PA SURGERY EOR EXAM LATEST 2024 ACTUAL EXAM QUESTIONS WITH VERIFIED DETAILED ANSWERS (GRADED A+)

PA SURGERY EOR EXAM LATEST 2024 ACTUAL EXAM QUESTIONS WITH VERIFIED DETAILED ANSWERS (GRADED A+) A 45-year-old man presents to the office with the complaint of perianal pain and bleeding. Examination reveals an anal/perianal mass complex. Biopsy is taken and the results are positive for epidermoid carcinoma of the anus. Which of the following treatment options would be the most appropriate therapy for this patient? A Local resection, chemotherapy, and external beam radiation B Abdominoperineal resection C Chemotherapy only D Local resection only E Radiation only - ANSWER-The Correct Answer is: A Epidermoid carcinoma of the anal canal is a slow-growing tumor that often presents as an anal or perianal mass. Wide excision, followed by 5- fluorouracil, mitomycin, and external beam radiation (Nigro Protocol), 2 typically results in a greater than 80% cure rate. The presence of inguinal lymph node metastasis is a poor prognostic indicator. Management of recurrences is typically achieved by performing an abdominoperineal resection. A patient who is an Ashkenazi Jew and is homozygous for Factor XI deficiency requires abdominal surgery. Which hemostatic laboratory testing outcomes would you expect to find? A Decreased platelets, normal aPTT, prolonged PT B Decreased platelets, prolonged aPTT, normal PT C Normal platelets, normal aPTT, prolonged PT D Normal platelets, prolonged aPTT, normal PT E Normal platelets, prolonged aPTT, prolonged PT - ANSWER-The Correct Answer is: D Patients with factor XI deficiency have a prolonged aPTT, normal PT, and normal platelets count. A 74-year-old woman presented with the new onset of seizures. An MRI with gadolinium showed a parasagittal mass with homogenous enhancement and a "dural tail." What is the appropriate management of this patient? A 3 Radiation therapy B Chemotherapy C Surgical resection D Surgical resection with chemotherapy - ANSWER-The Correct Answer is: C The clinical presentation is consistent with a meningioma. Meningiomas are commonly located in the parasagittal region, the convexity of the brain, sphenoid ridge, or posterior fossa. Radiographic features on MRI include homogenous enhancement and evidence of a "dural tail" indicating the origin of the tumor. Since meningiomas are a benign tumor, the primary treatment is surgical removal. In the event of a subtotal resection or if the meningioma is found to be malignant, surgical resection is followed by radiation therapy. Which peripheral nerve is involved in the most common compression neuropathy in the upper extremity? A Axillary B Median C 4 Radial D Sciatic nerve E Ulnar - ANSWER-The Correct Answer is: B The median nerve is commonly compressed as it passes through the carpal tunnel in the wrist. This syndrome is most often diagnosed in middle aged or pregnant female patients. The axillary nerve passes through the axilla and is often compressed when patients use crutches improperly and bear weight on the axillary area. The ulnar nerve is second only to the median nerve and can be compressed as it passes through the cubital tunnel at the elbow or as it passes through the humeral and ulnar heads of the flexor carpi radialis muscle. Compression of the radial nerve (and its branches) as it passes through the radial tunnel on the lateral side of the elbow is often confused with lateral epicondylitis. The sciatic nerve is associated with the lower extremities and pain is often elicited as a result of a lumbar disk herniation causing nerve root impingement.