Hesi medical surgical 1 version1 55 questions and answers 100 % latest 2023
1. Tachycardia
2. Nervousness
3. Low blood glucose level 4. Low blood glucose level
,Hesi medical surgical 1 version1 55 questions and answers 100 % latest 2023
Rationale:
β-Adrenergic blocking agents, such as atenolol, inhibit the appearance of signs and symptoms of acute
hypoglycemia, which would include nervousness, increased heart rate, and sweating. Therefore, the
client receiving this medication should adhere to the therapeutic regimen and monitor blood glucose
levels carefully. Option 4 is the most reliable indicator of hypoglycemia.
10.) A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving an intravenous (IV) infusion of an antineoplastic
medication. During the infusion, the client complains of pain at the insertion site. During an inspection
of the site, the nurse notes redness and swelling and that the rate of infusion of the medication has
slowed. The nurse should take which appropriate action?
1. Notify the registered nurse.
2. Administer pain medication to reduce the discomfort.
3. Apply ice and maintain the infusion rate, as prescribed.
4. Elevate the extremity of the IV site, and slow the infusion. 1. Notify the registered nurse.
Rationale:
When antineoplastic medications (Chemotheraputic Agents) are administered via IV, great care must be
taken to prevent the medication from escaping into the tissues surrounding the injection site, because
pain, tissue damage, and necrosis can result. The nurse monitors for signs of extravasation, such as
redness or swelling at the insertion site and a decreased infusion rate. If extravasation occurs, the
registered nurse needs to be notified; he or she will then contact the health care provider.
101.) A client is taking lansoprazole (Prevacid) for the chronic management of Zollinger-Ellison
syndrome. The nurse advises the client to take which of the following products if needed for a
headache?
1. Naprosyn (Aleve)
2. Ibuprofen (Advil)
3. Acetaminophen (Tylenol)
4. Acetylsalicylic acid (aspirin) 3. Acetaminophen (Tylenol)
Rationale:
Zollinger-Ellison syndrome is a hypersecretory condition of the stomach. The client should avoid taking
medications that are irritating to the stomach lining. Irritants would include aspirin and nonsteroidal
antiinflammatory drugs (ibuprofen). The client should be advised to take acetaminophen for headache.
**Remember that options that are comparable or alike are not likely to be correct. With this in mind,
,Hesi medical surgical 1 version1 55 questions and answers 100 % latest 2023
eliminate options 1 and 2 first.**
102.) A client who is taking hydrochlorothiazide (HydroDIURIL, HCTZ) has been started on triamterene
(Dyrenium) as well. The client asks the nurse why both medications are required. The nurse formulates a
response, based on the understanding that:
1. Both are weak potassium-losing diuretics.
2. The combination of these medications prevents renal toxicity.
3. Hydrochlorothiazide is an expensive medication, so using a combination of diuretics is cost-effective.
4. Triamterene is a potassium-sparing diuretic, whereas hydrochlorothiazide is a potassium-losing
diuretic. 4. Triamterene is a potassium-sparing diuretic, whereas hydrochlorothiazide is a
potassium-losing diuretic.
Rationale:
Potassium-sparing diuretics include amiloride (Midamor), spironolactone (Aldactone), and triamterene
(Dyrenium). They are weak diuretics that are used in combination with potassium-losing diuretics. This
combination is useful when medication and dietary supplement of potassium is not appropriate. The use of
two different diuretics does not prevent renal toxicity. Hydrochlorothiazide is an effective and inexpensive
generic form of the thiazide classification of diuretics.
**It is especially helpful to remember that hydrochlorothiazide is a potassium-losing diuretic and
triamterene is a potassium-sparing diuretic**
103.) A client who has begun taking fosinopril (Monopril) is very distressed, telling the nurse that he
cannot taste food normally since beginning the medication 2 weeks ago. The nurse provides the best
support to the client by:
1. Telling the client not to take the medication with food
2. Suggesting that the client taper the dose until taste returns to normal
3. Informing the client that impaired taste is expected and generally disappears in 2 to 3 months
4. Requesting that the health care provider (HCP) change the prescription to another brand of
angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor 3. Informing the client that impaired taste is expected
and generally disappears in 2 to 3 months
Rationale:
ACE inhibitors, such as fosinopril, cause temporary impairment of taste (dysgeusia). The nurse can tell
the client that this effect usually disappears in 2 to 3 months, even with continued therapy, and provide
nutritional counseling if appropriate to avoid weight loss. Options 1, 2, and 4 are inappropriate actions.
Taking this medication with or without food does not affect absorption and action. The dosage should
, Hesi medical surgical 1 version1 55 questions and answers 100 % latest 2023
never be tapered without HCP approval and the medication should never be stopped abruptly.
104.) A nurse is planning to administer amlodipine (Norvasc) to a client. The nurse plans to check which
of the following before giving the medication?
1. Respiratory rate
2. Blood pressure and heart rate
3. Heart rate and respiratory rate
4. Level of consciousness and blood pressure 2. Blood pressure and heart rate
Rationale:
Amlodipine is a calcium channel blocker. This medication decreases the rate and force of cardiac
contraction. Before administering a calcium channel blocking agent, the nurse should check the blood
pressure and heart rate, which could both decrease in response to the action of this medication. This
action will help to prevent or identify early problems related to decreased cardiac contractility, heart
rate, and conduction.
**amlodipine is a calcium channel blocker, and this group of medications decreases the rate and force of
cardiac contraction. This in turn lowers the pulse rate and blood pressure.**
105.) A client with chronic renal failure is receiving ferrous sulfate (Feosol). The nurse monitors the
client for which common side effect associated with this medication?
1. Diarrhea
2. Weakness
3. Headache
4. Constipation 4. Constipation
Rationale:
Feosol is an iron supplement used to treat anemia. Constipation is a frequent and uncomfortable side
effect associated with the administration of oral iron supplements. Stool softeners are often prescribed to
prevent constipation.
**Focus on the name of the medication. Recalling that oral iron can cause constipation will easily direct
you to the correct option.**
106.) A nurse is preparing to administer digoxin (Lanoxin), 0.125 mg orally, to a client with heart failure.
Which vital sign is most important for the nurse to check before administering the medication?
1. Heart rate
1. Tachycardia
2. Nervousness
3. Low blood glucose level 4. Low blood glucose level
,Hesi medical surgical 1 version1 55 questions and answers 100 % latest 2023
Rationale:
β-Adrenergic blocking agents, such as atenolol, inhibit the appearance of signs and symptoms of acute
hypoglycemia, which would include nervousness, increased heart rate, and sweating. Therefore, the
client receiving this medication should adhere to the therapeutic regimen and monitor blood glucose
levels carefully. Option 4 is the most reliable indicator of hypoglycemia.
10.) A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving an intravenous (IV) infusion of an antineoplastic
medication. During the infusion, the client complains of pain at the insertion site. During an inspection
of the site, the nurse notes redness and swelling and that the rate of infusion of the medication has
slowed. The nurse should take which appropriate action?
1. Notify the registered nurse.
2. Administer pain medication to reduce the discomfort.
3. Apply ice and maintain the infusion rate, as prescribed.
4. Elevate the extremity of the IV site, and slow the infusion. 1. Notify the registered nurse.
Rationale:
When antineoplastic medications (Chemotheraputic Agents) are administered via IV, great care must be
taken to prevent the medication from escaping into the tissues surrounding the injection site, because
pain, tissue damage, and necrosis can result. The nurse monitors for signs of extravasation, such as
redness or swelling at the insertion site and a decreased infusion rate. If extravasation occurs, the
registered nurse needs to be notified; he or she will then contact the health care provider.
101.) A client is taking lansoprazole (Prevacid) for the chronic management of Zollinger-Ellison
syndrome. The nurse advises the client to take which of the following products if needed for a
headache?
1. Naprosyn (Aleve)
2. Ibuprofen (Advil)
3. Acetaminophen (Tylenol)
4. Acetylsalicylic acid (aspirin) 3. Acetaminophen (Tylenol)
Rationale:
Zollinger-Ellison syndrome is a hypersecretory condition of the stomach. The client should avoid taking
medications that are irritating to the stomach lining. Irritants would include aspirin and nonsteroidal
antiinflammatory drugs (ibuprofen). The client should be advised to take acetaminophen for headache.
**Remember that options that are comparable or alike are not likely to be correct. With this in mind,
,Hesi medical surgical 1 version1 55 questions and answers 100 % latest 2023
eliminate options 1 and 2 first.**
102.) A client who is taking hydrochlorothiazide (HydroDIURIL, HCTZ) has been started on triamterene
(Dyrenium) as well. The client asks the nurse why both medications are required. The nurse formulates a
response, based on the understanding that:
1. Both are weak potassium-losing diuretics.
2. The combination of these medications prevents renal toxicity.
3. Hydrochlorothiazide is an expensive medication, so using a combination of diuretics is cost-effective.
4. Triamterene is a potassium-sparing diuretic, whereas hydrochlorothiazide is a potassium-losing
diuretic. 4. Triamterene is a potassium-sparing diuretic, whereas hydrochlorothiazide is a
potassium-losing diuretic.
Rationale:
Potassium-sparing diuretics include amiloride (Midamor), spironolactone (Aldactone), and triamterene
(Dyrenium). They are weak diuretics that are used in combination with potassium-losing diuretics. This
combination is useful when medication and dietary supplement of potassium is not appropriate. The use of
two different diuretics does not prevent renal toxicity. Hydrochlorothiazide is an effective and inexpensive
generic form of the thiazide classification of diuretics.
**It is especially helpful to remember that hydrochlorothiazide is a potassium-losing diuretic and
triamterene is a potassium-sparing diuretic**
103.) A client who has begun taking fosinopril (Monopril) is very distressed, telling the nurse that he
cannot taste food normally since beginning the medication 2 weeks ago. The nurse provides the best
support to the client by:
1. Telling the client not to take the medication with food
2. Suggesting that the client taper the dose until taste returns to normal
3. Informing the client that impaired taste is expected and generally disappears in 2 to 3 months
4. Requesting that the health care provider (HCP) change the prescription to another brand of
angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor 3. Informing the client that impaired taste is expected
and generally disappears in 2 to 3 months
Rationale:
ACE inhibitors, such as fosinopril, cause temporary impairment of taste (dysgeusia). The nurse can tell
the client that this effect usually disappears in 2 to 3 months, even with continued therapy, and provide
nutritional counseling if appropriate to avoid weight loss. Options 1, 2, and 4 are inappropriate actions.
Taking this medication with or without food does not affect absorption and action. The dosage should
, Hesi medical surgical 1 version1 55 questions and answers 100 % latest 2023
never be tapered without HCP approval and the medication should never be stopped abruptly.
104.) A nurse is planning to administer amlodipine (Norvasc) to a client. The nurse plans to check which
of the following before giving the medication?
1. Respiratory rate
2. Blood pressure and heart rate
3. Heart rate and respiratory rate
4. Level of consciousness and blood pressure 2. Blood pressure and heart rate
Rationale:
Amlodipine is a calcium channel blocker. This medication decreases the rate and force of cardiac
contraction. Before administering a calcium channel blocking agent, the nurse should check the blood
pressure and heart rate, which could both decrease in response to the action of this medication. This
action will help to prevent or identify early problems related to decreased cardiac contractility, heart
rate, and conduction.
**amlodipine is a calcium channel blocker, and this group of medications decreases the rate and force of
cardiac contraction. This in turn lowers the pulse rate and blood pressure.**
105.) A client with chronic renal failure is receiving ferrous sulfate (Feosol). The nurse monitors the
client for which common side effect associated with this medication?
1. Diarrhea
2. Weakness
3. Headache
4. Constipation 4. Constipation
Rationale:
Feosol is an iron supplement used to treat anemia. Constipation is a frequent and uncomfortable side
effect associated with the administration of oral iron supplements. Stool softeners are often prescribed to
prevent constipation.
**Focus on the name of the medication. Recalling that oral iron can cause constipation will easily direct
you to the correct option.**
106.) A nurse is preparing to administer digoxin (Lanoxin), 0.125 mg orally, to a client with heart failure.
Which vital sign is most important for the nurse to check before administering the medication?
1. Heart rate
