PJM FINAL EXAM STUDY GUIDE 2025/2026 COMPLETE QUESTIONS WITH VERIFIED CORRECT SOLUTIONS || 100% GUARANTEED PASS <RECENT VERSION>

PJM FINAL EXAM STUDY GUIDE 2025/2026 COMPLETE QUESTIONS WITH VERIFIED CORRECT SOLUTIONS || 100% GUARANTEED PASS &lt;RECENT VERSION&gt; 1. Project management - ANSWER planning, scheduling, and orchestrating of project activities to achieve objectives within a specified period of time. 2. How to manage project teams - ANSWER Gain the trust of your team Listen to everyone's opinion Explain your decisions Lead by example 3. Essential activities - ANSWER Defining the project scope and objectives Developing a schedule Creating a budget Assembling a project team Monitoring the project's progress Communicating with stakeholders Managing risks to the project 4. Lessons learned documentation generally includes all of the following, EXCEPT: - ANSWER Other types of lessons learned about communications management. 5. A change control board (CCB) is: - ANSWER A formally chartered group responsible for reviewing, evaluating, approving, delaying, or rejecting changes to the project, and for recording and communicating such decisions 6. A representative of senior management should be invited to the project launch meeting. - ANSWER T 7. A Project charter affirms that all major parties of interest are in agreement on .... (Select the 3 best answers) - ANSWER schedule, cost, deliverables 8. The work breakdown structure is one way to separate project activities by their level of importance. - ANSWER F 9. As a rule of thumb, the lowest level tasks in a typical project should not take longer than two days to complete. - ANSWER F 10. A finish-to-start linkage is the most common way of linking to successive task. - ANSWER True 11. Which of the following linkages is used to start two or more activities at the same time? - ANSWER start to start 12. The shortest time to complete a network is equal to the duration of the longest path through the network. - ANSWER true 13. AON and AOA networks can both be used to depict any project network. - ANSWER true 14. Milestones are not dependent on predecessors or successors in the project plan - ANSWER False 15. Which of the following is used to show linkages between people and tasks? - ANSWER RACI 16. The first task of a newly appointed project manager is - ANSWER to review the project objectives with senior management 17. In order to prepare a mind map, you need to start with - ANSWER a statement of the project's objectives 18. What is the primary purpose of creating a work breakdown structure? - ANSWER to make sure all the work to do the project is identified 19. What is a milestone? - ANSWER a significant event in the project 20. Milestones cannot be identified on a Gantt Chart. - ANSWER F 21. A finish-to-start linkage is the most common way of linking to successive task. - ANSWER T 22. What is the expected time to complete a task with an optimistic, most likely, and pessimistic times of 3, 4, and 7 days respectively? - ANSWER 4,3 23. You should always crash the non-critical tasks first - ANSWER F 24. Resource loading refers to the amounts of specific resources that are scheduled for use on specific activities or projects at specific times. - ANSWER T 25. Starting the building phase before the design and planning phases is called... - ANSWER Fast Tracking 26. A project that must be completed by a specific time is considered - ANSWER time constrained 27. According to research, the best overall priority rule is - ANSWER minimum slack first 28. A task is expected to take 20 hours of labor at $25 per hour. The required material cost is $500 and the organization charges 30% of direct labor for overhead. The total task cost is - ANSWER 1150 29. Organizational culture has little or no impact on the firm's project budgeting. - ANSWER F 30. Learning curve theory states that performance of labor per unit will improve by a percentage each time production increases by the same percentage. - ANSWER F 31. The project budget serves as a project control - ANSWER T 32. Why is it necessary to consider the learning curve of resources on a project? - ANSWER to estimate effort (and cost) correctly 33. The amount of resources a project can use depends in part on the timing of the allocation - ANSWER T 34. The as soon as possible priority rule is considered the standard scheduling rule. - ANSWER T 35. The estimating approach based on the collective judgments of top and middle managers is called: - ANSWER top down 36. The practice of assigning project team members to multiple projects is called... - ANSWER multitasking 37. All projects are carried out under conditions of uncertainty. - ANSWER T 38. Overhead and indirect charges should not be assigned to a project. - ANSWER F 39. Select the two best ways to resolve the overallocation in the example below: - ANSWER Allow Resource A an additional 2.5 days to complete the Task Add a second worker to the task to help Resource A complete the work in 1 week 40. "Determine Budget" is a process in the Project Cost Management Knowledge area and the ________ Process Group. - ANSWER Planning 41. Rue or False: Increasing the duration of a project to level resources is an accepted and legitimate project management practice - ANSWER True 42. According to the PMBOK Guide, the definition of "Quality" is - ANSWER "The degree to which a set of inherent characteristics fulfills requirements" 43. You have been assigned to manage the process to select the best vendor to supply fuses for a new model coffee maker. Your company has had problems selecting the best vendor in past projects, so you decide to add a task to the WBS to review the workflow and templates for the vendor selection process. 44. Adding the task to the WBS is an example of __________ (Select the 1 best answer) - ANSWER preventing quality issues 45. A small startup company contracted with an independent website developer to create a new website. The startup company was delighted to find that the developer had built all of the features that they requested at a discount price. However, they soon discovered that the company logo was wrong on a few of the pages and that the e-mail address and phone number were wrong on the contact page. This issue is an example of ________ (Select the 1 best answer) - ANSWER poor quality 46. During system restoration, a generator should not be loaded above the level of available - ANSWER dynamic reserve 47. The mimimum passing score for a unit regulation test is - ANSWER 75% compliance with the test signal 48. PJM limits interchange to a - ANSWER change in total net interchange of 1000 MW every 15 minutes 49. Which of the following PJM esystems are used to report unit outages? 1. eDART, eMKT, & eGADS 2. eMTR, eSchedules, & eMKT 3. eDART, eCapacity, & eGADS 4. eDART, eMKT, & eCapacity - ANSWER eDART, eMKT, & eGADS 50. Which of the following units are subject to cost capping? a. a unit performing capacity verification test b. a unit running for transmission congestion c. a unit dispatched to provide spinning reserve d. a unit running to control Easter Transfer Limits - ANSWER a unit running for transmission congestion 51. eDART is used for all of the following EXCEPT: a. generation outage scheduling b. IRCs c. LMP information d. generator reactive capability changes - ANSWER LMP Info 52. Which of the following generating units would be eligible to set LMP? a. a self-scheduled (must run) steam unit b. a unit dispatched for constraint control c. a unit that is on for testing only d. a hydro unit in condensing mode - ANSWER a unit dispatched for constraint control 53. A tie line with MW flowing into the PJM control area trips. The system operator will see which of the following occur? a. ACE will decrease, frequency will decrease b. ACE will increase, frequency will increase c. ACE will decrease, frequency will remain the same d. ACE and frequency will remain the same - ANSWER ACE and frequency will remain the same 54. a Min Gen Alert is initiated when: - ANSWER expected generation is within 2500 MW of normal minimum energy limits 55. The primary purpose of a Max Emergency Generation Alert is to - ANSWER provide an early alert that system conditions may require PJM emergency procedures 56. A CT has 26 burn hours at Max Capacity. How should this be offered into the Energy Market? - ANSWER normally 57. Emergency reducible generation is defined as the difference between: - ANSWER normal minimum generation and emergency minimum generation 58. Operating reserve must equal the sum of : - ANSWER spinning, quick start, and secondary 59. During system restoration, a company has a fossil steam capacity of 500 MW loaded to 300 MW of which 100 MW has a blocked governor, and combustion turbines of 200 MW loaded to 150 MW. 60. The governor resonse factors are 5% for steam and 25% for CTs. 30 MW of underfrequency load shedding relays are enabled. 61. What is the total available dynamic reserve? - ANSWER 100 mw 62. The peak load forecast for an operating period in Mid-Atlantic Region is 40,000 MW. The peak load forecast for an operating period in Western/Southern Region is 50,000 MW. 63. What is PJM's regulation requirement? - ANSWER 900 MW 64. When a market operation center's data link to PJM is down, the dispatcher must manually update the tele-failed data to PJM: - ANSWER every 30 minutes 65. Dynamic Reserves consist of - ANSWER Governor reserve and load that has under-frequency relaying 66. Select the statement that best describes why Minimum Source Requirements have been established a. to ensure system stability prior to interconnecting with another entity b. to reduce major frequency fluctuations when energizing load c. to prevent or reduce the effects of line charging when energizing EHV transmission d. to ensure that adequate Dynamic Reserves exist prior to interconnection with another entity - ANSWER to prevent or reduce the effects of line charging when energizing EHV transmission 67. Which are the following is/are requirements for Black Start Generation? a. must be tested every 3 years b. must be able to run for 12 hours, or as defined by the TO restoration plan c. have the ability to maintain frequency and voltage under varying load d. must have and maintain procedures for the unit - ANSWER have the ability to maintain frequency and voltage under varying load and must have and maintain procedures for the unit a - 1 year b - 16 hrs 68. Which of the following is true re: a voltage collapse scenario? a. relatively small changes in MW flows or loading result in large voltage changes b. the boundaries of the resulting system separation are easily predicted c. there are no indications of the potential for a collapse that might warn an operator d. they can be caused by high voltages and a surplus of MVARs on the transmission system - ANSWER relatively small changes in MW flows or loading result in large voltage changes 69. PJM Members are responsible for developing and maintaining the following in their restoration plan: - ANSWER Plan and procedures outlining the responsibilities of the personnel needed to implement system restoration - Operating instructions and procedures for restoring load - Provision for black-start capability plan 70. PJM considers a facility to be in violation of Standard Operating Limits (SOL) when: - ANSWER Flow is above the normal limit for 24 hours and the Long Term Emergency limit for 4 hours 71. If a generator determines that their reactive capability has changed permanently, what should they do? - ANSWER Put new information into eDART and check "New Default" to alert others to change 72. Black Start Generator should be able to close onto a dead bus in: - ANSWER 3 Hours 73. What is the purpose of a Capacity Emergency Warning? - ANSWER Keep all affected system personnel aware of the forecast/actual status of the RTO and keep members informed of actual capacity shortages/contingencies 74. What statements are true concerning delays in restoring auxiliary power to Off-Line Generation? - ANSWER The unit could suffer turbine shaft damage, fuel oil for the unit could congeal, and the battery life could run out 75. A tech. is ready to start scheduled RTU work. Station serves local load and has one 69 kV tie to a neighboring control area. Voltage levels less than 138 kV. What data, if any, will need to be updated with PJM? - ANSWER Tie Lines will need to be periodically updated 76. The ability of a generator or a group of generators to remain in synchronism immediately following a sudden, large system disturbance defines: - ANSWER Transient Stability 77. During cold weather conditions, what equipment is considered among the highest sources of electrical demand? - ANSWER Strip Heaters 78. Cold load pick up can be best described as: - ANSWER Load which has been de-energized for some time and has lost its cycling characteristics 79. What type of day is defined as having a decreased load demand based on length and duration? - ANSWER Holiday 80. During extended hot weather events, what can happen? - ANSWER Transmission lines tend to sag 81. Some methods to keep on top of manually entered data include: - ANSWER EMS displays that summarize manually replaced data and using shift/pass-down sheets at start of the shift 82. How long does an operator have to correct actual voltages BELOW the emergency voltage limit but ABOVE the load dump limit? - ANSWER 5 minutes 83. A PJM role during system restoration: - ANSWER Identify opportunities for a member company to tie to the Eastern Interconnection 84. What describes why Minimum Source Requirements have been established? - ANSWER Prevent or reduce the effects of line charging when energizing EHV transmission 85. What are the Minimum Source Requirements that have to be met before energizing an EHV facility? - ANSWER Capacity, Load, and Energy requirements 86. Localized Blackouts are characterized by: - ANSWER The most common type of blackout and are most commonly caused by human error 87. What type of load should be restored first upon getting a feed into a substation during restoration? - ANSWER Substation Light and Power 88. Type of control used to keep Net Tie Line Flows to Schedule? - ANSWER Flat Tie Line Bias