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HESI RN MEDICAL SURGICAL EXAM NEWEST
2025/2026 TEST BANK| COMPLETE 250 ACTUAL
EXAM QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED
ANSWERS (VERIFIED ANSWERS) ALREADY
GRADED A+| RN MEDICAL SURGICAL HESI
EXAM REVIEW|| BRAND NEW!!
The nurse is providing dietary instructions to a 68-year-old client who is
at high risk for development of coronary heart disease (CHD). Which
information should the nurse include?
A) Limit dietary selection of cholesterol to 300 mg per day
B) Increase intake of soluble fiber to 10 to 25 grams per day.
C) Decrease plant stanols and sterols to less than 2 grams/day.
D) Ensure saturated fat is less than 30% of total caloric intake. - Correct
Answer - B) Increase intake of soluble fiber to 10 to 25 grams per day.
Rationale:
To reduce risk factors associated with coronary heart disease, the daily
intake of soluble fiber (B) should be increased to between 10 and 25 gm.
Cholesterol intake (A) should be limited to 180 mg/day or less. Intake of
plant stanols and sterols is recommended at 2 g/day (C). Saturated fat
(D) intake should be limited to 7% of total daily calories.
A splint is prescribed for nighttime use by a client with rheumatoid
arthritis. Which statement by the nurse provides the most accurate
explanation for use of the splints?
A) Prevention of deformities.
pg. 1
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B) Avoidance of joint trauma.
C) Relief of joint inflammation.
D) Improvement in joint strength. - Correct Answer - A)
Rationale:
Splints may be used at night by clients with rheumatoid arthritis to
prevent deformities (A) caused by muscle spasms and contractures.
Splints are not used for (B). (C) is usually treated with medications,
particularly those classified as non-steroidal antiinflammatory drugs
(NSAIDs). For (D), a prescribed exercise program is indicated.
A 32-year-old female client complains of severe abdominal pain each
month before her menstrual period, painful intercourse, and painful
defecation. Which additional history should the nurse obtain that is
consistent with the client's complaints?
A) Frequent urinary tract infections.
B) Inability to get pregnant.
C) Premenstrual syndrome.
D) Chronic use of laxatives. - Correct Answer - B)
Rationale:
Dysmenorrhea, dyspareunia, and difficulty or painful defecation are
common symptoms of endometriosis, which is the abnormal
displacement of endometrial tissue in the dependent areas of the pelvic
peritoneum. A history of infertility (B) is another common finding
associated with endometriosis. Although (A, C, and D) are common,
nonspecific gynecological complaints, the most common complaints of
the client with endometriosis are pain and infertility.
pg. 2
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A client with a 16-year history of diabetes mellitus is having renal
function tests because of recent fatigue, weakness, elevated blood urea
nitrogen, and serum creatinine levels. Which finding should the nurse
conclude as an early symptom of renal insufficiency?
A) Dyspnea.
B) Nocturia.
C) Confusion.
D) Stomatitis. - Correct Answer - B) Nocturia.
Rationale:
As the glomerular filtration rate decreases in early renal insufficiency,
metabolic waste products, including urea, creatinine, and other
substances, such phenols, hormones, electrolytes, accumulate in the
blood. In the early stage of renal insufficiency, polyuria results from the
inability of the kidneys to concentrate urine and contribute to nocturia
(B). (A, C, and D) are more common in the later stages of renal failure.
A client with heart disease is on a continuous telemetry monitor and has
developed sinus bradycardia. In determining the possible cause of the
bradycardia, the nurse assesses the client's medication record. Which
medication is most likely the cause of the bradycardia?
A) Propanolol (Inderal).
B) Captopril (Capoten).
C) Furosemide (Lasix).
D) Dobutamine (Dobutrex). - Correct Answer - A) Propanolol (Inderal).
Rationale:
Inderal (A) is a beta adrenergic blocking agent, which causes decreased
heart rate and decreased contractility. Neither (B), an ACE inhibitor, nor
pg. 3
, 4|Page
(C), a loop diuretic, causes bradycardia. (D) is a sympathomimetic,
direct acting cardiac stimulant, which would increase the heart rate.
A client has been taking oral corticosteroids for the past five days
because of seasonal allergies. Which assessment finding is of most
concern to the nurse?
A) White blood count of 10,000 mm3.
B) Serum glucose of 115 mg/dl.
C) Purulent sputum.
D) Excessive hunger. - Correct Answer - C) Purulent sputum.
Rationale:
Steroids cause immunosuppression, and a purulent sputum (C) is an
indication of infection, so this symptom is of greatest concern. Oral
steroids may increase (A) and often cause (D). (B) may remain normal,
borderline, or increase while taking oral steroids.
A female client receiving IV vasopressin (Pitressin) for esophageal
varice rupture reports to the nurse that she feels substernal tightness and
pressure across her chest. Which PRN protocol should the nurse initiate?
A) Start an IV nitroglycerin infusion.
B) Nasogastric lavage with cool saline.
C) Increase the vasopressin infusion.
D) Prepare for endotracheal intubation. - Correct Answer - A) Start an
IV nitroglycerin infusion.
Rationale:
pg. 4
HESI RN MEDICAL SURGICAL EXAM NEWEST
2025/2026 TEST BANK| COMPLETE 250 ACTUAL
EXAM QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED
ANSWERS (VERIFIED ANSWERS) ALREADY
GRADED A+| RN MEDICAL SURGICAL HESI
EXAM REVIEW|| BRAND NEW!!
The nurse is providing dietary instructions to a 68-year-old client who is
at high risk for development of coronary heart disease (CHD). Which
information should the nurse include?
A) Limit dietary selection of cholesterol to 300 mg per day
B) Increase intake of soluble fiber to 10 to 25 grams per day.
C) Decrease plant stanols and sterols to less than 2 grams/day.
D) Ensure saturated fat is less than 30% of total caloric intake. - Correct
Answer - B) Increase intake of soluble fiber to 10 to 25 grams per day.
Rationale:
To reduce risk factors associated with coronary heart disease, the daily
intake of soluble fiber (B) should be increased to between 10 and 25 gm.
Cholesterol intake (A) should be limited to 180 mg/day or less. Intake of
plant stanols and sterols is recommended at 2 g/day (C). Saturated fat
(D) intake should be limited to 7% of total daily calories.
A splint is prescribed for nighttime use by a client with rheumatoid
arthritis. Which statement by the nurse provides the most accurate
explanation for use of the splints?
A) Prevention of deformities.
pg. 1
,2|Page
B) Avoidance of joint trauma.
C) Relief of joint inflammation.
D) Improvement in joint strength. - Correct Answer - A)
Rationale:
Splints may be used at night by clients with rheumatoid arthritis to
prevent deformities (A) caused by muscle spasms and contractures.
Splints are not used for (B). (C) is usually treated with medications,
particularly those classified as non-steroidal antiinflammatory drugs
(NSAIDs). For (D), a prescribed exercise program is indicated.
A 32-year-old female client complains of severe abdominal pain each
month before her menstrual period, painful intercourse, and painful
defecation. Which additional history should the nurse obtain that is
consistent with the client's complaints?
A) Frequent urinary tract infections.
B) Inability to get pregnant.
C) Premenstrual syndrome.
D) Chronic use of laxatives. - Correct Answer - B)
Rationale:
Dysmenorrhea, dyspareunia, and difficulty or painful defecation are
common symptoms of endometriosis, which is the abnormal
displacement of endometrial tissue in the dependent areas of the pelvic
peritoneum. A history of infertility (B) is another common finding
associated with endometriosis. Although (A, C, and D) are common,
nonspecific gynecological complaints, the most common complaints of
the client with endometriosis are pain and infertility.
pg. 2
,3|Page
A client with a 16-year history of diabetes mellitus is having renal
function tests because of recent fatigue, weakness, elevated blood urea
nitrogen, and serum creatinine levels. Which finding should the nurse
conclude as an early symptom of renal insufficiency?
A) Dyspnea.
B) Nocturia.
C) Confusion.
D) Stomatitis. - Correct Answer - B) Nocturia.
Rationale:
As the glomerular filtration rate decreases in early renal insufficiency,
metabolic waste products, including urea, creatinine, and other
substances, such phenols, hormones, electrolytes, accumulate in the
blood. In the early stage of renal insufficiency, polyuria results from the
inability of the kidneys to concentrate urine and contribute to nocturia
(B). (A, C, and D) are more common in the later stages of renal failure.
A client with heart disease is on a continuous telemetry monitor and has
developed sinus bradycardia. In determining the possible cause of the
bradycardia, the nurse assesses the client's medication record. Which
medication is most likely the cause of the bradycardia?
A) Propanolol (Inderal).
B) Captopril (Capoten).
C) Furosemide (Lasix).
D) Dobutamine (Dobutrex). - Correct Answer - A) Propanolol (Inderal).
Rationale:
Inderal (A) is a beta adrenergic blocking agent, which causes decreased
heart rate and decreased contractility. Neither (B), an ACE inhibitor, nor
pg. 3
, 4|Page
(C), a loop diuretic, causes bradycardia. (D) is a sympathomimetic,
direct acting cardiac stimulant, which would increase the heart rate.
A client has been taking oral corticosteroids for the past five days
because of seasonal allergies. Which assessment finding is of most
concern to the nurse?
A) White blood count of 10,000 mm3.
B) Serum glucose of 115 mg/dl.
C) Purulent sputum.
D) Excessive hunger. - Correct Answer - C) Purulent sputum.
Rationale:
Steroids cause immunosuppression, and a purulent sputum (C) is an
indication of infection, so this symptom is of greatest concern. Oral
steroids may increase (A) and often cause (D). (B) may remain normal,
borderline, or increase while taking oral steroids.
A female client receiving IV vasopressin (Pitressin) for esophageal
varice rupture reports to the nurse that she feels substernal tightness and
pressure across her chest. Which PRN protocol should the nurse initiate?
A) Start an IV nitroglycerin infusion.
B) Nasogastric lavage with cool saline.
C) Increase the vasopressin infusion.
D) Prepare for endotracheal intubation. - Correct Answer - A) Start an
IV nitroglycerin infusion.
Rationale:
pg. 4
