RN -Applied Pharmacology in Nursing:
Safe Drug Administration and Client-
Centered Interventions 2025-2026 Newest
Edition Test Bank Exam Questions With
Correct Answers|Already Graded A+!!!
A nurse is caring for a client who is to receive treatment for opiod use disorder. Which of the following
medications should the nurse expect to administer?
A. Bupropion
B. Disulfiram
C. Modafinil
D. Methadone - ANSWERS -D. Methadone
Rationale:
The nurse should expect to administer methadone for treatment of opioid use disorder. Methadone
can be administered for withdrawal and to assist with maintenance and suppressive therapy.
The nurse should administer modafinil to assist with the fatigue and prolonged sleep from
methamphetamine withdrawal.
The nurse should administer disulfiram as an aversion therapy to assist with maintaining abstinence
from alcohol.
The nurse should administer bupropion to assist the client with smoking cessation.
A nurse is caring for a client on a medical-surgical unit.
Nurses' Notes:
Yesterday:Client was admitted 1 week ago with a Crohn's disease exacerbation. A central venous
access device (CVAD) was placed in the client's right subclavian vein. Total parental nutrition (TPN)
,and lipids initiated 3 days ago. The client is NPO. The client reports abdominal pain as 5 on a scale of 0
to 10. Bowel sounds are hyperactive and lower right quadrant is tender to palpation.
Today:The 24-hr bag of TPN infusion was complete 1 hr ago, pharmacy notified and waiting for a new
bag. CVAD dressing is clean, dry, and intact. CVAD is difficult to flush. The client reports abdominal
pain as 4 on a scale of 0 to 10 and chills.
Vital Signs:
Yesterday:
Oral temperature 36.6° C (97.9° F)
Pulse 80/min
Respiratory rate 16/min
Blood pressure 105/78 mm Hg
Oxygen saturation 99% on room air
Today:
Oral temperature 37.4° C (99.4° F)
Pu - ANSWERS -The nurse should first address the client's Glucose level, followed by the client's CVAD.
Rationale:
When analyzing cues, the nurse should identify that the client is developing hypoglycemia and
experiencing a complication with the central venous line (CVL). Hypoglycemia can occur if the TPN is
stopped abruptly. A CVAD can become occluded or infected. Findings of a CVL complication can include
difficulty flushing, pain while flushing, fever, or chills.
A nurse is preparing to administer hydrochlorothiazide (HCTZ) to a client. Which of the following
actions should the nurse take prior to administering the medication?
A. Ask the client to drink 8 oz of water.
B. Review the client's most recent Hgb level.
C. Obtain the client's blood pressure.
D. Determine if the client is allergic to NSAIDs. - ANSWERS -C. Obtain the client's blood pressure.
,Rationale:
HCTZ is a thiazide diuretic administered to promote urine output and reduce blood pressure and
edema. The nurse should obtain the client's blood pressure prior to administration of the medication.
HCTZ is a thiazide diuretic administered to promote urine output and reduce blood pressure and
edema. The client does not need to drink 8 oz of water prior to taking the medication.
HCTZ does not affect Hgb levels. The nurse should monitor the client's electrolytes, especially
potassium, before and periodically while the client is taking this medication.
The nurse should assess the client for an allergy to sulfonamides due to the potential of cross-
sensitivity with HCTZ. NSAIDs can decrease the effectiveness of HCTZ.
A nurse is planning care for a client who is receiving mannitol via continuous IV infusion. Which of the
following adverse effects should the nurse monitor the client for?
A. Weight loss
B. Increased intraocular pressure
C. Auditory hallucinations
D. Bibasilar crackles - ANSWERS -D. Bibasilar crackles
Rationale:
Mannitol, an osmotic diuretic, can precipitate heart failure and pulmonary edema. Therefore, the
nurse should recognize lung crackles as an indicator of a potential complication and stop the infusion.
Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic used to promote diuresis, decrease intracranial pressure, and improve
renal function. An expected therapeutic effect of mannitol is weight loss resulting from diuresis.
An indication for the use of mannitol is increased intraocular pressure. Mannitol decreases the
intraocular pressure by creating an osmotic gradient between the intraocular fluid and the plasma.
, Mannitol has several neurologic adverse effects, including increased intracranial pressure, seizures,
confusion, and headaches. However, it does not cause auditory hallucinations.
A nurse is caring for a client who is taking nitroglycerin for angina and reports feeling faint when
standing up. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
A. Inform the client that feeling faint is caused by rapid constriction of the blood vessels in the legs.
B. Assist the client into bed, elevate the lower extremities, and check their blood pressure.
C. Request a prescription for dobutamine from the client's provider.
D. Check the client's blood pressure while they're still standing. - ANSWERS -B. Assist the client into
bed, elevate the lower extremities, and check their blood pressure.
Rationale:
The nurse should first assist the client into bed to prevent injuries from a fall. The nurse should elevate
the client's legs on pillows to enhance venous return from the lower extremities. The nurse should then
check the client's blood pressure.
Orthostatic, or postural, hypotension is caused by vasodilation of the blood vessels of the lower
extremities, which allows pooling of blood. This pooling leads to manifestations such as dizziness, light
headedness, or feeling faint. Nitroglycerin causes vasodilation.
Dobutamine is an adrenergic agonist medication used in the treatment of heart failure or cardiogenic
shock. It is not used in the treatment of orthostatic hypotension.
To assess for orthostatic hypotension, the nurse should have the client lie supine for at least 5 minutes,
then check their blood pressure. The nurse should then have the client sit up and recheck the blood
pressure. Last, the client should stand up and the nurse should measure the blood pressure.
A nurse is preparing medication instructions for a client who is receiving end-of-life care and their
family. The client has a prescription for fentanyl patches. Which of the following information
regarding the manifestations and use of fentanyl should the nurse include in the instructions?
A. Respiratory depression as a result of fentanyl use will cause a need for an at-home nefazodone
prescription.
B. Removing the patch will immediately reverse any adverse effects of fentanyl.
Safe Drug Administration and Client-
Centered Interventions 2025-2026 Newest
Edition Test Bank Exam Questions With
Correct Answers|Already Graded A+!!!
A nurse is caring for a client who is to receive treatment for opiod use disorder. Which of the following
medications should the nurse expect to administer?
A. Bupropion
B. Disulfiram
C. Modafinil
D. Methadone - ANSWERS -D. Methadone
Rationale:
The nurse should expect to administer methadone for treatment of opioid use disorder. Methadone
can be administered for withdrawal and to assist with maintenance and suppressive therapy.
The nurse should administer modafinil to assist with the fatigue and prolonged sleep from
methamphetamine withdrawal.
The nurse should administer disulfiram as an aversion therapy to assist with maintaining abstinence
from alcohol.
The nurse should administer bupropion to assist the client with smoking cessation.
A nurse is caring for a client on a medical-surgical unit.
Nurses' Notes:
Yesterday:Client was admitted 1 week ago with a Crohn's disease exacerbation. A central venous
access device (CVAD) was placed in the client's right subclavian vein. Total parental nutrition (TPN)
,and lipids initiated 3 days ago. The client is NPO. The client reports abdominal pain as 5 on a scale of 0
to 10. Bowel sounds are hyperactive and lower right quadrant is tender to palpation.
Today:The 24-hr bag of TPN infusion was complete 1 hr ago, pharmacy notified and waiting for a new
bag. CVAD dressing is clean, dry, and intact. CVAD is difficult to flush. The client reports abdominal
pain as 4 on a scale of 0 to 10 and chills.
Vital Signs:
Yesterday:
Oral temperature 36.6° C (97.9° F)
Pulse 80/min
Respiratory rate 16/min
Blood pressure 105/78 mm Hg
Oxygen saturation 99% on room air
Today:
Oral temperature 37.4° C (99.4° F)
Pu - ANSWERS -The nurse should first address the client's Glucose level, followed by the client's CVAD.
Rationale:
When analyzing cues, the nurse should identify that the client is developing hypoglycemia and
experiencing a complication with the central venous line (CVL). Hypoglycemia can occur if the TPN is
stopped abruptly. A CVAD can become occluded or infected. Findings of a CVL complication can include
difficulty flushing, pain while flushing, fever, or chills.
A nurse is preparing to administer hydrochlorothiazide (HCTZ) to a client. Which of the following
actions should the nurse take prior to administering the medication?
A. Ask the client to drink 8 oz of water.
B. Review the client's most recent Hgb level.
C. Obtain the client's blood pressure.
D. Determine if the client is allergic to NSAIDs. - ANSWERS -C. Obtain the client's blood pressure.
,Rationale:
HCTZ is a thiazide diuretic administered to promote urine output and reduce blood pressure and
edema. The nurse should obtain the client's blood pressure prior to administration of the medication.
HCTZ is a thiazide diuretic administered to promote urine output and reduce blood pressure and
edema. The client does not need to drink 8 oz of water prior to taking the medication.
HCTZ does not affect Hgb levels. The nurse should monitor the client's electrolytes, especially
potassium, before and periodically while the client is taking this medication.
The nurse should assess the client for an allergy to sulfonamides due to the potential of cross-
sensitivity with HCTZ. NSAIDs can decrease the effectiveness of HCTZ.
A nurse is planning care for a client who is receiving mannitol via continuous IV infusion. Which of the
following adverse effects should the nurse monitor the client for?
A. Weight loss
B. Increased intraocular pressure
C. Auditory hallucinations
D. Bibasilar crackles - ANSWERS -D. Bibasilar crackles
Rationale:
Mannitol, an osmotic diuretic, can precipitate heart failure and pulmonary edema. Therefore, the
nurse should recognize lung crackles as an indicator of a potential complication and stop the infusion.
Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic used to promote diuresis, decrease intracranial pressure, and improve
renal function. An expected therapeutic effect of mannitol is weight loss resulting from diuresis.
An indication for the use of mannitol is increased intraocular pressure. Mannitol decreases the
intraocular pressure by creating an osmotic gradient between the intraocular fluid and the plasma.
, Mannitol has several neurologic adverse effects, including increased intracranial pressure, seizures,
confusion, and headaches. However, it does not cause auditory hallucinations.
A nurse is caring for a client who is taking nitroglycerin for angina and reports feeling faint when
standing up. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
A. Inform the client that feeling faint is caused by rapid constriction of the blood vessels in the legs.
B. Assist the client into bed, elevate the lower extremities, and check their blood pressure.
C. Request a prescription for dobutamine from the client's provider.
D. Check the client's blood pressure while they're still standing. - ANSWERS -B. Assist the client into
bed, elevate the lower extremities, and check their blood pressure.
Rationale:
The nurse should first assist the client into bed to prevent injuries from a fall. The nurse should elevate
the client's legs on pillows to enhance venous return from the lower extremities. The nurse should then
check the client's blood pressure.
Orthostatic, or postural, hypotension is caused by vasodilation of the blood vessels of the lower
extremities, which allows pooling of blood. This pooling leads to manifestations such as dizziness, light
headedness, or feeling faint. Nitroglycerin causes vasodilation.
Dobutamine is an adrenergic agonist medication used in the treatment of heart failure or cardiogenic
shock. It is not used in the treatment of orthostatic hypotension.
To assess for orthostatic hypotension, the nurse should have the client lie supine for at least 5 minutes,
then check their blood pressure. The nurse should then have the client sit up and recheck the blood
pressure. Last, the client should stand up and the nurse should measure the blood pressure.
A nurse is preparing medication instructions for a client who is receiving end-of-life care and their
family. The client has a prescription for fentanyl patches. Which of the following information
regarding the manifestations and use of fentanyl should the nurse include in the instructions?
A. Respiratory depression as a result of fentanyl use will cause a need for an at-home nefazodone
prescription.
B. Removing the patch will immediately reverse any adverse effects of fentanyl.
