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NUR-631 Advanced Health Assessment Exam Questions 2025 – 100% Correct Answers with Detailed Rationales | Graded A+"

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This comprehensive exam review includes 100 rigorously crafted multiple-choice questions for NUR-631: Advanced Health Assessment. Each question is clinically relevant, evidence-based, and aligned with the 2025 curriculum standards. Correct answers are clearly identified with and each item is supported by a concise rationale to reinforce learning and critical thinking. Covering topics from cardiovascular and respiratory assessments to neuro, GI, and reproductive systems, this document is designed to strengthen clinical judgment, prepare students for board exams, and enhance bedside assessment proficiency.

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June 25, 2025
Number of pages
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Written in
2024/2025
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Page | 1




NUR-631 Advanced Health Assessment

Exam Review 2025 – 100 Practice

Questions with Answers & Rationales”

, 2



Q1. Which of the following findings is most consistent with left-sided heart failure?


A. Jugular vein distention
Page | 2
B. Dyspnea on exertion ✓✓✓

C. Peripheral edema

D. Hepatomegaly


Rationale: Dyspnea on exertion occurs in left-sided heart failure due to pulmonary

congestion. Right-sided failure typically causes peripheral edema and jugular vein distention.




Q2. What is the most reliable sign of dehydration in an elderly patient?


A. Dry mucous membranes

B. Decreased skin turgor

C. Orthostatic hypotension ✓✓✓

D. Tachycardia


Rationale: Orthostatic hypotension is a sensitive indicator of volume depletion in the elderly,

as skin turgor and mucosal moisture may not be reliable due to age-related changes.




Q3. Which physical exam finding is most suggestive of appendicitis?


A. Positive Murphy's sign

B. Rebound tenderness at McBurney's point ✓✓✓

, 3


C. Positive Cullen's sign

D. Left lower quadrant pain


Page | 3 Rationale: Rebound tenderness at McBurney's point is a classic sign of appendicitis.

Murphy's sign is associated with cholecystitis, and Cullen's with pancreatitis or ectopic

pregnancy.




Q4. Which of the following best characterizes an S3 heart sound?


A. Occurs during atrial contraction

B. Heard early in diastole, often in heart failure ✓✓✓

C. Represents aortic valve opening

D. Associated with pericarditis


Rationale: The S3 sound is heard early in diastole and is associated with increased

ventricular filling pressures, commonly in heart failure.




Q5. A positive Phalen's test suggests:


A. Ulnar nerve entrapment

B. Carpal tunnel syndrome ✓✓✓

C. De Quervain's tenosynovitis

D. Rheumatoid arthritis


Rationale: Phalen's test elicits symptoms of carpal tunnel syndrome by compressing the

median nerve.

, 4




Q6. Which of the following breath sounds is most commonly associated with asthma?

Page | 4
A. Crackles

B. Expiratory wheezes ✓✓✓

C. Stridor

D. Pleural friction rub


Rationale: Expiratory wheezes result from narrowed airways and are characteristic of asthma

exacerbations.




Q7. A patient presents with bradykinesia, resting tremor, and shuffling gait. What is the most

likely diagnosis?


A. Alzheimer’s disease

B. Parkinson’s disease ✓✓✓

C. Multiple sclerosis

D. Myasthenia gravis


Rationale: These are hallmark signs of Parkinson's disease, a progressive neurological

disorder affecting movement.




Q8. A diastolic murmur best heard at the apex with the bell of the stethoscope in the left

lateral decubitus position suggests:

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