectively communicate the importance of health and safety protocol? A. Send a letter compelling everyone to follow. B. Use social media to spread the information C. Request an elderly resident to inform everyone. D. Place posters and flyers in dialects in a strategic place. 55. In order for nurse Krissy to facilitate the recognition of the community of the existence of their health problems, which nursing action would yield better results? A. Asks the barangay head to make the report. B. Set the ground rule that presence of problem is valid. C. Allows people's participation to confirm the health problems. D. Acts as an expert to communicate to residents. Situation 12: As community health nurse it is expected that she is competent in performing core competency standards on Record Management. 56. Nurse Lita is aware that the domain of record management entails which of the following except: A. Write in the Kardex what has to be endorsed B. Keep human resources updates at all times C. Report to MD orally the wrong use of drug D. Ensure entries in patient record is signed 57. Improvement of Nursing service as well as patient satisfaction is also a concern of the nurse manager. Which of the following strategies can be adopted to achieve this goal. A. Hold regular meeting with staff B. Make chart audit C. Plan suggestion box D. Conduct regular rounds of patients 58. A physician in the health facility has forgotten to change the antibiotics of the patient and make a phone call order to Nurse Lita. What should be the appropriate action of the nurse in this situation? A. Ensure that the order will be signed by the physician as soon as he is into the facility. B. Have any physician in the facility sign the order C. Carry all phone orders and bring chart to the doctor for signing. D. Call back MD to give feedback. 59. If the CHN has written in the treatment record: BP 160/96, Ace inhibitor with Diazide administered, BP decreases at 140/88 and urine output 1200 cc for whole shift. What type of charting is this? A. PIE B. AIRA C. SOAP D. DAR 60. Which of the following is the primary purpose of accurate, updated, and reliable documents? A. Use from the shift report of the nurse and doctor. B. Protect nurses from doctors' reprimand C. Serve as evidence of legal matters. D. Audit frequency of medical utilization. NURSING PRACTICE 2 Situation 13: The group of nurses assigned in the delivery room is interested in conducting a study on the experiences of pregnant women in labor. They are thinking of qualitative research. 61. In the presentation of results of qualitative research, the nurse researcher uses as a reference in the write-up the person A. First B. Second C. Fourth D. Third 62. Nursing, as a human science, deals with the critical and fundamental differences in attitude toward their respective phenomena. Which of the following is an aim of human sciences? A. Construct prediction B. Seek causal explanation C. Sets control D. Makes meaningful interpretation GOOD LUCK, FUTURE RN! Page 4/19MOCK BOARDS 63. The group was observant as to the activities taking place in the delivery room. One of the activities involved social processes, which can be better explored. Which of the following qualitative research methods should be used? A. Grounded theory B. Historical research C. Descriptive Phenomenology D. Case study 64. After the data analysis of their study, experiences of pregnant women in labor, they returned to the participants to determine the accuracy of the emerged themes. Which criteria of trustworthiness is the group doing? A. Confirmability B. Credibility C. Transferability D. Dependability 65. The group used an audio recorder to capture what transpired during the interview. After the transcription, which of the following actions is APPROPRIATE for the group to do with the audiotape? A. Keep the audiotape in a vault and dispose of it a year after. B. Submit the audiotape to their research adviser. C. Throw it in the trash bin immediately after it was used D. Post the recording on their university research website for others to listen. Situation 14: Nirvana, a patient with severe pre-eclampsia, is admitted to the hospital. She is a student from one of the local universities, she insists on continuing her studies while in the hospital despite being instructed to rest. The patient studies approximately 10 hours a day and has numerous visits from fellow students, family, and friends. 66. Nurse Maggi is concerned about the patient's welfare and her ability to comply with the doctor's instructions. What should be the APPROPRIATE actions? A. Include a significant other in helping the patient understand the need for rest. B. Instruct the patient that the baby's health is more important than her studies at this time. C. Develop a routine with the patient to balance her studies and her rest needs. D. Ask her why she is not complying with the prescription for bed rest. 67. Patient Nirvana, who seems to be irritated with the nurse, said, "I don't want to talk to you because you're only a nurse. I will wait for my doctor." Which of the following is an APPROPRIATE response by the nurse? A. "I'm angry. with the way you dismiss me." B. "So then you would prefer to speak with your doctor?" C. "I understand. I should call your doctor." D. "Your doctor prescribed this for us to do nursing care " 68. Nurse Maggi is now in a dilemma. This occurs when A. There is a conflict between the nurse's decision and that of his/her superior B. Choices are unclear C. there is a conflict of two or more ethical principles D. a decision had to be made quickly under a stressful situation 69. Which of the ethical principles stipulates that the nurse is responsible for providing all patients with care, attention and information? A. Beneficence B. Advocacy C. Nonmaleficence D. Veracity 70. Which action by the nurse provides a safe environment for a preeclamptic patient? A. Maintain fluid and sodium restrictions. B. Take off the room lights and draw the window shades. C. Encourage visits from family and friends for psychosocial support D. Take the patient's vital signs every 4 hours. Situation 15: Katana is a postpartum patient, who has delivered a stillborn, and wants to leave the hospital without a physician's order. The patient is still hooked to an intravenous fluid (IVF) and is on close postpartum monitoring. 71. To avoid liability, which of the following is an APPROPRIATE action by nurse Yuko? A. Notify nursing supervisor of the patient's plans to leave B. Arrange medication prescriptions at the patient's preferred pharmacy. C. Notify directly the attending obstetrician. D. Ask the patient about transportation plans from the hospital. 72. Nurse Yuko informs patient Katana on the need for early ambulation. Which of the nurse's instructions on ambulation is incorrect? A. Assist the patient from sitting to standing position. B. Raise the head of the bed slowly to achieve sitting position of the patient. C. Allow the patient to rise from the bed to a standing position unassisted. D. Assist patients to rise from lying to sitting position. 73. While waiting for feedback from the nurse supervisor regarding the patient's desire to go home, nurse Yuko opted to check on the patient. Upon entering the room, she discovers that the waste basket is on fire. Sequence the nurse's actions in the options below. I. Rescue the patient. II. Activate the fire alarm. III. Close the door to confine the fire. IV. Put off the fire with a fire extinguisher. A. IV, Il and I B. I, II, IlI and IV C. I, Il and IV D. II, IV and I 74. After the fire was put off, the patient was found to have absconded. What is the ethico-legal responsibility of the attending nurse? A. Autonomy B. Nonmaleficence C. Beneficence D. Justice 75. Absconding is inevitable in any health care facility. who will be informed IMMEDIATELY if the patient found out absconded? A. Attending physician B. Security guard on duty C. Resident on duty D. Nursing staff Situation 16: Therapeutic communication promotes understanding between the sender and receiver. Nurse Gery should be up-to-date GOOD LUCK, FUTURE RN! Page 5/19MOCK BOARDS with the common therapeutic techniques if he wants his nursing care to be effective and achievable. 76. When a patient says, "I am not sure if I should undergo colonoscopy or not as I am scared," Which of the following is the MOST appropriate communication technique that Nurse Gery should use? A. Touch B. Clarifying C. Restating D. Silence 77. When a patient says, "Whenever I see my husband visit me, I feel depressed". Nurse Gery says, "Your husband depresses you?" The therapeutic communication is which of the following? A. Restatement B. Focusing C. Focusing D. Seeking clarification 78. When Nurse Gery says to the patient, "Tell me more about your experience when you had the colonoscopy". Which of the following therapeutic techniques is Nurse Gery using? A. Focusing B. Clarifying C. Encouraging elaboration D. Restating 79. When nurse Gery says, "Tell me more about about your experience. I wish to hear about...", which of the following therapeutic techniques is Nurse Gery using? A. Restating B. Seeking clarification C. Open-ended questions D. Summarizing 80. When Nurse Gery tells the patient, "You will be wheeled into the OR and will be hooked to an IVF where the anesthesia will be given intravenously." Which of the following therapeutic communication techniques is Nurse Gery using? A. Clarification B. Summarizing C. Giving information D. Reflection Situation 17: Vanie, OB-GYN head nurse, conducted an in-service program on staff development. 81. Head nurse Vanie, discussed that the MOST frequently neglected area in management is A. Managerial knowledge B. Professional development C. Clinical skills D. Successful communication 82. A critical component of the supervisory process is delegation. Which of the following is the MOST empowering to staff? A. Effective delegation does not require nurses to know the abilities and weaknesses of their staff B. Delegation frees the manager to do other task while empowering staff. C. Delegation fosters the responsibility of staff while increasing professional growth. D. Delegation starts at top management down to subordinates 83. Head nurse Vanie discussed negotiation. The focus of negotiation is to create a. A. soothing situation B. third-party consultation C. Trade-off D. win-win situation 84. Supervision occurs after delegation. What is the PRIMARY purpose of supervision? A. Influences the organization's approach in recruitment, promotion and personnel evaluation. B. Improves staff compliance with policy and procedures. C. Assigns appropriate work tasks to the best-qualified D. Enhances the delivery of quality nursing care. 85. Delegation involves the transfer of care to an individual. What is the BEST criterion when delegating staff? A. Responsibility B. Adaptability C. Flexibility D. Competence Situation 18: During the Nurse's rounds, the Head Nurse noticed that the Intake & Output sheets have not been filled up. 86. Based on the findings, what should the Headnurse do? A. Ask the staff nurses the reasons for the failure to properly fill up the Intake & Output flow sheet. B. Give the staff nurses first warning. C. Conduct a needs assessment. D. Review the Orientation Program. 87. The Headnurse decided to coach her staff nurses. One of the questions she raised was what fluids should be excluded in the I & O flow sheet. The CORRECT response should be, which of the following? A. Intravenous fluids B. Gelatin C. Solid Foods D. Beverages 88. The Headurse emphasized to the staff nurses what NOT to be included under the output list. The answer should be, which of the following? A. Drainage from tubes B. Solid/hard feces C. Urine D. Vomitus 89. The BEST time to record the Intake and Output is A. during endorsement B. after endorsement C. right before endorsement D. any time before duty 90. A patient's I&0 is vital for patients with Chronic Heart Failure. The MAIN purpose of recording accurately the I & 0 of such patients is to A. determine if client is improving or not B. find out if there is still water retention in the interstitial cells C. detect cardiac overload D. determine weight gain/loss Situation 19: Head nurse Shendi has been encountering errors in documentation and records management based on her review of the nurses' notes in the patients' charts. To solve the issue, she decided to conduct a lecture on proper nursing documentation and management of records. 91. At the start of her lecture, Head nurse Shendi asked the purpose of the nursing process. Which of the following purposes is the CORRECT answer? A. Reduce the number of forms of the chart B. List the patients' health problems. C. Record the patient's progress. D. Provide confidentiality of the chart. GOOD LUCK, FUTURE RN! Page 6/19MOCK BOARDS 92. One of the staff nurses was asked about the principles to be observed when charting a patient's progress accurately. Which of the following principles would be the CORRECT answer? A. Statements are qualified by the use of "seems' and "appears" B. Assumptions and conclusions are reported C. Specific and definite words or phrases are used. D. General statements and measurements are used. 93. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of charting? A. Complete B. Subjective C. Objective D. Accurate 94. During nursing endorsements, the Kardex is used. Which of the following statements is NOT correct? It is ____. A. kept up-to-date B. a quick reference for current information about the client. C. consists of folded card for each patient. D. part of the medical record. 95. A sample of an error in charting was shown by Head nurse Shendi. Which of the following is the CORRECT solution to remedy the error? A. Recopy the sheet and destroy the original sheet B. Use a single line to cross out the error, then write the date, time and sign the correction made. C. Use correction fluid to erase the error D. Use eraser to remove the wrong entry Situation 20: Josephine, a multiparous patient is admitted due to labor pains which started an hour ago. During the vaginal examination, the nurse noted the complete dilatation of the cervix and effacement is 100 percent. The patient is in true labor pains. 96. Which of the following problems with labor and delivery is completed in less than 3 hours? A. Precipitous B. Preterm C. Induced D. Prolonged 97. Patient Josephine was referred to the physician, routine blood examinations were taken. After reviewing the serum electrolyte levels an order of isotonic intravenous (IV) infusion was prescribed. Which IV solution should the nurse prepare? A. 5 percent dextrose in water B. 0.45 percent sodium chloride solution C. 10 percent dextrose in water D. 3 percent sodium chloride solution 98. The patient during labor would anticipate some emotional support. Which of the following nursing interventions should Nurse Sarah provide to keep the patient calm? A. Giving praise for her the sense of satisfaction regarding quick labor. B. Support in maintaining a sense of alcohol C. Explanation of the effect of labor on the newborn. D. Allowing the patient to express pain and anxiety. 99. Patient Josephine asks why her labor is much shorter compared to previous deliveries. Which of the following is the BEST RESPONSE? A. Onset of contraction was gradual. B. Multigravida patient has shorter labor C. Cervical lengthening was longer. D. Induction of labor was done. 100. Nurse Sarah reads the physician's prescription to administer methylergonovine maleate (Methergine) intramuscularly after delivery. The rationale for giving this medication is which of the following? A. Reduces the amount of lochia drainage. B. Prevents postpartum hemorrhage C. Decreases uterine contractions. D. Maintains normal blood pressure. NURSING PRACTICE 3 Situation 21: In today's nursing practice, roles have been expensed to include legal responsibilities and accountabilities in the workplace. 101. Nurse Edith is on duty at the ER and has been very busy that morning resulting in the administration of a penicillin injection which is ordered to another patient. With this error, the nurse can be charged with A. malpractice B. negligence C. assault D. battery 102. Transcription of a doctor's order is a nurse's responsibility to put the order into action. Which of the following principle of medication safety is NOT considered to belong to transcription error? A. Illegible handwriting of the physician B. Misinterpretation of the directions ordered C. Use of unapproved abbreviation in the chart. D. Wrong route of medication administration. 103. In order for nurses not to encounter legal problems in drug administration, which of the following 7 Rights of Drug Administration, should be implemented under the category of "Right Drug"? Read the label of the drug I. three (3) times. II. before removing from the shelf. III. before measuring actual dose IV. before opening a unit dose -container A. Il and III B. I and II C. I, Il and III D. I, II, IlI and IV 104. Nurse Ja admits a patient from the ER to the medical unit. The patient is very restless with IV lines and a urinary catheter. She was put to bed and the nurse applied a body restraint without the doctor's order. Nurse Ja's action can be liable for A. invasion of privacy B. assault C. battery D. neglect 105. Ms. Cruz is the supervisor of a hospital on night shift. Several nurses did not report due to Jeepney strike, When the supervisor is executing proper allocation of nurses to the PRIORITY wards to address this concern, she is observing what type of principle? A. Beneticence B. Non-maleficence C. Justice D. Fidelity GOOD LUCK, FUTURE RN! Page 7/19MOCK BOARDS Situation 22: Ethical dilemma is becoming a common scenario in the health care delivery system brought about by the advanced technological changes on health 106. Which of the following is an example of an ethical dilemma? A. A nurse providing demonstration of the possible risk if a chest tube drainage of a patient is pulled out. B. Family members having ambivalent feelings whether their father will undergo amputation of a diabetic leg. C. A nurse is overheard by the daughter that if her mother will not take her insulin injection she will not serve her food tray. D. The physician signs the medical directives of terminally-ill patients admitted in the hospital with his spouse. 107. A 70-year-old has been rushed to the hospital due to bradycardia and palpitation. The physician suggested that a pacemaker be inserted to correct the symptoms. The patient voluntarily decides not to have the pacemaker Inserted. This is respected by the family. This is an example of what ethical principle? A. Beneficence B. Autonomy C. Fidelity D. Justice 108. The ER nurse clarifies the doctor's prescription on the dose of the pain medication based on the pain ethical principle is applied? A. Fidelity B. Truthfulness C. Justice D. Non-maleficence 109. Nurse Shawn promised to a post- surgical patient that she would come back to assist in his ambulation after carrying out the physician's order. This follows the principle of A. Beneficence B. Justice C. Autonomy D. Fidelity 110. When a nurse supports the welfare of the patient in relation to health, safety and personal rights, the ethical principle followed is A. Responsibility B. Accountability C. Confidentiality D. Advocacy Situation 23: Communication is a basic competency needed by the nurses in the health care delivery system as a means of building relationships with patients and significant others. 111. Mrs Sana, 52 year old has been in the hospital for almost a week. She approached Nurse Alma who was doing her rounds and said "I wish that my children will visit me today" your best response to the patient is A. "do you have their cell phones, If vou want I can call them" B. "just relax, I am sure they will come and visit you today" C. "you sound to be lonely, do you want me to be with you for a while". D. there is so much traffic anyway it is not yet time for visiting hours" 112. Nurse Linda observed that her patient who was just admitted for abdominal pain, looks tense and quite restless. The patient tells the nurse " I am afraid to undergo the physical examination". The BEST response of Nurse Linda is A. "I will inform the physician that you are afraid to undergo the physical examination" B. "There are several patients waiting for me, the examination has to be done now" C. "I will call your relative to be with you, while you are being examined" D. "The examination will not hurt, would you like to sit down first and rest" 113. Ms Lou, a college student is being admitted on and off in the hospital for Bronchial asthma verbalizes to the nurse " Do you think I should stop attending my classes? What is the BEST response of the nurse? A. "Well to me, that is a good decision for now, especially with your asthma, B. "You said, you are thinking of stopping from attending your classes?" C. "Let us consult your physician, which one im better for you" D. "Do you feel that is a good decision for you and your parents" 114. An elderly patient looks depressed, tells the nurse while her blood pressure is being taken, "Go away, leave me alone, I don't want to talk to you anymore". The nurse's best response is A. "don't say that, otherwise I will not come and see you anymore" B. "I will be back in an hour, by that time, you might want to talk to me" C. "If you need me, just inform your watcher for some help." D. "don't say that, I will just attend to the other patients in the ward" 115. Patient Cel, is receiving insulin injection for her diabetes. She tells the nurse "I don't want to have that insulin injection anymore." The MOST therapeutic response of the nurse is A. you need the insulin injection, otherwise your diabetes will not be controlled. B. just have your insulin injection now, I will refer you later to your attending physician. C. your physician will get mad, if you will not have your insulin iniection D. let us sit down, I will explain to you, why you have to receive the insulin injection." Situation 24 - Resources in health care delivery system are one of the challenging concerns of nursing leadership in the country today. Nurse Ravi is a unit manager in a tertiary hospital and conducts meeting regularly every two weeks to his staff to address PRIORITY affecting their services. 116. Which of the following statements indicates an effective communication technique used by the unit manager to her staff? A. "We need to improve our nursing services; otherwise top management will take over". B. "Let's limit requesting supplies and equipment, our budget for our promotion might be affected. C. "There are a lot of redundant position in our unit, there is a need to retrench some staff. D. "We need to discuss strategic approaches to facilitate delivery of nursing service with less expenses on our consumers." 117. For the past 6 months, several nurses are resigning. Some have verbalized in the exit interview that there are not happy anymore. Which of the following descriptions manifest BEST, a nurse who has job satisfaction? A. Competitive, self-centered, euphoric. B. Empowered, enthusiastic, ethical C. Loner, egoistic, reactive. GOOD LUCK, FUTURE RN! Page 8/19MOCK BOARDS D. Outgoing, sensitive, competitive. 118. Delegation is a critical component of leadership and governance. Which of the following empowering activities should the unit manager applies in delegation? A. In delegation, facilitating professional growth and development of a staff is necessary. B. When delegating a responsibility to a nursing staff, modification of standards of care is permitted. C. Delegation of responsibility inpatient care has to start, from top management to the staff-nurse level D. Delegation requires responsibility with corresponding accountability of a staff-nurse. 119. Nurse Lany is guided that the initial step of delegation is A. Demonstrate the task and let the staff continue the next activities B. Assess the capability of the staff, change him if not performing C. Determine the competency level of staff for the task being given D. Explain the task to be done with the accompanying job description 120. The unit manager is planning to take her regular official business leave for the Year. She has written a letter of recommendation to her immediate supervisor for her assistant unit manager to assume her position while she is on leave. This is an example of delegation by A. Rank B. Authority C. Succession D. General Situation 25: Nurse Petron is on duty in the medical unit and has two patients for discharge. Shell, 38 year old diagnosed with Diabetes Mellitus and on insulin therapy for the first time and Caltex, 42 years old who had myocardial infarction (MI). 121. When preparing a teaching plan for patient Shell, the following are the instructions provided to patients with Diabetes Mellitus. Which ONE of the teaching plan is considered NOT a PRIORITY concern when discussing the list with the patient? A. Diet and genetic counseling. B. Exercise in extreme heat and cold. C. Regular exercise, diet and medications. D. Monitoring of blood sugar and urine ketones. 122. Shell was taught by Nurse Petron on how to administer self-injection insulin and rotation sites with use of the chart every day till her discharge. The following is the procedure for the self-injection of insulin. Which of the following are the correct sequence in self administration of the drug? I. Inject the insulin, push the plunger all the way in II. With one hand stabilize the skin by spreading a large area III. Pull the needle straight out of the skin and press cotton ball over injection site IV. Pick-up syringe with the other had hold and insert needle to the skin. V. Dispose syringe in a hard plastic container. A. I, IV, III, II and V B. II, IV, I, III and V C. III, II, I, V and IV D. IV, III, I, V and II 123. The doctor ordered a low- saturated fat, low-cholesterol diet to patient Caltex who was also going home. From the following list of foods, which meals has to be included in the instructional plan of Nurse Petron to her patient? A. Pork steak, mixed vegetables with butter and cheese. B. Hamburger, macaroni salad and milk shake. C. Fried chicken, green beans, and skim milk. D. Baked fish, green beans, coffee 124. Considering that patient Caltex is a post MI patient, she was taught by the nurse on home exercises on leg movements while resting on bed. The expected goal of this intervention is A. facilitate better digestion of food B. prevent stasis of urine and stone formation C. facilitate circulation for skin integrity D. prevent venous stasis in the lower extremities 125. The resumption of sexual activity is an important activity that has to be included in the home instruction to be given to patient Caltex together with her husband. Which of the following is the SAFE period for an uncomplicated MI to resume sexual activity? A. One month after MI. B. 12 to 14 days after MI C. Two month after MI D. 7 to 10 days after MI Situation 26: Nurse Patrick is a member of the research team in a cardiovascular health facility. One of the research priority problems in her unit is on the Effects of Personalized Care Management Strategies on Stress after an acute myocardial infarction (MI). 126. Nurse Patrick selected a framework which focuses on the fact that humans are in constant relationship with stressors in the environment and that nursing is keeping the patient's system adjusted to wellness which is BEST reflected in A. Parse' Human becoming theory B. Neuman's adaptation model C. Peplau's psychodynamic theory D. Swanson's theory of caring 127. What type of sampling wills Nurse Patrick adopts if when every third (3rd) patients with MI are selected after a random start? A. Simple random B. Systematic C. Stratified D. Cluster 128. Nurse Patrick distributed the coded questionnaires to the respondents of the study without their names on it. What ethical safeguard is being employed in this practice? A. Confidentiality B. Truthfulness C. Trustworthiness D. Anonymity 129. When the finding of the study can be applied to all patient with MI under stress patients in it satisfies which of criteria in research? A. Reliability B. Validity C. Generalizability D. Transferability 130. Nurse Patrick has completed the study and started to make a report to the research department. A written brief summary is submitted which is known as A. narrative B. abstract C. critical appraisal D. monograph GOOD LUCK, FUTURE RN! Page 9/19MOCK BOARDS 126. The dialysis solution is warmed before use in peritoneal dialysis primarily to? A. Encourage the removal of serum urea B. Force potassium back into the cells. C. Add extra warmth to the body. D. Promote abdominal muscle relaxation. 127. The client is scheduled to have a kidney, ureter, and bladder (KUB) radiograph. Which of the following would be ordered to prepare the client for this radiograph? A. Fluid and food will be withheld on the morning of the examination. B. A tranquilizer will be given before the examination. C. An enema will be given before the examination. (Better visualization) D. No special preparation is required for the examination. 128. The following teaching guidelines should be provided when giving information on early detection of cancer. Which one should not be included? A. Monthly breast self-examinations should be done by women who are 20 years old and above. B. Digital rectal examination should be done annually from age 40 years to detect colorectal cancer. C. Pabanicolaou examination is only for women who are sexually active. D. Baseline mammogram for women at the age of 40 years. 129. The client is scheduled for a bronchoscopy Which of the following is not necessary to be done by the nurse when preparing the client for the procedure? A. Secure written consent. B. Ask for allergies to seafood or iodine. (For GRAPHY - contrast agent) C. Maintain NPO for 6 to 8 hours. D. Instruct client to remove dentures or bridges. 130. The nurse is teaching the client how to manage a nosebleed. Which of the following instructions would be appropriate to give to the client? A. "Tilt your head backward and pinch your nose." B. "Lie down flat and place an ice compress over the bridge of your nose." C. "Blow your nose gently with your neck flexed." D. "Sit down, lean forward, and pinch the soft portion of your nose." 131. Which of the following diets would be most appropriate for a client with COPD (weight loss & lung damage)? A. Low fat, low cholesterol diet. B. Bland, soft diet. C. Low sodium diet. D. High-calorie, high-protein diet - (calorie - to address weight loss, protein; repair lung damage) 132. When suctioning a client with tracheostomy, the nurse must remember to: A. Use a new sterile catheter with each insertion. B. Initiate suction as the catheter is being withdrawn. C. Insert the catheter until the cough reflex is stimulated. D. Remove the inner cannula before inserting the suction catheter. 133. Which of the following enzyme studies results does not indicate the presence of MI? A. Elevated CK-MB B. Elevated SGOT (AST) C. Elevated ESR D. Elevated SGPT (ALT) - liver sensitive 134. The client will undergo right-sided cardiac catheterization. Which of the following should not be included in patient teaching? A. “You may have to fast for 6-8 hours before the procedure." B. "You will experience a warm or flushing sensation as the contrast medium is injected." C. "You will be transferred to the operating room and you will receive general anesthesia." - LOCAL anesthesia D. "You have to tell me if you have a seafood allergy." 135. The client who experiences angina has been told to follow a low-cholesterol diet. Which of the following meals should the nurse tell the client would be best on her low-cholesterol diet? A. Hamburger, salad, milkshake B. Baked liver, green beans, and coffee C. Spaghetti with tomato sauce, salad, coffee D. Fried chicken, green beans, and skim milk ● HDL - Heaven (good) - low-cholesterol ● LDL - heLL (bad) - high-cholesterol 136. When ventricular fibrillation (cardiac arrest) occurs in a coronary care unit, the first person reaching the client should: A. Administer oxygen B. Defibrillate the client C. Initiate cardiopulmonary resuscitation D. Administer sodium bicarbonate intravenously In defibrillating the client ● 1st - 200 J ● 2nd - 300 - 360 J ● 3rd - 360 J 137. A client with MI is receiving Heparin. If the anticoagulant therapy is effective the nurse would expect: A. APTT twice the normal value (2-2.5 x → effectiveness) B. An absence of ecchymotic areas C. A decreased viscosity of the blood D. A reduction of confusion and weakness 138. Which position would most help to decrease a client's discomfort when the client's spouse injects the vitamin B12 using the ventrolateral site? A. Lying on the side with legs extended. B. Lying on the abdomen with toes pointed inward. (relaxation of area) C. Leaning over the edge of a low table with the hips flexed D. Standing upright with the feet one shoulder width apart 139. The client bad been diagnosed to have polycythemia vera. Which of the following measures is not included in the nursing care plan of the client? A. Increase fluid intake B. Monitor the client for signs and symptoms of thromboembolism. C. Advise the client to avoid high altitude D. Implement isolation precaution 140. During a period of heavy play activity, a first-grader with a known history of anemia complains of being woozy. The school nurse's best initial response would be to: (SAFETY) A. Check the child's pulse and blood pressure B. Have the child sit until the dizziness subsides C. Use the spirit of ammonia to prevent the child from fainting GOOD LUCK, FUTURE RN! Page 10/19MOCK BOARDS D. Assist the child to the nurse's room and place the child in a supine position 141. The parents of a 10-year-old boy with hemophilia (x-link - male) are very worried about their other children, two girls, and another boy, and want to know what the chances are concerning their having the disorder or being a carrier. An appropriate answer to this question would be that: A. All girls will be normal and the other son a carrier B. All girls will be carriers and one-half of the boys will be affected C. Each son has a 50% chance of either being affected or a carrier, the girls will all be carriers. D. Each son has a 50% chance of being affected and each daughter has a 50% chance of being a carrier 142. A 4-year-old child with leukemia experiences gum bleeding after brushing his teeth. Which of the following is inappropriate nursing action? A. Provide sponge-type applicator B. Apply dry tea bag over the bleeding area in the gum C. Rinse the child's mouth with half-strength hydrogen peroxide → (NSS/ Saline solution) D. Record and report the incident without alarming the child Situation - Miss Kat an OB Nurse Specialist, was invited to a forum. The topic was about HIV-AIDS and the group was composed of ten pregnant women and five newly married women whose husbands are seafarers. 143. Miss Kat's first topic was HIV transmission. After explaining the different transmission modes, she asked the group: "Which among the following is the MAJOR mode of transmission of the disease?" A. Blood Transfusion B. Needle pricks C. Sexual intercourse D. Kissing 144. One of the pregnant women asked about the BEST way to prevent HIV transmission from a pregnant HIV (+) mother to child? A. Deliver the child via normal delivery with cervical support B. Stop pregnancy by abortion C. Take antiviral medicines as prescribed by physician D. Prenatal check-ups more than the standards 145. A 20-year-old newlywed woman, whose husband has recently been diagnosed with HIV, asked: “Will my baby have HIV too?” What is the best answer that Miss Kat should give the client? A. "No, definitely not because your child has not been exposed to any type of HIV transmission." B. B. "Yes, because HIV is definitely transmitted to the child from the mother through the placenta.” C. "One way of transmitting HIV from the mother to the baby is through the placenta. However, your child may or may not have been transmitted with HIV virus." D. 'It depends on the viral load of the mother and many other factors. Let us just see you after you give birth." 146. Miss Kat continued with her health teaching. This time she describes four main routes of HIV transmission. Which one is NOT included? A. Childbirth and breastfeeding B. Unprotected vaginal and anal or oral sex C. Breathing the same air as someone living with HIV does D. Sharing unsterilized injecting drug equipment. 147. Miss Kat gave a few questions to her audience about HIV transmission to find out if they were able to learn about it. "Which of the following is the LEAST Among HIV transmission that can directly enter the body via the blood stream or mucous membranes?” A. Urethra or inside the foreskin of the penis B. Lining of the vagina, cervix, or womb C. Dermis of the skin D. Lining of the anus SITUATION: Nurse Ahri is employed in the Cancer Institute in King's Landing. She was assigned to the breast cancer unit. 148. The nurse knows that the most common histologic type of breast cancer is: A. Infiltrating Lobular Carcinoma B. Mucinous Carcinoma C. Inflammatory Carcinoma D. Infiltrating Ducal Carcinoma 149. The nurse knows that these genes account for the majority of the inherited type of breast cancer. A. BRCA1 and BRCA2 B. CEA 125 C. MYH gene D. FAP 123 150. The nurse knows that most breast tumors are found A. Lower outer quadrant B. Nipples C. Middlemost quadrant D. Upper outer quadrant NURSING PRACTICE 4 151. The following are the diagnostic criteria for diabetes mellitus, EXCEPT: A. Presence of symptoms and casual plasma glucose concentration equal to or greater than 200 mg/dL (11.1 mmol/L) B. Fasting plasma glucose greater than or equal to 126 mg/dL (7.0 mmol/L) C. Two-hour postload glucose equal to or greater than 180 mg/dL (11.1 mmol/L) D. Hemoglobin A1C≥6.5% (48 mmol/mol) 152. A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus calls the nurse to report recurrent episodes of hypoglycemia with exercise. Which statement by the client indicated a need for further education on the peak action of NPH insulin and exercise? A. "The best time for me to exercise is right after I eat." B. "The best time for me to exercise is after breakfast." C. “The best time for me to exercise is after my morning snack.” D. “The best time for me to exercise is every afternoon.” **NPH insulin → peak; afternoon = hypoglycemia 153. Rotation sites for insulin injection should be separated from one another by 2.5 cm (1 inch) and should be used only every: A. Every other day B. 1-2 weeks; to prevent lipodystrophy C. 2-4 weeks D. Every month GOOD LUCK, FUTURE RN! Page 11/19MOCK BOARDS 154. A patient with diabetic ketoacidosis was rushed to the hospital. What breathing pattern is expected from this patient? A. Cheyne-stokes breathing B. Kussmaul respiration C. Biot's respiration D. Apnea 155. In the same patient (DKA), what insulin do you expect to be administered? A. Humalog B. Glargine C. Humulin R D. NPH ** DKA’s insulin is IV therapy → HUMULIN R 156. Which of the following are clinical manifestations of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)? I. Polyuria II. Cheyne-stokes breathing III. Kussmaul respirations IV. Blurred vision → diabetic retinopathy V. Hyperglycemia VI. Fluid and electrolyte excess → deficit A. I, II, III, IV, V B. I, III, IV, V C. I, II, V, VI D. I, II, IV, V, VI 158. Which nursing diagnosis is appropriate for a patient with a diabetes insipidus (↓ ADH) ? A. Excess fluid volume B. Deficient fluid volume C. Imbalanced nutrition: more than body requirements D. Imbalanced nutrition: less than body requirements 159. Acromegaly results from the excess production of which hormone? A. Vasopressin B. Thyroid hormones C. Adrenocorticotropic hormone D. Growth hormone 160. Which kind of tumor in the pituitary gland results to acromegaly? A. Eosinophilic tumor B. Basophilic tumor C. Chromophobic tumor D. Basalic tumor 161. Nurse Pamela is assessing a client with possible Cushing's syndrome. In a client with Cushing's syndrome, the nurse would expect to find: A. Hypotension B. Thick, coarse skin C. Weight gain in arms and legs D. Deposits of adipose tissue in the trunk and dorsocervical area. ** CUSHING SYNDROME (↑SSS) ● Sugar, Salt, Sex hormone ● Truncal obesity ● Buffalo hump 162. In a 29-year-old female client who is being successfully treated for Cushing's syndrome, nurse Nicole would expect a decline in: A. Hair loss B. Bone mineralization C. Serum glucose level D. Menstrual flow 163. A patient is admitted to the clinic for Conn syndrome. Which of the following is the most prominent sign of the disorder? A. Hypertension B. Hypokalemia C. Polydipsia D. Glucose intolerance **CONN SYNDROME ● Hyperaldosteronism – SALT ● ↑ Na = H2O follows ● ↑ Fluid = ↑ Pressure 164. Addison's disease leads to increased secretion of and retention of A. Potassium, sodium B. Sodium, potassium C. Sodium, calcium D. Calcium, sodium **ADDISON’S DISEASE ● ↑ Na, ↓ K 165. Nurse Anne is caring for a patient with Addison's disease. Which of the following nursing diagnoses is given the HIGHEST priority? A. Imbalanced nutrition: more than body requirements B. Disturbed body image C. Decreased cardiac output D. Impaired health maintenance **ADDISON’S DISEASE ● Fluid Volume Deficit = ↓ Cardiac Output 166. The following are expected laboratory markers for a patient with Addison's disease EXCEPT: A. Hyperglycemia → hypoglycemia B. Hyponatremia C. Hyperkalemia D. Leukocytosis ** ADDISON’S DISEASE (↓ SSS) ● ↓ Sugar, Salt, Sex hormones 167. Nurse Giane is assessing a client after a thyroidectomy. The assessment reveals muscle twitching and tingling, along with numbness in the fingers, toes, and mouth area. The nurse should suspect which complication? A. Hemorrhage B. Thyroid storm C. Laryngeal nerve damage D. Tetany **PARATHYROID → HYPOCa ● Chvostek Sign = cheeks (tetany) ● Trousseau Sign = BP cuff 168. Which of the following nursing interventions must be done for a patient with hypothyroidism experiencing depressed ventilation? GOOD LUCK, FUTURE RN! Page 12/19MOCK BOARDS A. Assess respiratory rate, depth, pattern, pulse oximetry, and arterial blood gases. B. Encourage deep breathing, coughing, and incentive spirometry. C. Maintain the patient's airway through suctioning and ventilator support. D. All of the above. 170. Which is the autoimmune disorder that results from an excessive output of thyroid hormones due to circulating immunoglobulins A. Myxedema coma B. Thyroiditis C. Graves disease D. Thyrotoxicosis 171. Which of the following are clinical manifestations of hyperthyroidism? I. Fine hair II. Goiter III. Cold intolerance → heat IV. Weight loss V. Fine tremors VI. Menorrhagia → amenorrhea A. I, II, III, IV, V, VI B. I, II, IV, V, VI C. I, II, IV, V D. I, III, IV, VI 172. Propylthiouracil (PTU) is priority medication for hyperthyroidism. Which statement describes its action? A. Blocks synthesis of hormones B. Suppresses release of thyroid hormone C. Beta-adrenergic blocking agent D. Shrinks the thyroid gland **PROPYLTHIOURACIL (PTU) ● ↓ vascularity of thyroid 173. Cancer is one of the leading causes of mortality worldwide. Which action is categorized in secondary prevention of cancer? A. Eating a nutritious diet and engaging in regular physical exercise. B. Getting vaccinated with the HPV vaccine. C. Performing breast self-examination D. Taking methotrexate. **CANCER = early detection & treatment 174. What is the TNM classification if the primary tumor cannot be assessed, with a regional lymph node metastasis, and no distant metastasis? A. TXN0M1 B. TXN1M0 C. T0N0M1 D. T0N1M0 175. What is the body surface area of a patient with a weight of 55 kg and height o 1.5 m? A. 1.40 m2 B. 1.51 m2 C. 9.60 m2 D. 1.55 m2 176. Compute for the absolute neutrophil count of a patient if the patient has 25% segmented neutrophils, 25% bands, and 6000 WBC cells/mm? A. 1000 ANC B. 2000 ANC C. 3000 ANC D. 4000 ANC ** ANC = (segmented neutrophils% + band %) x WBC count (cell/mm) ● (0.25 + 0.25) x 6000 = 3000 ANC 177. The optimal timing to perform breast self-examination is ____ days after menses begin. A. 1-2 B. 3-4 C. 5-7 D. 7-10 178. Which of the following are risk factors for developing breast cancer? I. Female gender II. Increasing age III. Early menarche IV. Late menopause V. Nulliparity A. I, I, III, IV B. I, II, IV, V C. I, II, III, IV, V D. I, II, III, V 179. A patient receiving radiation therapy must be advised to do the following, EXCEPT: A. Use mild soap with minimal rubbing. B. Use deodorant to prevent foul odor. - skin irritation C. Use hydrophilic lotions to prevent dryness. D. Avoid tight clothes and excessive temperatures. 180. Which of the following is the most common form of leukemia? A. Acute myeloid leukemia (AML) B. Acute lymphocytic leukemia (ALL) C. Hairy cell leukemia D. Acute leukemia 181. This type of cell growth aberration is when a type of mature cell is converted into another type of cell. A. Hyperplasia - enlarged B. Atrophy - shrink C. Metaplasia D. Dysplasia - bizarre 182. This is a recurrent, life-long viral infection that causes blisters on the external genitalia. A. Herpes simplex virus 1 (HSV-1) B. Herpes simplex virus 2 (HSV-2) C. Gonorrhea D. Chlamydia 183. A pregnant patient was found to have active HSV-2 infection near the time of delivery. Which action is appropriate for the situation? GOOD LUCK, FUTURE RN! Page 13/19MOCK BOARDS A. Subject patient to cesarean delivery. B. Vaccinate the mother immediately. C. Vaccinate the child immediately after delivery. D. No action needed as HSV-2 has no effect on the neonate. 184. The Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV) mainly attacks what type of cells in the human body? A. Red blood cells B. CD4+ cells → lymphocytes C. Stem cells D. Platelets 185. A patient who has tested positive for the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) arrives at the clinic. The patient's CD4 count is 184 cells/mcL. At what stage of HIV is the patient in? A. Stage 1 B. Stage 2 C. Stage 3 D. Unstageable Ratio: Stage 3 is diagnosed when the count drops below 200 cells/mm3 and the person has AIDS. HIV disease progression is classified from less to more severe. ● Stage 1: >500 cells/mm3 ● Stage 2: 200-499 cells/mm3 ● Stage 3: <200 cells/mm3 186. The same patient with decreased CD4+ cell count is at risk for which respiratory complication caused by the microorganisms Pneumocystis jirovecii? A. Mycobacterium avium complex B. Tuberculosis C. Pneumocystis pneumonia D. Candidiasis 187. What is the most common organism that causes urinary tract infection in older patients? A. Klebsiella B. Pseudomonas C. Proteus D. E. coli 188. The following nursing interventions are appropriate for a patient with urinary tract infection, EXCEPT: A. Administer antispasmodic agents as prescribed. B. Advise patient to drink liberal amounts of fluids such as water and cranberry juice. C. Allow patient to drink 1 cup of coffee or tea in the morning. D. Avise patient to void every 2-3 hours. 189. Stress incontinence is correctly described as: A. The involuntary loss of urine through an intact urethra as a result exertion, sneezing, coughing, or changing position. B. The involuntary loss of urine associated with a strong urge to void that cannot be suppressed. C. The involuntary loss of urine due to physical or cognitive impairment. D. The involuntary loss of urine due to extrinsic medical factors, predominantly medications. 190. Which hormone is generally elevated in a patient with benign prostatic hyperplasia (PH)? A. Testosterone B. Estrogen C. Aldosterone D. Growth hormone 191. This operation is the benchmark treatment for patients with Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia (BPH)? - TURP A. Transurethral microwave thermotherapy B. Transurethral incision of the prostate C. Transurethral resection of the prostate D. Transurethral electrovaporization 192. The following statements regarding screening for BPH are true. EXCEPT A. A voiding diary is used to record voiding frequency and urine volume. ( B. A digital rectal exam (DRE) reveals a large, ru