HESI RN MEDICAL SURGICAL EXAM PACK 2024
QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS NEWEST UPDATED
2024/2025 A COMPLETE EXAM SOLUTION WITH 100%
CORRECT CONFIRMED ANSWERS BEST RATED A+ FOR
PASS
The nurse is providing dietary instructions to a 68-year-old client who is at high risk for development of
coronary heart disease (CHD). Which information should the nurse include?
A) Limit dietary selection of cholesterol to 300 mg per day
B) Increase intake of soluble fiber to 10 to 25 grams per day.
C) Decrease plant stanols and sterols to less than 2 grams/day.
D) Ensure saturated fat is less than 30% of total caloric intake. - CORRECT ANSWERS B)
Increase intake of soluble fiber to 10 to 25 grams per day.
Rationale: To reduce risk factors associated with coronary heart disease, the daily intake of soluble fiber
(B) should be increased to between 10 and 25 gm. Cholesterol intake (A) should be limited to 180
mg/day or less. Intake of plant stanols and sterols is recommended at 2 g/day (C). Saturated fat (D)
intake should be limited to 7% of total daily calories.
A splint is prescribed for nighttime use by a client with rheumatoid arthritis. Which statement by the
nurse provides the most accurate explanation for use of the splints?
A) Prevention of deformities.
B) Avoidance of joint trauma.
C) Relief of joint inflammation.
D) Improvement in joint strength. - CORRECT ANSWERS A) Prevention of deformities.
Rationale: Splints may be used at night by clients with rheumatoid arthritis to prevent deformities (A)
caused by muscle spasms and contractures. Splints are not used for (B). (C) is usually treated with
medications, particularly those classified as non-steroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs). For (D), a
prescribed exercise program is indicated.
,HESI RN MEDICAL SURGICAL EXAM PACK 2024
QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS NEWEST UPDATED
2024/2025 A COMPLETE EXAM SOLUTION WITH 100%
CORRECT CONFIRMED ANSWERS BEST RATED A+ FOR
PASS
A 32-year-old female client complains of severe abdominal pain each month before her menstrual
period, painful intercourse, and painful defecation. Which additional history should the nurse obtain
that is consistent with the client's complaints?
A) Frequent urinary tract infections.
B) Inability to get pregnant.
C) Premenstrual syndrome.
D) Chronic use of laxatives. - CORRECT ANSWERS B) Inability to get pregnant.
Rationale: Dysmenorrhea, dyspareunia, and difficulty or painful defecation are common symptoms of
endometriosis, which is the abnormal displacement of endometrial tissue in the dependent areas of the
pelvic peritoneum. A history of infertility (B) is another common finding associated with endometriosis.
Although (A, C, and D) are common, nonspecific gynecological complaints, the most common complaints
of the client with endometriosis are pain and infertility.
A client with a 16-year history of diabetes mellitus is having renal function tests because of recent
fatigue, weakness, elevated blood urea nitrogen, and serum creatinine levels. Which finding should the
nurse conclude as an early symptom of renal insufficiency?
A) Dyspnea.
B) Nocturia.
C) Confusion.
D) Stomatitis. - CORRECT ANSWERS B) Nocturia.
Rationale: As the glomerular filtration rate decreases in early renal insufficiency, metabolic waste
products, including urea, creatinine, and other substances, such phenols, hormones, electrolytes,
accumulate in the blood. In the early stage of renal insufficiency, polyuria results from the inability of
,HESI RN MEDICAL SURGICAL EXAM PACK 2024
QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS NEWEST UPDATED
2024/2025 A COMPLETE EXAM SOLUTION WITH 100%
CORRECT CONFIRMED ANSWERS BEST RATED A+ FOR
PASS
the kidneys to concentrate urine and contribute to nocturia (B). (A, C, and D) are more common in the
later stages of renal failure.
A client with heart disease is on a continuous telemetry monitor and has developed sinus bradycardia. In
determining the possible cause of the bradycardia, the nurse assesses the client's medication record.
Which medication is most likely the cause of the bradycardia?
A) Propanolol (Inderal).
B) Captopril (Capoten).
C) Furosemide (Lasix).
D) Dobutamine (Dobutrex). - CORRECT ANSWERS A) Propanolol (Inderal).
Rationale: Inderal (A) is a beta adrenergic blocking agent, which causes decreased heart rate and
decreased contractility. Neither (B), an ACE inhibitor, nor (C), a loop diuretic, causes bradycardia. (D) is a
sympathomimetic, direct acting cardiac stimulant, which would increase the heart rate.
A client has been taking oral corticosteroids for the past five days because of seasonal allergies. Which
assessment finding is of most concern to the nurse?
A) White blood count of 10,000 mm3.
B) Serum glucose of 115 mg/dl.
C) Purulent sputum.
D) Excessive hunger. - CORRECT ANSWERS C) Purulent sputum.
, HESI RN MEDICAL SURGICAL EXAM PACK 2024
QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS NEWEST UPDATED
2024/2025 A COMPLETE EXAM SOLUTION WITH 100%
CORRECT CONFIRMED ANSWERS BEST RATED A+ FOR
PASS
Rationale: Steroids cause immunosuppression, and a purulent sputum (C) is an indication of infection, so
this symptom is of greatest concern. Oral steroids may increase (A) and often cause (D). (B) may remain
normal, borderline, or increase while taking oral steroids.
A female client receiving IV vasopressin (Pitressin) for esophageal varice rupture reports to the nurse
that she feels substernal tightness and pressure across her chest. Which PRN protocol should the nurse
initiate?
A) Start an IV nitroglycerin infusion.
B) Nasogastric lavage with cool saline.
C) Increase the vasopressin infusion.
D) Prepare for endotracheal intubation. - CORRECT ANSWERS A) Start an IV nitroglycerin
infusion.
Rationale: Vasopressin is used to promote vasoconstriction, thereby reducing bleeding. Vasoconstriction
of the coronary arteries can lead to angina and myocardial infarction, and should be counteracted by IV
nitroglycerin per prescribed protocol (A). (B) will not resolve the cardiac problem. (C) will worsen the
problem. Endotracheal intubation may be needed if respiratory distress occurs (D).
A client with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) has been experiencing severe reflux during sleep.
Which recommendation by the nurse is most effective to assist the client?
A) Losing weight.
B) Decreasing caffeine intake.
C) Avoiding large meals.
D) Raising the head of the bed on blocks. - CORRECT ANSWERS D) Raising the head of the bed
on blocks.
QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS NEWEST UPDATED
2024/2025 A COMPLETE EXAM SOLUTION WITH 100%
CORRECT CONFIRMED ANSWERS BEST RATED A+ FOR
PASS
The nurse is providing dietary instructions to a 68-year-old client who is at high risk for development of
coronary heart disease (CHD). Which information should the nurse include?
A) Limit dietary selection of cholesterol to 300 mg per day
B) Increase intake of soluble fiber to 10 to 25 grams per day.
C) Decrease plant stanols and sterols to less than 2 grams/day.
D) Ensure saturated fat is less than 30% of total caloric intake. - CORRECT ANSWERS B)
Increase intake of soluble fiber to 10 to 25 grams per day.
Rationale: To reduce risk factors associated with coronary heart disease, the daily intake of soluble fiber
(B) should be increased to between 10 and 25 gm. Cholesterol intake (A) should be limited to 180
mg/day or less. Intake of plant stanols and sterols is recommended at 2 g/day (C). Saturated fat (D)
intake should be limited to 7% of total daily calories.
A splint is prescribed for nighttime use by a client with rheumatoid arthritis. Which statement by the
nurse provides the most accurate explanation for use of the splints?
A) Prevention of deformities.
B) Avoidance of joint trauma.
C) Relief of joint inflammation.
D) Improvement in joint strength. - CORRECT ANSWERS A) Prevention of deformities.
Rationale: Splints may be used at night by clients with rheumatoid arthritis to prevent deformities (A)
caused by muscle spasms and contractures. Splints are not used for (B). (C) is usually treated with
medications, particularly those classified as non-steroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs). For (D), a
prescribed exercise program is indicated.
,HESI RN MEDICAL SURGICAL EXAM PACK 2024
QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS NEWEST UPDATED
2024/2025 A COMPLETE EXAM SOLUTION WITH 100%
CORRECT CONFIRMED ANSWERS BEST RATED A+ FOR
PASS
A 32-year-old female client complains of severe abdominal pain each month before her menstrual
period, painful intercourse, and painful defecation. Which additional history should the nurse obtain
that is consistent with the client's complaints?
A) Frequent urinary tract infections.
B) Inability to get pregnant.
C) Premenstrual syndrome.
D) Chronic use of laxatives. - CORRECT ANSWERS B) Inability to get pregnant.
Rationale: Dysmenorrhea, dyspareunia, and difficulty or painful defecation are common symptoms of
endometriosis, which is the abnormal displacement of endometrial tissue in the dependent areas of the
pelvic peritoneum. A history of infertility (B) is another common finding associated with endometriosis.
Although (A, C, and D) are common, nonspecific gynecological complaints, the most common complaints
of the client with endometriosis are pain and infertility.
A client with a 16-year history of diabetes mellitus is having renal function tests because of recent
fatigue, weakness, elevated blood urea nitrogen, and serum creatinine levels. Which finding should the
nurse conclude as an early symptom of renal insufficiency?
A) Dyspnea.
B) Nocturia.
C) Confusion.
D) Stomatitis. - CORRECT ANSWERS B) Nocturia.
Rationale: As the glomerular filtration rate decreases in early renal insufficiency, metabolic waste
products, including urea, creatinine, and other substances, such phenols, hormones, electrolytes,
accumulate in the blood. In the early stage of renal insufficiency, polyuria results from the inability of
,HESI RN MEDICAL SURGICAL EXAM PACK 2024
QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS NEWEST UPDATED
2024/2025 A COMPLETE EXAM SOLUTION WITH 100%
CORRECT CONFIRMED ANSWERS BEST RATED A+ FOR
PASS
the kidneys to concentrate urine and contribute to nocturia (B). (A, C, and D) are more common in the
later stages of renal failure.
A client with heart disease is on a continuous telemetry monitor and has developed sinus bradycardia. In
determining the possible cause of the bradycardia, the nurse assesses the client's medication record.
Which medication is most likely the cause of the bradycardia?
A) Propanolol (Inderal).
B) Captopril (Capoten).
C) Furosemide (Lasix).
D) Dobutamine (Dobutrex). - CORRECT ANSWERS A) Propanolol (Inderal).
Rationale: Inderal (A) is a beta adrenergic blocking agent, which causes decreased heart rate and
decreased contractility. Neither (B), an ACE inhibitor, nor (C), a loop diuretic, causes bradycardia. (D) is a
sympathomimetic, direct acting cardiac stimulant, which would increase the heart rate.
A client has been taking oral corticosteroids for the past five days because of seasonal allergies. Which
assessment finding is of most concern to the nurse?
A) White blood count of 10,000 mm3.
B) Serum glucose of 115 mg/dl.
C) Purulent sputum.
D) Excessive hunger. - CORRECT ANSWERS C) Purulent sputum.
, HESI RN MEDICAL SURGICAL EXAM PACK 2024
QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS NEWEST UPDATED
2024/2025 A COMPLETE EXAM SOLUTION WITH 100%
CORRECT CONFIRMED ANSWERS BEST RATED A+ FOR
PASS
Rationale: Steroids cause immunosuppression, and a purulent sputum (C) is an indication of infection, so
this symptom is of greatest concern. Oral steroids may increase (A) and often cause (D). (B) may remain
normal, borderline, or increase while taking oral steroids.
A female client receiving IV vasopressin (Pitressin) for esophageal varice rupture reports to the nurse
that she feels substernal tightness and pressure across her chest. Which PRN protocol should the nurse
initiate?
A) Start an IV nitroglycerin infusion.
B) Nasogastric lavage with cool saline.
C) Increase the vasopressin infusion.
D) Prepare for endotracheal intubation. - CORRECT ANSWERS A) Start an IV nitroglycerin
infusion.
Rationale: Vasopressin is used to promote vasoconstriction, thereby reducing bleeding. Vasoconstriction
of the coronary arteries can lead to angina and myocardial infarction, and should be counteracted by IV
nitroglycerin per prescribed protocol (A). (B) will not resolve the cardiac problem. (C) will worsen the
problem. Endotracheal intubation may be needed if respiratory distress occurs (D).
A client with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) has been experiencing severe reflux during sleep.
Which recommendation by the nurse is most effective to assist the client?
A) Losing weight.
B) Decreasing caffeine intake.
C) Avoiding large meals.
D) Raising the head of the bed on blocks. - CORRECT ANSWERS D) Raising the head of the bed
on blocks.
