NSC EMT FINAL EXAM 2025

NSC EMT FINAL EXAM 2025 Which of the following statements regarding crush syndrome is correct? A) Tissue damage that occurs in crush syndrome is severe, but kidney injury is unlikely because toxins are quickly eliminated from the body. B) With crush syndrome, massive blood vessel damage occurs following severe soft-tissue injuries, such as amputation of an extremity. C) Provided that a patient with a crush injury is freed from entrapment within 6 hours, the amount of tissue damaged is generally minimal. Correct! D)Compromised arterial blood flow leads to crush syndrome and can occur when an area of the body is trapped for longer than 4 hours. - ANS --> D) Compromised arterial blood flow leads to crush syndrome and can occur when an area of the body is trapped for longer than 4 hours? A 56-year-old male has an incomplete avulsion to his right forearm. After controlling any bleeding from the wound, you should? - ANS --> replace the avulsed flap to its original position and cover it with a sterile dressing. During your assessment of a patient who was shot in the abdomen, you notice a large entrance wound with multiple small puncture wounds surrounding it. This wound pattern is MOST consistent with a? - ANS --> shotgun. A 39-year-old male was struck in the head by a baseball during a game. He is confused and has slurred speech. He has a large hematoma in the center of his forehead and cannot remember the events preceding the injury. After manually stabilizing his head and assessing his airway, you should? - ANS --> administer high-flow oxygen As you approach a young male who was involved in an industrial accident, you note that his eyes are closed and that he is not moving. You can see several large contusions to his arms, a laceration to his forehead with minimal bleeding, and a closed deformity to his right leg. You should? - ANS --> open his airway and assess his breathing status When performing a full body scan, you should assess for - ANS --> DCAP-BTLS If your patient swallows blood following facial trauma, there is an increased risk of? - ANS --> vomiting The MOST significant complication associated with facial injuries is? - ANS --> airway compromise When caring for a patient with an open facial injury, the EMT's immediate priority should be to? - ANS --> wear gloves and facial protection Significant trauma to the face should increase the EMT's index of suspicion for a(n)? - ANS --> spinal column injury You are assessing a 59-year-old male and note that his pupils are unequal. He is conscious and alert. When obtaining his medical history, it is MOST pertinent to ask him if he? - ANS --> has a history of eye surgeries When transporting a patient with a facial injury, it is MOST important to be as descriptive as possible with the hospital regarding the patient's injuries because? - ANS --> they may need to call a specialist to see the patient Bleeding from soft-tissue injuries to the face is MOST effectively controlled with? - ANS --> direct pressure using dry, sterile dressings Glasgow Coma Scale (Eyes) - ANS --> E 4 V 5 M 6 Eyes 4- spontaneous 3- response to voice 2- Response to pain 1- unresponsive Glasgow Coma Scale (Verbal) - ANS --> E 4 V 5 M 6 Verbal 5- Oriented, converses normally 4- Confused, disoriented 3- Utters incoherent words 2- Incomprehensible sounds 1- unresponsive Glasgow Coma Scale (Motor) - ANS --> E 4 V 5 M 6 Motor 6- Obeys commands 5- Localizes to painful stimuli 4- Flexion / Withdrawal to painful stimuli 3- Abnormal flexion to painful stimuli (decorticate response) 2- Extension to painful stimuli (decerebrate response) 1- unresponsive Decorticate response - ANS --> with elbows, wrists and fingers flexed, and legs extended and rotated inward Decerebrate response - ANS --> the head is arched back, the arms are extended by the sides, and the legs are extended A patient has a large accumulation of blood in the sac surrounding the heart. Which type of shock would this condition cause? - ANS --> Obstructive Your patient is involved in a MVA. MVA stands for? - ANS --> Motor Vehicle Accident You are caring for a very sick patient who is complaining of chest pain. You have him in your cardiac monitor showing AF. Suddenly the patient goes into VF, so you attach your AED and shock him. What is AF, VF, and AED - ANS --> AF - Atrial fibrillation VF - Ventricle fibrillation AED - Automated External Defibrilator When carrying a patient up or down stairs, you should avoid? - ANS --> Using a wheeled stretcher whenever possible The minimum number of rescuers to lift a patient who weighs 250 lbs or more? - ANS --> 4 To avoid injury when pushing a patient or object, you should? - ANS --> Avoid pushing with your elbows fully extended. You and your partner enter the residence of an elderly couple, both of whom are found unconscious in their bed with no evidence of trauma. As you begin your assessment, you and your partner notice the smell of natural gas. What should you do? - ANS --> Rapidly remove the patients from the residence using a blanket or sheets Situation in which you should use the rapid extrication technique include all of the following EXCEPT? A) PT who can be properly assessed while still in the vehicle B) PT who blocks the access to another seriously injured pt C) PT who needs immediate care that requires a supine position D) PT whose condition requires immediate trnasport - ANS --> A) PT who can be properly assessed while still in the vehicle When performing the rapid extrication technique to remove a pt from the vehicle, you should? - ANS --> Apply a cervical collar and remove the pt on a long backboard In which of the situation would a ground lift be the MOST appropriate method of moving a pt? A) A conscious pt complaining of abdominal pain B) PT who complains of hip pain following a fall C) Pedestrian with back pain after being struck by a car D) Unconscious pt with possible ischemic stroke - ANS --> A) A conscious pt complaining of abdominal pain The extremity lift would NOT be appropriate to use on a pt with? - ANS --> Any deformed extremities The direct carry is used to transfer a pt... - ANS --> From a bed to the ambulance stretcher The MOST appropriate method to use when moving a pt from a bed to a wheeled stretcher is? - ANS --> the draw sheet method An 81 yr old female fell and struck her head. You find her lying on her left side, conscious and complaining of neck and upper back pain. As you are assessing her, you note she has a severely kyphotic spine. How do you immobilize her? - ANS --> Lever her on her side and use blanket rolls to immobile her to a long backboard. In most instances, you should move a pt on a wheeled ambulance stretcher by? - ANS --> Pushing the head of the stretcher while your partner guides the foot An unrestrained pt is sitting in the car after a MVA. He is conscious and alert, has no visible trauma, and is complaining of neck and back pain. Before removing him, you should? - ANS --> Apply a cervical collar and immobilize him with a vest style device Which of the following statements regarding a scoop stretcher is NOT correct? A) The construction of the scoop stretcher prohibits X-rays while PT is on it B)You must fully secure the pt to the scoop stretcher before moving C) A scoop stretcher will provide adequate immobilization of a pt's spinal column D) Both sides of the pt must be accessible for a scoop stretcher to be used - ANS --> C) A scoop stretcher will provide adequate immobilization of a pt's spinal column EMTs should have strong working knowledge of medical terminology in order to? - ANS --> Communicate effectively with other members of the health care team To protect a restrained pt and prevent him from using leverage to break free, the EMT should secure? - ANS --> One arm above the head Which of the following is the MOST appropriate device to use when immobilizing a pt with suspected spinal injury A) Long backboard B) Scoop stretcher C) Portable stretcher D) Wheeled stretcher - ANS --> A) Long backboard To facilitate a safe coordinated move, the team leader should? - ANS --> use preparatory commands to initiate any moves AS you and your partner carry a stable pt down a flight of stairs in a stair chair, you feel a sudden sharp pain in your lower back. You should? - ANS --> Stop the move and request additional lifting assistance. When pulling a pt, you should extend your arms no more than ______ in front of your torso - ANS --> 15 - 20 inches Which of the following statements regarding an emergency pt move IS correct? A) The spine must be fully immobilized prior to performing the move B) An emergency move is performed before the primary assessment C) The pt is dragged against the long axis during the move D) It is not possible to perform the move without injuring the pt - ANS --> B) An emergency move is performed before the primary assessment The MOST serious consequence of a poorly planned or rushed pt move is? - ANS --> Injury to the pt In contrast to a typical wheeled ambulance stretcher, the bariatric stretcher includes? - ANS --> Increased stability from a wider wheelbase When moving a conscious, weak pt down a flight of staris, you should? - ANS --> Place the wheeled stretcher at the bottom of the sitars and carry the pt using a stair chair You are attending to a 26 yr old female who is 34 weeks prego with her first child. She is complaining of lower abdominal pains and cramps for the past two hours. In placing her on the stretcher for transport, you should place her... - ANS --> On her left side Which of the following scenarios does NOT involve the presence of any symptoms A) 44 yr old pt with abdominal pain and dizziness B) 49 yr old pt with blurred vision and ringing ears C) 55 yr pt with headache and 2 days of nausea D) 61 yr old pt who is unconscious with cyanosis - ANS --> D) 61 yr old pt who is unconscious with cyanosis Which of the following actions would NOT be performed during the scene size up? A) Asking a neighbor to secure the pt's dog B) Rapidly assessing the pt's respiratory status C) Notifying the dispatcher to send fire personnel D) Noting the position of a crashed car - ANS --> C) Notifying the dispatcher to send fire personnel What part of the nervous system controls the body's voluntary activities - ANS --> Somatic When activated, the sympathetic nervous system produces all of the following except? A) Pupillary Constriction B) Increase heart rate C) Shunting of blood to vital organs D) Dilation of the bronchiole smooth muscle - ANS --> A) Pupillary Constriction Common signs and symptoms of a serious head injury include all of the following EXCEPT A) Rapid, thready pulse B) Widening Pule Pressure C) CSF leakage D) Decrebrate posturing - ANS --> A) Rapid, thready pulse When assessing a pt with a head injury; you note the presence of thin, bloody fluid draining from his right ear. This indicates? - ANS --> Rupture of the tympanic membrane following diffuse impact to the head. Which of the following statements regarding secondary brain injury is correct? A) It results from direct brain trauma following an impact to the head B) B/c cerebral edema develops quickly, it is considered to be a primary brain injury C) Hypoxia and hypotension are the two most common causes of secondary brain injury D) Signs are often present immediately after impact to the head. - ANS --> C) Hypoxia and hypotension are the two most common causes of secondary brain injury In contrast to cerebral concussion, a cerebral contusion... - ANS --> involves physical injury to the brain tissue Hyperextension injuries of the spine are most commonly a result of? - ANS --> hangings Children are often belly breathers because? - ANS --> Their intercostal muscles are not developed Closed chest injuries are typically caused by? - ANS --> Blunt Trauma PTs with chest injuries will often present with? - ANS --> tachypnea Which of the following is most likely to cuase immediate death? A) Myocardial contusion B) Pulmonary contusion C) Aortic dissection D) Aortic Rupture - ANS --> D) Aortic Rupture A spinal injury at the level of C7 would most likely result in? - ANS --> Paralysis of the intercostal muscles If a pt with a chest injury is only able to inhale small amounts of air per breath, he or she? - ANS --> must increase respiratory rate to maintain adequate minute volume In order to avoid exacerbating a pt's injury, it is especially important to use extreme cuation when providing positive pressure ventilation to patients with? - ANS --> Flail Chest An open pneumothorax occurs when? - ANS --> Air enters the pleural space from outside the body You have sealed the open chest wound of a 40 yr old male who was stabbed in the anterior chest. Your reassessment reveals he is experiencing increasing respiratory distress and tachycardia and is developing cyanosis. You should... - ANS --> Partially remove the dressing A pt who does not respond to your questions, but moves or cries out when his or her trapezius muscle is pinched is said to be? - ANS --> Responsive to painful stimuli After performing a head tilt-chin lift maneuver to open the airway of an unresponsive pt who has a pulse, you should? - ANS --> Suction as needed and insert an airway adjunct A pt with spontaneous respirations is breahting... - ANS --> without assistance You are assessing a 72 yr old pt with abdominal pain while he is sitting in a chair conscious, alert, and calm. As you are talking to the pt, your partner discreetly directs your attention to a handgun which is located on a nearby table. you should? - ANS --> Position yourself in between the pt and the gun and ask your partner to request law enforcement assistance Which of the following statements regarding the mechanism of injury (MOI) is correct? A) A non significant MOI rules out the possibility of serious trauma B) The MOI may allow you to predict the severity of a pt's injuries C) The exact location of a pt's injuries can be determined by the MOI D) A significant MOI always results in death - ANS --> B) The MOI may allow you to predict the severity of a pt's injuries An elderly pt has fallen and hit her head, your initial care should focus on? - ANS --> Airway, breathing, circulation ABCs An injured PT is assigned a GCS of 9. E2, V3, M4. What does this mean - ANS --> opens eyes in response to pain, uses inappropriate words, withdraws from pain When you shine a light into one pupil, the normal reaction of the other pupil should? - ANS --> become smaller (constrict) What maneuver should be used to open the airway of un unresponsive pt with suspected trauma? - ANS --> Jaw thrust maneuver You should suspect a pt is experiencing respiratory failure if he or she? - ANS --> Has bradycardia and diminished cardiac contractions A 39 yr old male sustained a stab wound to the groin during an altercation at a bar. As you approach, you note he is conscious. He is screaming in pain and is attempting to control the bleeding, which is red and spurting from his groin area. You should? - ANS --> Apply direct pressure to the wound. Which of the following is an example of a symptom? A. cyanosis B. headache C. tachycardia D. hypertension - ANS --> B. headache An EMT's primary responsibility to the patient who has been poisoned is to: A) administer the appropriate antidote. B) recognize that a poisoning occurred. C) administer 25 g of activated charcoal. D) contact poison control immediately. - ANS --> B) recognize that a poisoning occurred. Which of the following is an example of a symptom? A. cyanosis B. headache C. tachycardia D. hypertension - ANS --> Headache An EMT's primary responsibility to the patient who has been poisoned is to: A) administer the appropriate antidote. B) recognize that a poisoning occurred. C) administer 25 g of activated charcoal. D) contact poison control immediately. - ANS --> Recognize that a poisoning occurred. What three bones make up the shoulder girdle? A. clavicle, scapula, humerus B. acromion, clavicle, scapula C. acromion, scapula, humerus D. acromion, humerus, clavicle - ANS --> acromion, scapula, humerus A 73-year-old man presents with a generalized rash, which he thinks may have been caused by an antibiotic that he recently began taking. He has a history of coronary artery disease, hypertension, and emphysema. He is conscious and alert, his blood pressure is 144/94 mm Hg, and his pulse is 64 beats/min and regular. You auscultate his breath sounds and hear scattered wheezing, although he is not experiencing respiratory distress. You should: A) administer oxygen if needed, transport the patient, and monitor him for signs of deterioration. B) ask him if he has epinephrine and request approval from medical control to administer it to the patient. C) avoid the use of epinephrine because of his cardiac history, even if his symptoms become severe. D) begin transport and request to administer epinephrine if his systolic blood pressure falls below 110 mm Hg. - ANS --> Administer oxygen if needed, transport the patient, and monitor him for signs of deterioration. Upon arriving at a potentially unsafe scene, you should: A. remove all bystanders. B. request another ambulance. C. move the patient to safety. D. ensure that you are safe. - ANS --> Ensure that you are safe You are dispatched to a residence for a 67-year-old female who was awakened by shortness of breath and sharp chest pain. Her husband tells you that she was recently discharged from the hospital after having hip surgery. Your assessment reveals dried blood around her mouth, facial cyanosis, and an oxygen saturation of 88%. You should suspect: A) acute pulmonary edema. B) right-sided heart failure. C) acute pulmonary embolism. D) spontaneous pneumothorax. - ANS --> Acute pulmonary embolism. Which of the following statements regarding the mechanism of injury (MOI) is correct? A. A nonsignificant MOI rules out the possibility of serious trauma. B. The MOI may allow you to predict the severity of a patient's injuries. C. The exact location of a patient's injuries can be determined by the MOI. D. A significant MOI always results in patient death or permanent disability. - ANS --> The MOI may allow you to predict the severity of a patient's injuries. Observations made when forming a general impression of a patient would include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. appearance. B. pulse strength. C. race and gender. D. level of distress. - ANS --> Pulse strength. Typical components of an oral patient report include all of the following, EXCEPT: A) the chief complaint or mechanism of injury. B) important medical history not previously given. C) the set of baseline vital signs taken at the scene. D) the patient's response to treatment you provided. - ANS --> The set of baseline vital signs taken at the scene. Calming and reassuring an anxious patient can be facilitated by: A) maintaining eye contact with the patient whenever possible. B) using medical terminology to ensure the patient understands. C) positioning yourself at a level that is higher than the patient. D) withholding unpleasant information until arrival at the hospital. - ANS --> Maintaining eye contact with the patient whenever possible. When approaching a 32-year-old male who is complaining of traumatic neck pain, you should: A. ensure that the patient can see you approaching him. B. approach him from behind and ask him not to move. C. stand behind him and immediately stabilize his head. D. assess his mental status by having him move his head. - ANS --> Ensure that the patient can see you approaching him. Common signs and symptoms of an allergic reaction include all of the following, EXCEPT: A) abdominal cramps. B) drying of the eyes. C) flushing of the skin. D) persistent dry cough - ANS --> Drying of the eyes. Which of the following conditions would be LEAST likely to cause an altered level of consciousness? A. drug overdose B. inadequate perfusion C. acute anxiety D. poisoning - ANS --> Acute anxiety Patients with uncontrolled diabetes experience polyuria because: A) they drink excess amounts of water due to dehydration. B) excess glucose in the blood is excreted by the kidneys. C) low blood glucose levels result in cellular dehydration. D) high blood sugar levels cause permanent kidney damage. - ANS --> Excess glucose in the blood is excreted by the kidneys. Which of the following patients does NOT have an altered mental status? A. a patient with an acute allergic reaction and dizziness B. a diabetic who opens his eyes when you ask questions C. a patient with a head injury who is slow to answer questions D. a patient who overdosed and moans when he is touched - ANS --> A patient with an acute allergic reaction and dizziness A patient who does not respond to your questions but moves or cries out when his or her trapezius muscle is pinched, is said to be: A. conscious and alert. B. completely unresponsive. C. responsive to verbal stimuli. D. responsive to painful stimuli. - ANS --> Responsive to painful stimuli. A 70-year-old female was recently discharged from the hospital following a total hip replacement. Today, she presents with restlessness, tachycardia, and a blood pressure of 100/64 mm Hg. Her skin is hot and moist. You should be MOST suspicious that she is experiencing: A) septic shock. B) pump failure. C) a local infection. D) decompensated shock. - ANS --> Septic shock. Abdominal thrusts in a conscious child or adult with a severe upper airway obstruction are performed: A) until he or she loses consciousness. B) in sets of five followed by reassessment. C) about 1 inch below the xiphoid process. D) until he or she experiences cardiac arrest. - ANS --> Until he or she loses consciousness. When you inspect a patient's pupils with a penlight, the pupils should normally react to the light by: A. constricting. B. enlarging. C. dilating. D. fluttering. - ANS --> Constricting. The left ventricle has the thickest walls because it: A) pumps blood to the lungs to be reoxygenated. B) uses less oxygen than other chambers of the heart. C) pumps blood into the aorta and systemic circulation. D) receives blood directly from the systemic circulation. - ANS --> Pumps blood into the aorta and systemic circulation. Which of the following pupillary changes would indicate depressed brain function? A. Both pupils dilate when a bright light is removed. B. Both pupils constrict when a bright light is introduced. C. Both pupils react briskly to light instead of sluggishly. D. Both pupils dilate with introduction of a bright light. - ANS --> Both pupils dilate with introduction of a bright light. A 50-year-old man with diabetes has an altered mental status and is unable to tell you when he last ate or took his insulin. Your glucometer keeps malfunctioning and you are unable to determine his blood glucose level. Which of the following clinical signs would MOST likely lead you to the correct diagnosis? A) Rapid and weak pulse B) Deep and rapid breathing C) Restlessness and irritability D) Hypotension and tachycardia - ANS --> Deep and rapid breathing An adult at rest should have a respiratory rate that ranges between: A. 8 and 15 breaths/min. B. 10 and 18 breaths/min. C. 12 and 20 breaths/min. D. 16 and 24 breaths/min. - ANS --> 12 and 20 breaths/min. Erosion of the protective layer of the stomach or duodenum secondary to overactivity of digestive juices results in: A) ileus. B) an ulcer. C) appendicitis. D) cholecystitis. - ANS --> an ulcer. What is the MOST common cause of airway obstruction in an unconscious patient? A. vomitus B. the tongue C. blood clots D. aspirated fluid - ANS --> the tongue Which of the following statements regarding gastrointestinal bleeding is correct? A) In the majority of cases, bleeding within the gastrointestinal tract occurs acutely and is severe. B) Bleeding within the gastrointestinal tract is a symptom of another disease, not a disease itself. C) Lower gastrointestinal bleeding results from conditions such as Mallory-Weiss syndrome. D) Chronic bleeding - ANS --> Bleeding within the gastrointestinal tract is a symptom of another disease, not a disease itself. The jaw-thrust maneuver is used to open the airway of patients with suspected: A. mandibular fractures. B. upper airway swelling. C. cervical spine injuries. D. copious oral secretions. - ANS --> cervical spine injuries Which of the following is NOT a BLS intervention? A) Abdominal thrusts B) Chest compressions C) Cardiac monitoring D) Automated defibrillation - ANS --> Cardiac monitoring A 19-year-old female is found unconscious by her roommate. Your primary assessment reveals that her breathing is inadequate. As you insert an oropharyngeal airway, she begins to gag violently. You should: A. continue to insert the airway as you suction her oropharynx. B. remove the airway and be prepared to suction her oropharynx. C. insert the airway no further but leave it in place as a bite block. D. select a smaller oropharyngeal airway and attempt to insert it. - ANS --> remove the airway and be prepared to suction her oropharynx. To select the proper size oropharyngeal airway, you should measure from the: A. corner of the mouth to the earlobe. B. center of the mouth to the posterior ear. C. corner of the mouth to the superior ear. D. angle of the jaw to the center of the mouth. - ANS --> corner of the mouth to the earlobe. The MOST serious complication associated with using a nasopharyngeal airway in a patient with trauma to the head or face is: A. fracturing the septum. B. damaging the turbinates. C. penetrating the cranium. D. causing severe bleeding. - ANS --> penetrating the cranium. The MOST significant complication associated with oropharyngeal suctioning is: A. oral abrasions from vigorous suctioning. B. hypoxia due to prolonged suction attempts. C. clogging of the catheter with thick secretions. D. vomiting from stimulating the anterior airway - ANS --> hypoxia due to prolonged suction attempts. A 23-year-old male experienced severe head trauma after his motorcycle collided with an oncoming truck. He is unconscious, has rapid and shallow breathing, and has copious bloody secretions in his mouth. How should you manage his airway? A. Suction his oropharynx with a rigid catheter until all secretions are removed. B. Insert a nasopharyngeal airway and provide suction and assisted ventilations. C. Alternate 15 seconds of oral suctioning with 2 minutes of assisted ventilation. D. Provide continuous ventilations with a bag-mask device to minimize hypoxia. - ANS --> Alternate 15 seconds of oral suctioning with 2 minutes of assisted ventilation. Which of the following organs or tissues can survive the longest without oxygen? A. muscle B. heart C. liver D. kidneys - ANS --> muscle Shock is the result of: A. hypoperfusion to the cells of the body. B. the body's maintenance of homeostasis. C. temporary dysfunction of a major organ. D. widespread constriction of the blood vessels. - ANS --> hypoperfusion to the cells of the body. When the body senses a state of hypoperfusion, the sympathetic nervous system releases epinephrine, the effects of which include: A. tachypnea. B. tachycardia. C. vasodilation. D. restlessness. - ANS --> tachycardia. When perfusion to the core of the body decreases: A. blood is shunted away from the skin. B. decreased cardiac contractility occurs. C. blood is diverted to the gastrointestinal tract. D. the voluntary nervous system releases hormones. - ANS --> blood is shunted away from the skin. Pulmonary edema and impaired ventilation occur during: A. septic shock. B. neurogenic shock. C. cardiogenic shock. D. anaphylactic shock. - ANS --> cardiogenic shock. Which of the following statements regarding hepatitis A is correct? A) Hepatitis A can only be transmitted by a patient who has an acute infection. B) Infection with hepatitis A causes chronic illness with a high mortality rate. C) Hepatitis A is primarily transmitted via contact with blood or other body fluids. D) Although there is no vaccine against hepatitis A, treatment is usually successful. - ANS --> Hepatitis A can only be transmitted by a patient who has an acute infection. Which of the following injuries would MOST likely cause obstructive shock? A. liver laceration B. cardiac tamponade C. simple pneumothorax D. spinal cord injury - ANS --> cardiac tamponade You are treating a middle-aged man with chest discomfort. He has a history of three previous heart attacks and takes nitroglycerin as needed for chest pain. You have standing orders to administer aspirin to patients with suspected cardiac-related chest pain or discomfort. While your partner is preparing to give oxygen to the patient, you should: A) confirm that the patient is not allergic to aspirin, give him the appropriate dose of aspirin, and document the time and dose given. B) contact medical control, apprise him or her of the patient's chief complaint and vital signs, and request permission to give him aspirin. C) ensure that the patient's systolic blood pressure is at least 100 mm Hg as aspirin dilates the blood vessels and can cause a drop in blood pressure. D) assist the patient in taking one of his prescribed nitroglycerin, assess his vital signs, and give him aspirin if he is still experiencing chest disc - ANS --> confirm that the patient is not allergic to aspirin, give him the appropriate dose of aspirin, and document the time and dose given. Which of the following medication routes has the slowest rate of absorption? A) Oral B) Rectal C) Inhalation D) Sublingual - ANS --> Oral Neurogenic shock occurs when: A. failure of the nervous system causes widespread vasodilation. B. the spinal cord is severed and causes massive hemorrhaging. C. there is too much blood to fill a smaller vascular container. D. massive vasoconstriction occurs distal to a spinal cord injury. - ANS --> failure of the nervous system causes widespread vasodilation. Which of the following statements regarding anaphylactic shock is MOST correct? A. Anaphylactic shock occurs immediately after a person is sensitized to an allergen. B. Sensitized people will experience less severe reactions upon subsequent exposure. C. Anaphylactic shock is the result of immune system failure due to a toxic exposure. D. Each subsequent exposure following sensitization often produces a more severe reaction. - ANS --> Each subsequent exposure following sensitization often produces a more severe reaction. You are assessing a 49-year-old man who, according to his wife, experienced a sudden, severe headache and then passed out. He is unresponsive and has slow, irregular breathing. His blood pressure is 190/94 mm Hg and his pulse rate is 50 beats/min. His wife tells you that he has hypertension and diabetes. He has MOST likely experienced: A) acute hypoglycemia. B) a ruptured cerebral artery. C) a complex partial seizure. D) an occluded cerebral artery. - ANS --> a ruptured cerebral artery. When a motor vehicle strikes a tree while traveling at 40 mph, the unrestrained occupant: A. will most likely be thrown over the steering column. B. remains in motion until acted upon by an external force. C. will decelerate at the same rate as the motor vehicle. D. is thrust under the steering column onto the floorboard. - ANS --> remains in motion until acted upon by an external force. Which of the following statements regarding ventricular fibrillation (V-fib) is correct? A) V-fib is a state of rapid ventricular contraction. B) Most patients in V-fib have a weak carotid pulse. C) Defibrillation is only indicated for witnessed V-fib. D) V-fib results in an absence of forward blood flow. - ANS --> V-fib results in an absence of forward blood flow. The energy of a moving object is called: A. latent energy. B. kinetic energy. C. potential energy. D. converted energy. - ANS --> kinetic energy. If direct pressure with a sterile dressing fails to immediately stop severe bleeding from an extremity, you should apply: A. additional sterile dressings. B. a splint and elevate the extremity. C. a tourniquet proximal to the injury. D. digital pressure to a proximal artery - ANS --> a tourniquet proximal to the injury. An absence seizure is also referred to as a: A) petit mal seizure. B) grand mal seizure. C) total body seizure. D) generalized motor seizure. - ANS --> petit mal seizure. You arrive at the home of a 50-year-old female with severe epistaxis. As you are treating her, it is MOST important to recall that: A. the patient may be significantly hypertensive. B. the patient is at risk for vomiting and aspiration. C. a detailed exam is needed to determine the cause. D. many medications interfere with blood clotting. - ANS --> the patient is at risk for vomiting and aspiration. A 58-year-old man complains of chest discomfort and nausea. He is conscious and alert; his blood pressure is 140/90 mm Hg, his pulse is 104 beats/min, and his respirations are 16 breaths/min. Your partner has applied supplemental oxygen. Prior to assisting the patient with one of his prescribed nitroglycerin tablets, you ask him if he takes medication to treat erectile dysfunction (ED) and he tells you that he does. You should: A) avoid giving him nitroglycerin and transport him at once. B) ask him what he takes, how much, and when he last took it. C) recall that erectile ED drugs can cause significant hypertension. D) administer his nitroglycerin and then reassess his blood pressure. - ANS --> ask him what he takes, how much, and when he last took it. The systemic veins function by: A. returning deoxygenated blood back to the heart. B. delivering oxygen-poor blood to the capillaries. C. returning oxygen-rich blood back to the left atrium. D. delivering deoxygenated blood to the capillaries. - ANS --> returning deoxygenated blood back to the heart. External bleeding from an extremity can usually be controlled initially by: A) applying direct pressure. B) elevating the extremity. C) applying a tourniquet. D) applying chemical ice packs. - ANS --> applying direct pressure. The standards for prehospital emergency care and the individuals who provide it are typically regulated by the: A) state office of EMS. B) regional trauma center. C) American Heart Association. D) National Registry of EMTs. - ANS --> state office of EMS. Your partner, a veteran EMT with whom you have worked regularly for the past 4 years, seems unusually agitated during a call involving an elderly patient. Upon arrival back at your station, you note the obvious smell of alcohol on his breath. What should you do? A) Remain quiet and simply request another partner. B) Report the incident to your EMS medical director. C) Discreetly report your suspicions to your supervisor. D) Tell your partner that he must seek professional help. - ANS --> Discreetly report your suspicions to your supervisor. Which of the following statements regarding the different stages of the grieving process is correct? A) The grieving process typically begins with severe depression. B) It is rare that people will jump back and forth between stages of the grieving process. C) The stages of the grieving process may occur simultaneously. D) Bargaining is the most unpleasant stage of the grieving process. - ANS --> The stages of the grieving process may occur simultaneously. Which of the following statements regarding the EMS medical director and an EMT's scope of practice is correct? A) The EMS medical director can expand the EMT's scope of practice but cannot limit it without state approval. B) The EMS medical director can expand or limit an individual EMT's scope of practice without state approval. C) An EMT's scope of practice is exclusively regulated by the state EMS office, not the EMS medical director. D) An EMT's scope of practice may be expanded by the medical director after proper training and state approval - ANS --> 55. Observations made when forming a general impression of a patient would include all of the following, EXCEPT: A) appearance. B) pulse strength. C) race and gender. D) level of distress. - ANS --> pulse strength. 56. Hypoperfusion is another name for: A. shock. B. cyanosis. C. hypoxemia. D. cellular death. - ANS --> shock. 57. You have been working at the scene of a major building collapse for 8 hours. Many injured people are still being removed, and everyone is becoming frustrated and losing focus. This situation is MOST effectively managed by: A) providing large amounts of caffeine to the rescue workers. B) requesting a CISM team to provide onscene peer support. C) conducting a critical incident stress debriefing the next day. D) allowing each worker to sleep in 15 to 30minute increments. - ANS --> requesting a CISM team to provide onscene peer support 58. If you are exposed to a patient's blood or other bodily fluid, your first action should be to: A) report the incident to the infection control officer. B) abandon patient care and seek medical attention. C) transfer care of the patient to another EMS provider. D) vigorously clean the area with soap and water. - ANS --> transfer care of the patient to another EMS provider 59. When faced with a situation in which a patient is in cardiac arrest and a valid living will or DNR order cannot be located, you should: A) begin resuscitation at once. B) contact medical control first. C) determine the patient's illness. D) notify the coroner immediately. - ANS --> begin resuscitation at once 60. When assessing for fluid collection in the lungs during auscultation of lung sounds, you should: A) note the presence of a highpitched whistling sound, which is an indicator of fluid in the lungs. B) pay special attention to the exhalation phase because this is when you will likely hear rales or rhonchi. C) auscultate the posterior chest first and compare the apex of one lung to the base of the opposite lung. D) start at the lower lung fields and determine at which level you start hearing clear breath sounds. - ANS --> start at the lower lung fields and determine at which level you start hearing clear breath sounds. 61. Which of the following statements regarding smooth muscle is correct? A) A person has no voluntary control over smooth muscle. B) Smooth muscle is found exclusively within blood vessels. C) The biceps and quadriceps are examples of smooth muscle. D) Smooth muscle is under control of the voluntary nervous system. - ANS --> A person has no voluntary control over smooth muscle 62. Perfusion is MOST accurately defined as the: A. effective transfer of oxygen from the venules across the systemic capillary membrane walls. B. ability of the systemic arteries to constrict as needed to maintain an adequate blood pressure. C. effective removal of carbon dioxide and other metabolic waste products from the body's cells. D. circulation of blood within an organ in adequate amounts to meet the body's metabolic needs. - ANS --> circulation of blood within an organ in adequate amounts to meet the body's metabolic needs. 63. What layer of the skin forms a watertight, protective seal for the body? A. dermis B. epidermis C. muscular layer D. subcutaneous layer - ANS --> epidermis 64. Prompt transport of a patient with a suspected AMI is important because: A) the patient may be eligible to receive thrombolytic therapy. B) 90% of the cardiac cells will die within the first 30 minutes. C) nitroglycerin can only be given in the emergency department. D) many patients with an AMI die within 6 hours. - ANS --> the patient may be eligible to receive thrombolytic therapy 65. Which of the following statements regarding the dermis is correct? A. The dermis produces a substance that provides color to the skin. B. The dermis contains hair follicles, sweat glands, and nerve endings. C. The cells of the dermis are worn away and are constantly replaced. D. The dermis lies above the germinal layer and provides protection. - ANS --> The dermis contains hair follicles, sweat glands, and nerve endings. 66. When a person is exposed to a cold environment: A. sweat is produced and is warmed when the vessels constrict. B. blood vessels dilate and divert blood to the core of the body. C. the skin becomes flushed secondary to peripheral vasodilation. D. peripheral vessels constrict and divert blood away from the skin. - ANS --> peripheral vessels constrict and divert blood away from the skin.; 67. When the shoulder girdle is aligned over the pelvis during lifting: A) the weight is exerted straight down the vertebrae. B) the hands can be held further apart from the body. C) the muscles of the back experience increased strain. D) the risk of back injuries is significantly increased. - ANS --> the weight is exerted straight down the vertebrae 68. You respond to the scene of a motor vehicle collision. Upon arrival, you find the driver, a young female, sitting on the curb. She is confused, is in obvious respiratory distress and has pale, moist skin. As your partner manually stabilizes her head, you perform a primary assessment. After performing any immediate lifesaving treatment, you should: A) perform a detailed headtotoe exam and prepare for immediate transport. B) assess her vital signs, secure her to a backboard, and transport her immediately. C) fully immobilize her spine, load her into the ambulance, and assess her vital signs. D) identify the specific areas of her injuries and focus your assessment on those areas. - ANS --> perform a detailed headtotoe exam and prepare for immediate transport 69. The eyeball itself is referred to as the: A. orbit. B. globe. C. sclera. D. cornea. - ANS --> globe 70. What is the alveolar minute volume of a patient with a tidal volume of 500 mL, a dead space volume of 150 mL, and a respiratory rate of 16 breaths per min? A) 5,600 mL B) 6,000 mL C) 7,400 mL D) 8,000 mL - ANS --> 5,600 mL 71. You are dispatched to a residence where a middleaged man was found unconscious in his front yard. There are no witnesses who can tell you what happened. You find him in a prone position, his eyes are closed and he is not moving. Your FIRST action should be to: A) palpate for the presence of a carotid pulse. B) log roll him as a unit to a supine position. C) assess the rate and quality of his breathing. D) open his airway with a jawthrust maneuver. - ANS --> log roll him as a unit to a supine position 72. The white portion of the eye is called the: A. iris. B. retina. C. sclera. D. cornea. - ANS --> sclera 73. The MOST significant complication associated with facial injuries is: A. damage to the eyes. B. airway compromise. C. cervical spine injury. D. mandibular immobility. - ANS --> airway compromise 74. The central nervous system (CNS) is composed of the: A. cerebellum and brain. B. brain and spinal cord. C. cerebrum and meninges. D. meninges and spinal cord. - ANS --> brain and spinal cord 75. When gathering a patient's medications, you find the following: Isordil, Lasix, Nexium, and digoxin. Which of these medications can be obtained overthecounter (OTC)? A) Lasix B) Nexium C) Isordil D) Digoxin - ANS --> Nexium 76. Which of the following clinical signs is unique to anaphylactic shock? A) Pallor B) Dizziness C) Wheezing D) Hypotension - ANS --> Wheezing 77. The _________ contain(s) about 75% of the brain's total volume. A. cerebrum B. cerebellum C. brain stem D. meninges - ANS --> cerebrum 78. The areas of the spinal column, in descending order, are: A) cervical, thoracic, sacral, lumbar, and coccyx. B) cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral, and coccyx. C) cervical, thoracic, coccyx, lumbar, and sacral. D) cervical, lumbar, thoracic, sacral, and coccyx. - ANS --> cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral, and coccyx 79. Relative to an adult's airway anatomy, the child's: A) tongue takes up less space in the pharynx. B) pharynx is smaller and less deeply curved. C) trachea is smaller, softer, and less flexible. D) mouth and nose are proportionately larger. - ANS --> pharynx is smaller and less deeply curved. 80. Coordination of balance and body movement is controlled by the: A. medulla. B. cerebrum. C. cerebellum. D. brain stem. - ANS --> cerebellum 81. Which of the following steps is NOT proper procedure when performing an emergency move? A) Using a longaxis body drag during the move B) Pulling the patient on a blanket or similar object C) Pulling the patient's clothing in the shoulder area D) Lifting the patient by the belt to move him or her - ANS --> Lifting the patient by the belt to move him or her 82. The _________ is the bestprotected part of the CNS and controls the functions of the cardiac and respiratory systems. A. brain stem B. cerebellum C. spinal cord D. cerebral cortex - ANS --> brain stem 83. Which of the following nerves carry information from the body to the brain via the spinal? A. motor B. central C. somatic D. sensory - ANS --> sensory 84. You have two patients who were involved in a motor vehicle crash when their SUV struck a tree—one with neck and back pain, and the other with a deformed left femur. The patient with the deformed femur states that he does not want to be placed on a hard board, nor does he want a collar around his neck. What is the MOST appropriate and practical method of securing these patients and placing them into the ambulance? A) Immobilize both patients with a cervical collar and long backboard based on the mechanism of injury, place one on the wheeled stretcher and the other on the squad bench. B) Immobilize the patient with neck and back pain on a long backboard and place him on the wheeled stretcher, place the patient with the deformed femur on a folding stretcher secured to the squad bench. C) Immobilize the patient with neck and back pain on a long backboard and place him on the squad bench, allow the patient with the - ANS --> Immobilize the patient with neck and back pain on a long backboard and place him on the wheeled stretcher; place the patient with the deformed femur on a folding stretcher secured to the squad bench 85. The body's functions that occur without conscious effort are regulated by the _________ nervous system. A. sensory B. somatic C. autonomic D. voluntary - ANS --> autonomic 86. The thoracic cavity is separated from the abdominal cavity by the: A. diaphragm. B. anterior rib cage. C. intercostal margin. D. costovertebral angle. - ANS --> diaphragm 87. Immediate death from blunt chest trauma following a motor vehicle crash is MOST often the result of: A. a tension pneumothorax. B. traumatic aortic rupture. C. penetrating lung injuries. D. a massive cardiac contusion. - ANS --> traumatic aortic rupture. 88. Irritation or damage to the pleural surfaces that causes sharp chest pain during inhalation is called: A. pleurisy. B. dyspnea. C. pneumonitis. D. pneumothorax. - ANS --> pleurisy. 89. All of the following are hollow abdominal organs, EXCEPT for the: A. liver. B. bladder. C. ureters. D. stomach. - ANS --> liver 90. Contraction or tensing of the abdominal muscles in an effort to ease pain is called: A. flexing. B. referring. C. guarding. D. withdrawing. - ANS --> guarding 91. Skeletal muscle is also referred to as __________ muscle. A. smooth B. striated C. connective D. involuntary - ANS --> striated 92. The musculoskeletal system refers to the: A. bones and voluntary muscles of the body. B. nervous system's control over the muscles. C. connective tissue that supports the skeleton. D. involuntary muscles of the nervous system. - ANS --> bones and voluntary muscles of the body 93. Skeletal muscle is attached to the bone by tough, ropelike fibrous structures called: A. fascia. B. tendons. C. cartilage. D. ligaments. - ANS --> tendons 94. Bone marrow produces: A. platelets. B. blood cells. C. lymphocytes. D. electrolytes. - ANS --> blood cells 95. Which of the following scenarios is an example of informed consent? A) A patient advises an EMT of why he or she is refusing care. B) An EMT advises a patient of the risks of receiving treatment. C) An EMT initiates immediate care for an unconscious adult. D) A patient is advised by an EMT of the risks of refusing care. - ANS --> An EMT advises a patient of the risks of receiving treatment. 96. Bones are connected to other bones by bands of tough fibrous tissues called: A. bursa. B. tendons. C. cartilage. D. ligaments. - ANS --> ligaments. 97. An EMT may injure his or her back, even if it is straight, if the: A. back is bent forward at the hips. B. hands are held close to the legs. C. shoulder is aligned over the pelvis. D. force is exerted straight down the spine. - ANS --> back is bent forward at the hips 98. When assessing an 80yearold patient in shock, it is important to remember that: A) it is common to see a more significant increase in heart rate than what would be expected in younger adults. B) agerelated changes in the cardiovascular system may make the patient less able to compensate for decreased perfusion. C) the patient's cardiac output is able to increase by nearly 200% in response to the decrease in perfusion. D) in older adults, it is especially common to observe a significant decrease in heart rate in response to shock. - ANS --> agerelated changes in the cardiovascular system may make the patient less able to compensate for decreased perfusion. 99. Infants are often referred to as "belly breathers" because: A) their rib cage is less rigid and the ribs sit horizontally. B) an infant's ribs are brittle and are less able to expand. C) their intercostal muscles are not functional. D) their diaphragm does not receive impulses from the brain. - ANS --> their rib cage is less rigid and the ribs sit horizontally 100. To minimize the risk of injuring yourself when lifting or moving a patient, you should: A. flex at the waist instead of the hips. B. avoid the use of log rolls or body drags. C. use a direct carry whenever possible. D. keep the weight as close to your body as possible. - ANS --> keep the weight as close to your body as possible. 101. Vasovagal reactions that occur in patients receiving IV therapy are MOST often the result of: A. the pain associated with venipuncture. B. a fear of needles or the sight of blood. C. too much IV fluid being administered. D. an unexpected reaction to the IV fluid. - ANS --> a fear of needles or the sight of blood. 102. The heart's primary pacemaker is the: A. sinoatrial (SA) node. B. internodal pathway. C. atrioventricular (AV) node. D. ventricular bundle of His. - ANS --> sinoatrial (SA) node 103. Burns are classified according to: A. depth and extent. B. location and pain. C. degree and location. D. extent and location. - ANS --> depth and extent 104. Which of the following statements would NOT be appropriate to say to the family of a dying patient? A. "Things will get better in time." B. "It is okay to be angry and sad." C. "This must be painful for you." D. "Tell me how you are feeling." - ANS --> "Things will get better in time." 105. Carbon monoxide blocks the ability of the blood to oxygenate the body because it: A. binds with the hemoglobin in the red blood cells. B. fills the lungs with secretions. C. causes the body to expel too much carbon dioxide. D. destroys the number of circulating red blood cells. - ANS --> binds with the hemoglobin in the red blood cells. 106. What type of consent is involved when a 39yearold mentally competent female with a severe headache asks you to take her to the hospital? A. formal B. implied C. informed D. expressed - ANS --> expressed 107. When faced with a situation in which a patient is in cardiac arrest, and a valid living will or DNR order cannot be located, you should: A. begin resuscitation at once. B. contact medical control first. C. determine the patient's illness. D. notify the coroner immediately. - ANS --> begin resuscitation at once 108. A patient has fractured both femurs. Anatomically, these injuries would be described as being: A. medial. B. proximal. C. bilateral. D. unilateral. - ANS --> bilateral. 109. The brain connects to the spinal cord through a large opening at the base of the skull called the: A. foramen ovale. B. vertebral foramen. C. spinous foramen. D. foramen magnum. - ANS --> foramen magnum. 110. In contrast to inhalation, exhalation: A. requires muscular effort to effectively expel air from the lungs. B. is a passive process caused by increased intrathoracic pressure. C. occurs when the diaphragm lowers and expels air from the lungs. D. is an active process caused by decreased intrathoracic pressure. - ANS --> is a passive process caused by increased intrathoracic pressure 111. The hypoxic drive—the primary stimulus to breathe for patients with certain chronic respiratory diseases—is influenced by: A. high blood oxygen levels. B. low blood oxygen levels. C. low blood carbon dioxide levels. D. high blood carbon dioxide levels. - ANS --> low blood oxygen levels. 112. After ________ minutes without oxygen, brain damage is likely. A. 2 B. 4 C. 5 D. 6 - ANS --> 6 113. Most prehospital cardiac arrests occur as the result of: A. severe blunt trauma. B. a cardiac arrhythmia. C. an acute ischemic stroke. D. obstruction of the airway. - ANS --> a cardiac arrhythmia 114. You and your partner arrive at the side of a 60yearold woman who suddenly collapsed about 7 minutes ago. She is unresponsive, apneic, and pulseless. You should: A. begin CPR and apply the AED as soon as it is available. B. immediately apply the AED and analyze her cardiac rhythm. C. begin CPR at a compression to ventilation ratio of 15:2. D. apply the AED if there is no response after 10 cycles of CPR. - ANS --> begin CPR and apply the AED as soon as it is available. 115. Gastric distention will MOST likely occur: A. in patients who are intubated. B. if you ventilate a patient too fast. C. when you deliver minimal tidal volume. D. when the airway is completely obstructed. - ANS --> if you ventilate a patient too fast. 116. CPR will NOT be effective if the patient is: A. prone. B. supine. C. horizontal. D. on a firm surface. - ANS --> prone. 117. In tworescuer adult CPR, you should deliver a compression to ventilation ratio of: A. 5:1. B. 5:2. C. 15:2. D. 30:2. - ANS --> 30:2. 118. A 60yearold man complains of chest pain. He is conscious and alert and denies shortness of breath. Which of the following questions would be the MOST appropriate to ask him? A) "Were you exerting yourself when the chest pain began?" B) "Does the pain in your chest move to either of your arms?" C) "Does the pain in your chest feel like a stabbing sensation?" D) "Do you have any heart problems or take any medications?" - ANS --> "Do you have any heart problems or take any medications?" 119. Enlargement of the liver is called: A) nephritis. B) hepatomegaly. C) hydrocephalus. D) pneumonitis. - ANS --> hepatomegaly. 120. In MOST cases, cardiopulmonary arrest in infants and children is caused by: A. a drug overdose. B. respiratory arrest. C. severe chest trauma. D. a cardiac dysrhythmia. - ANS --> respiratory arrest. 121. Which of the following conditions is NOT categorized as a psychiatric condition? A. depression B. schizophrenia C. substance abuse D. Alzheimer's disease - ANS --> substance abuse 122. An index of suspicion is MOST accurately defined as: A. the EMT's prediction of the type of illness a patient has based on how the call is dispatched. B. your awareness and concern for potentially serious underlying and unseen injuries or illness. C. ruling out specific medical conditions based on the absence of certain signs and symptoms. D. determining the underlying cause of a patient's medical condition based on signs and symptoms. - ANS --> your awareness and concern for potentially serious underlying and unseen injuries or illness. 123. When assessing a patient with a medical complaint, which of the following would MOST likely reveal the cause of his or her problem? A. history taking B. rapid body scan C. baseline vital signs D. primary assessment - ANS --> history taking 124. A 58yearold man complains of chest discomfort and nausea. He is conscious and alert, his blood pressure is 140 over 90 mm Hg, his pulse is 104 beats per min, and his respirations are 16 breaths per min. Your partner has applied supplemental oxygen. Prior to assisting the patient with one of his prescribed nitroglycerin tablets, you ask him if he takes medication to treat erectile dysfunction and he tells you that he does. You should: A. avoid giving him nitroglycerin and transport him at once. B. ask him what he takes, how much, and when he last took it. C. recall that erectile dysfunction drugs can cause hypertension if given with nitroglycerin. D. administer his nitroglycerin and then reassess his blood pressure. - ANS --> ask him what he takes, how much, and when he last took it. 125. The primary prehospital treatment for most medical emergencies: A. typically does not require the EMT to contact medical control. B. focuses on definitive care because a diagnosis can usually be made. C. addresses the patient's symptoms more than the actual disease process. D. involves transport only until treatment can be performed at the hospital. - ANS --> addresses the patient's symptoms more than the actual disease process. 126. Dyspnea is MOST accurately defined as: A. shortness of breath or difficulty breathing. B. a complete cessation of respiratory effort. C. a marked increase in the exhalation phase. D. labored breathing with reduced tidal volume. - ANS --> shortness of breath or difficulty breathing. 127. In what area of the lungs does respiration occur? A. alveoli B. trachea C. bronchi D. capillaries - ANS --> alveoli 128. The two processes that occur during respiration are: A. ventilation and diffusion. B. inspiration and expiration. C. diffusion and oxygenation. D. oxygenation and ventilation. - ANS --> inspiration and expiration. 129. Weakening of the airway in patients with chronic bronchitis is the result of: A. destruction of protective mechanisms that remove foreign particles. B. loss of the lubricating substance that facilitates alveolar expansion. C. airway irritation caused by a marked decrease in mucus production. D. acute constriction of the bronchioles caused by an external irritant. - ANS --> destruction of protective mechanisms that remove foreign particles. 130. Asthma is caused by a response of the: A. immune system. B. endocrine system. C. respiratory system. D. cardiovascular system. - ANS --> immune system. 131. Which of the following statements regarding anaphylaxis is correct? A. Patients with asthma are at lower risk of developing anaphylaxis. B. Anaphylaxis is characterized by airway swelling and hypotension. C. Most anaphylactic reactions occur within 60 minutes after exposure. D. The signs of anaphylaxis are caused by widespread vasoconstriction. - ANS --> Anaphylaxis is characterized by airway swelling and hypotension. 132. Your BEST protection against legal liability when a patient with decisionmaking capacity refuses EMS care and transport is to: A) advise medical control of the situation. B) err on the side of caution and transport. C) ensure that the family is aware of the risks. D) thoroughly document the entire event. - ANS --> thoroughly document the entire event. 133. Alkalosis is a condition that occurs when: A. blood acidity is reduced by excessive breathing. B. dangerous acids accumulate in the bloodstream. C. the level of carbon dioxide in the blood increases. D. slow, shallow breathing eliminates too much carbon dioxide. - ANS --> blood acidity is reduced by excessive breathing. 134. When assessing for fluid collection in the lungs during auscultation of lung sounds, you should: A. note the presence of a highpitched whistling sound, which is an indicator of fluid in the lungs. B. pay special attention to the exhalation phase since this is when you will likely hear rales or rhonchi. C. auscultate the posterior chest first and compare the apex of one lung to the base of the opposite lung. D. start at the lower lung fields and determine at which level you start hearing clear breath sounds. - ANS --> start at the lower lung fields and determine at which level you start hearing clear breath sounds. 135. Harsh, highpitched inspiratory sounds are characteristic of: A. rales. B. stridor. C. rhonchi. D. wheezing. - ANS --> stridor. 136. A 71yearold male is semiconscious following a sudden, severe headache. There is vomitus on his face and his respirations are slow and shallow. The EMT must immediately: A) insert a nasopharyngeal airway. B) perform oropharyngeal suctioning. C) apply oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask. D) begin assisting the patient's ventilations. - ANS --> perform oropharyngeal suctioning. 137. Blood that is ejected from the right ventricle: A. enters the systemic circulation. B. flows into the pulmonary arteries. C. has a high concentration of oxygen. D. was received directly from the aorta - ANS --> flows into the pulmonary arteries. 138. What is the function of the left atrium? A. It ejects oxygenated blood into the aorta. B. It receives oxygenated blood from the lungs. C. It receives blood from the pulmonary arteries. D. It receives oxygenated blood from the vena cava. - ANS --> It receives oxygenated blood from the lungs. 139. The ability of cardiac muscle cells to contract spontaneously without a stimulus from a nerve source is called: A. excitability. B. contractility. C. impulsivity. D. automaticity. - ANS --> automaticity. 140. When an electrical impulse reaches the AV node, it is slowed for a brief period of time so that: A. blood can pass from the atria to the ventricles. B. blood returning from the body can fill the atria. C. the impulse can spread through the Purkinje fibers. D. the SA node can reset and generate another impulse. - ANS --> blood can pass from the atria to the ventricles. 141. In contrast to the sympathetic nervous system, the parasympathetic nervous system: A. prepares the bod