Biology: The Core 3rd Edition Exam Questions and 100% Correct Answers| Eric J. Simon

***Download Test Bank Immediately After the Purchase. Just in case you have trouble downloading, kindly message me, and I will send it to you via Google Doc or email. Thank you*** Biology: The Core 3rd Edition Exam Questions and 100% Correct Answers| Eric J. Simon The Test Bank for Biology: The Core, 3rd Edition by Eric J. Simon is a comprehensive study tool designed to aid in the understanding of fundamental concepts in biology. It contains a series of questions and answers that align with the chapters in the 3rd edition of "Biology: The Core." This test bank serves as a valuable tool for students preparing for exams, providing a detailed overview of key topics, and helping to reinforce and apply knowledge gained from the textbook. Test Bank for Biology: The Core 3e 3rd Edition by Eric J. Simon. 1514 Full chapters test bank PDF An Introduction to the Science of Life The Chemistry of Life The Cell: The Fundamental Unit of Life Energy and Life Chromosomes and Inheritance DNA: Molecule of Life Darwinian Evolution Biodiversity 1: Microscopic Organisms Biodiversity 2: Fungi and Plants Biodiversity 3: Animals Human Body Systems Ecology "Biology: The Core 3rd Edition Test Bank" "Eric J. Simon Biology Test Bank" "Study Resources for Biology: The Core" "Test Questions for Biology: The Core 3rd Edition" "Exam Preparation with Biology: The Core Test Bank" "Simon's Biology 3rd Edition Test Bank" "Biology: The Core 3rd Edition Exam Questions" "Comprehensive Test Bank for Biology: The Core" "Biology: The Core by Eric J. Simon Study Guide" "Test Bank for Eric J. Simon's Biology: The Core 3rd Edition". Test Bank for Biology: The Core, 3rd Edition by ERIC J. SIMON Chapter 1: An Introduction to the Science of Life 1) How is life defined? A) The only requirement for life is the ability to reproduce. B) Life is defined through a set of shared characteristics that all living things display. C) A living thing must be able to move. D) Life is determined by neural activity. 2) Which of the following is not a characteristic of life? A) The ability to reproduce B) The ability to move C) The ability to grow and develop D) The ability to respond to the environment 3) Fire can move, grow, reproduce, use energy, consume oxygen, and interact with its environment. Why is it not alive? A) It does not have cells. B) It does not consist of complex, well-ordered structures. C) It does not pass on genes for traits to its offspring. D) All of the above are accurate reasons why fire is not alive. 4) Is a virus considered alive? A) Yes, it possesses all of the requirements for life. B) Yes, it possesses enough of the requirements for life to be considered living. C) No, it does not possess all of the requirements for life. D) No, it does not possess any of the requirements for life. 5) Certain parasites, such as intestinal tapeworms, cannot survive outside of their host. Why are they still considered alive? A) Survival outside of a host is not a requirement for life. B) Parasites are still considered alive because they are studied by biologists, and biology is the study of life. C) As long as parasites are made of cells, they are considered to be alive. D) Because they cannot survive outside of the host, parasites are actually not considered alive. 6) A population consists of . A) living and nonliving components B) interacting populations C) a group of interacting individuals of one species D) a group of interacting individuals from different species 7) The statement, "There are 628 gray squirrels living on campus," describes the of gray squirrels on campus. A) species B) community C) population D) ecosystem 9) If you were to combine all of the ecosystems on the planet, you would obtain the . A) ionosphere B) troposphere C) biosphere D) envirosphere 10) A college campus – including the students, birds, trees, sidewalks, and air – makes up one complete . A) community B) ecosystem C) population D) organism 11) Skin is sometimes referred to as the largest organ of the body. Why is skin considered to be an organ and not a tissue or some other structure? A) Skin consists of multiple cell types functioning as a single integrated unit. B) Skin consists of multiple tissue types that cooperate to perform a specific task. C) Skin is a vital component of multiple organ systems. D) Skin consists of a single cell type. 13) What is the main difference between an ecosystem and a community? A) A community and an ecosystem are the same thing in eology B) A community consists of both living organisms and their nonliving environment, while an ecosystem consists of nonliving components only C) A community consists of living organisms only, while an ecosystem consists of both living organisms and their nonliving environment D) A community consists of nonliving components, while an ecosystem consists of living organisms 14) What is the core theme that unifies all of biology? A) The theory of evolution by natural selection B) The flow of information from DNA to proteins C) The transformation of energy and matter D) The relationship between structure and function 15) Which of the following is/are major themes in the field of biology? A) The relationship between structure and function B) The flow of information from DNA to proteins C) The interconnections within and between levels of biological organization D) All of the above are major themes in the field of biology 16) What is typically the first step in the scientific method? A) Carrying out an experiment B) Developing a hypothesis C) Making a prediction D) Making an observation 17) The scientific method . A) is a linear process that must be precisely followed at all times B) is a rough recipe for answering questions, but the steps need not always need to be performed in the same order C) is undertaken only by trained scientists in a controlled laboratory setting D) is the means by which absolute truth can be uncoveredUse the following commercial to answer the question(s) below: A recent commercial advertised for a wristband that claimed to restore health and balance by taking advantage of natural frequencies of your biofield. It supports its claim by showing several people first struggling to balance without the wristband and then balancing fine with the wristband. 18) Why should you be skeptical of the claims made in this commercial? A) Health cannot be tested via the scientific method. B) You cannot believe anything you see on television. C) The study was too objective. D) It was not a controlled study, but rather an anecdotal evidence. 19) Which of the following is a potential problem with the information presented? A) There was a small sample size (only a few people presented). B) There were no control groups presented. C) There was no indication that the results were repeated. D) All of the above are potential problems with the information presented. Use the following study to answer the following question(s): A current trend among professional baseball players is to wear braided titanium necklaces. The titanium reportedly regulates the flow of energy through the body. The player wearing the necklace then shows improved strength, tires less, and recovers more quickly. 20) If you were to evaluate these claims using the scientific method, what would be the first step? A) Conduct an experiment. B) Gather testimonials. C) Develop a hypothesis. D) Evaluate the results. 21) Which of the following would be the strongest evidence for or against the necklace's effectiveness? A) A bar graph comparing the percentage of players who wear the necklace with the percentage of players who do not wear the necklace B) A scatter plot showing days on the disabled list and percentage of players who do or do not wear the necklace C) A bar graph illustrating the satisfaction levels of the players who wear the necklace D) A bar graph comparing batting averages of the players who wear the official titanium necklace and those who were unknowingly wearing a fake titanium necklace 22) What should one do if the results of an experiment consistently do not support the original hypothesis? A) Change the hypothesis to match the results. B) Change the results to match the hypothesis. C) Accept the original hypothesis. D) Reject the original hypothesis and formulate a new hypothesis. 23) Which of the following statements is correct regarding the process of science? A) The process of science is all about testing hypotheses. B) The process of science involves testing hypotheses, but also collecting data. C) The process of science involves testing hypotheses, but also phases of exploration, communication and societal outcomes. D) The process of science is all about developing new technologies. 24) What does the term theory mean to a scientist? A) A guess B) A proposed explanation for an observed phenomenon C) A hypothesis that has been supported by the evidence of one experiment D) A hypothesis that has been supported by a large number of experiments 25) Evaluate the following statements; which statement is accurate? A) Scientists use the word theory in the same way that they use the word hypothesis; both mean a general idea that remains to be well tested. B) Scientists use the word theory to mean a hypothesis that has been supported by many experiments; this is the same way non-scientists use the word theory. C) Scientists use the word theory to mean a hypothesis that has not been tested many times; this is the same way non-scientists use the word theory. D) Scientists use the word theory to mean a hypothesis that has been supported by many experiments; non-scientists use the word theory to mean a hypothesis that remains to be well tested. 26) Hypotheses must be . A) testable B) falsifiable C) repeatable D) All of the above are important characteristics of hypotheses. Use the following study to answer the following question(s): A researcher applies varying amounts of fertilizer (0, 2, 4, 8, 10 units) to 50 potted tomato plants. All other variables that may affect the outcome (watering, temperature, sunlight, plant size, etc.) are kept the same from pot to pot. At the end of the growing season, the tomatoes grown on each plant are weighed to determine which fertilizer level produced the largest tomato yield. 27) Which variable is the independent variable? A) The temperature B) The tomato yield at the end of the growing season C) The fertilizer amount D) The plant size at the end of the growing season 28) Which variable is the dependent variable? A) The temperature B) The tomato yield at the end of the growing season C) The fertilizer amount D) The plant size at the end of the growing season 29) Is the study presented above a controlled experiment? A) Yes, because only the amount of fertilizer was changed, everything else was kept the same. B) Yes, because many pots were used. C) No, because the experiment was done only once. D) No, because several different amounts of fertilizers were used, not just one amount. Use the following information to answer the following question(s): You wake up one morning feeling slightly under the weather. A close family member enthusiastically suggests that you take some Echinacea, an herb commonly used as a cold remedy. You then decide to design an experiment to test Echinacea and see if this claim is true. You think, "If taken at the beginning of a cold, Echinacea will reduce cold symptoms." 30) Your statement, "If taken at the beginning of a cold, Echinacea will reduce cold symptoms," is called a(n) . A) observation B) hypothesis C) conclusion D) theory 31) You decide to test the effects of Echinacea on 100 people who are experiencing similar cold symptoms. Which of the following groups would represent an appropriate control in your experiment? A) One healthy person given Echinacea tablets B) One sick person given Echinacea tablets C) 100 healthy people given tablets similar to Echinacea but with no herb D) 100 sick people given tablets similar to Echinacea but with no herb 32) If you give 100 sick people tablets similar to Echinacea but with no herb (called a placebo), and do not tell them whether they are receiving the placebo or the Echinacea tablet, what kind of control would this be? A) A positive control, since you are expecting a change to happen in this control group B) A negative control, since you are expecting no change to happen in this control group C) A blind control, since the sick people do not know whether they are receiving the placebo or the Echinacea D) Both B and C are correct 33) You conduct the experiment and gather the data presented in the figure below. Given the results, you can say that . A) your theory is proven B) your theory is disproven C) your hypothesis is not supported D) your hypothesis is supported 34) Which of the following represents a double-blind study? A) The test group knows whether they are receiving a placebo or the actual treatment, and so do the researchers. B) The test group does not know whether they are receiving a placebo or the actual treatment, but the researchers do. C) The test group knows whether they are receiving a placebo or the actual treatment, but the researchers do not know until all the data are collected. D) Neither the test group nor the researchers know whether the test group is receiving a placebo or the actual treatment until all the data are collected. 35) Which of the following represents a blind study? A) The test group knows whether they are receiving a placebo or the actual treatment, and so do the researchers. B) The test group does not know whether they are receiving a placebo or the actual treatment, but the researchers do. C) The test group knows whether they are receiving a placebo or the actual treatment, but the researchers do not know until all the data are collected. D) Neither the test group nor the researchers know whether the test group is receiving a placebo or the actual treatment until all the data are collected. 36) Many medical studies include a control group in which patients receive a medically ineffective treatment that resembles the treatment tested. What do we call the ineffective treatment? A) The placebo B) The dependent variable C) The controlled experiment D) The hypothesis 37) Many medical studies show that patients who receive a treatment feel better even if the treatment was an ineffective sugar pill. What is this phenomenon called? A) The control group B) The placebo effect C) The fake effect D) The blind effect 38) Which of the following statements cannot be tested by science? A) Male lions sleep 20 hours a day. B) Male lions have brown manes. C) It is wrong that male lions kill baby lions when taking over a new pride. D) All statements can be tested by science. 39) A well-substantiated explanation of some aspect the natural world, based on a body of facts that have been repeatedly confirmed through observations and experiments, is referred to as a(n) . A) idea B) hypothesis C) theory D) fact 40) You want to know whether cookies made with unbleached flour taste better than cookies made with bleached flour; which of the following has the strongest experimental design to test this question? A) Make two batches of cookies, both with bleached flour; one taster tries both types and ranks which type they like best. B) Make two batches of cookies, one with bleached flour and one with unbleached flour; one taster tries both types and ranks which type they like best. C) Make two batches of cookies, one with bleached flour and one with unbleached flour; twenty tasters try both types and rank which type they like best. D) Make two batches of cookies, one with bleached flour and one with unbleached flour; twenty tasters try both types without knowing which ones they are eating and rank which type they like best. 41) What is misleading about commercials that show "scientific proof" that laundry detergent X is better than another leading brand? A) We are shown only one tee-shirt becoming whiter in each detergent, not 20 tee-shirts in each detergent. B) We do not know whether the same amount of each detergent was used for washing. C) We do not know if everything besides the detergents was the same (machine used, type of stains, etc.). D) All of the above are aspects that are misleading. 42) A controlled experiment is one in which . A) there are at least two groups, one differing from the other by two or more variables B) the experiment is repeated many times to ensure that the results are accurate C) the experiment proceeds at a slow pace to guarantee that the scientist can carefully observe all reactions and process all experimental data D) there are at least two groups, one of which does not receive the experimental treatment 43) What does it mean when we say, "This scientific study was published in a peer-reviewed journal"? A) This study can now be viewed on the Internet. B) This study was published in a newspaper. C) This study was evaluated by qualified and impartial experts before being published. D) This study was not evaluated by other scientists. 44) What is the difference between a primary and a secondary source? A) A primary source is the original material published by the scientists, whereas a secondary source is a description of the original material. B) A primary source is the raw data before scientists publish, whereas a secondary source is a description of the original material. C) A primary source is the original material published by the scientists, whereas a secondary source is the raw data before scientists publish. D) There is no difference between primary and secondary sources. Use the following table to answer the following question(s). Table 1: Cookie parameters with varying fat levels Data from Pareyt, Bram, Faisal Talhaoui, Greet Kerckhofs, Kristof Brijs, Hans Goesaert, Martine Wevers, and Jan A. Delcour, "The Role of Sugar and Fat in Sugar-Snap Cookies: Structural and Textural Properties." Journal of Food Engineering 90, 3 (Feb. 1, 2009): 400-408. 45) Based on the table above, which type of cookie was the heaviest? A) The cookies with the most fat B) The cookies with intermediate amount of fat C) The cookies with the least fat D) The amount of fat did not affect the weight of cookies 46) Based on the table above, which cookies were the moistest? A) The cookies with the most fat B) The cookies with intermediate amount of fat C) The cookies with the least fat D) All cookies had the same moisture 47) Based on the table above, which of the following statements is not correct? A) Cookies with the most fat were the cookies that were not only the flattest but also the largest in diameter. B) Cookies with the most fat were the cookies that were not only the flattest but also the driest with the least moisture. C) Cookies with the most fat were the cookies that were not only the thickest but also the largest in diameter. D) Cookies with the least fat were not only the heaviest but also the thickest cookies. 48) Based on the table above, which of the following statements is correct? A) The amount of fat and sugar in the cookies affects not only the cookies' weight and size but also their moisture. B) The amount of fat in the cookies affects not only the cookies' weight and size but also their moisture. The effects of sugar on the cookies are unknown. C) The amount of sugar in the cookies affects not only the cookies' weight and size but also their moisture. The effects of far on the cookies are unknown. D) Fat and sugar do not affect the cookies' weight, size, and moisture. Use the following graph to answer the following question(s). 50) Regardless of the amount of fat contained in cookies, the most common cell size in a cookie was . A) very large (larger than 1,500 μm) B) very small (smaller than 100 μm) C) between 280 and 500 μm D) between 1,000 and 15,000 μm 51) What type of graph is this? A) A bar graph B) A pie chart C) A scatter plot D) A table 54) How can you recognize a reliable source of information? A) By checking whether the authors are well qualified B) By checking whether the source of information is primary C) By checking whether the information was peer-reviewed D) All of the above are ways to check whether a source is reliable   Chapter 2 1) The chemical name for table salt is sodium chloride, or simply NaCl. What type of chemical is NaCl? A) A compound B) An element C) A molecule D) An ion 3) During a chemical reaction, atoms are . A) destroyed B) created C) rearranged D) destroyed and created 4) Which of the following statements regarding chemical reactions is false? A) The products of a chemical reaction always have the same mass as the reactants. B) During a chemical reaction, molecules are rearranged. C) During a chemical reaction, atoms of one element can be converted into a different element. D) There are chemical reactions close to you right now. 5) What is a trace element? A) An element that is very common in nature B) An element that is evenly distributed on the planet C) An element that is required in miniscule amounts for life D) An element that is used to identify the location of other elements 6) What is the most common element in your body? A) Oxygen B) Water C) Carbon D) Sugar 9) How many neutrons are in a typical oxygen atom? A) 8 B) 12 C) 18 D) Not enough information given 10) Which number represents the atomic weight of oxygen? A) 6 B) 16 C) 18 D) Not enough information given 11) The atomic number corresponds to the number of in a specific element, while the atomic weight corresponds to the number of in a specific element. A) protons; neutrons B) neutrons; protons C) protons; protons and neutrons D) protons and neutrons; neutrons 12) In an atom, the number of neutrons determines most specifically the . A) chemical element B) isotope C) ion state D) chemical properties 14) The number of electrons of an atom determines its . A) chemical element B) isotope C) bonding properties D) all of the above are correct 15) The bond in which bonded atoms share electrons is called a(n) . A) ionic bond B) covalent bond C) hydrogen bond D) polar bond 16) Which of the following bonds is the weakest? A) The ionic bond B) The covalent bond C) The hydrogen bond D) All three bonds are roughly equal in strength 18) What is the maximum number of single covalent bonds a carbon atom can form with other elements? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 21) Which of the following properties of water molecules has important implications to life? A) High surface tension B) The ability to dissolve polar substances C) The ability of ice to float in water D) All of the above are true 22) Water is the least dense when it . A) is frozen B) is just above freezing C) is at room temperature D) is just below boiling 25) How can we explain that water is a solvent? A) Water has a polar nature, and as such its polar molecules will bind to substances that have positive or negative charges. B) Water is a heavy substance, and as such can disrupt pre-existing bonds. C) Water is highly cohesive and adhesive, which allows it to bind to different substances as a solvent. D) Water is very dense in its liquid state, which allows it to bind to different substances as a solvent. 26) When water melts from a solid ice cube to a liquid, its volume and its mass . A) Increases; decreases B) Decreases; increases C) Decreases; stays the same D) Increases; stays the same 27) Select the most complete explanation of what the pH scale measures. A) The acidity of a solvent B) The alkalinity of a solvent C) The concentration of hydrogen ions in a solution D) The concentration of buffers in a solution 28) What are the ecological consequences of acidification of rain and oceans? A) They damage the health of ecosystems. B) They do not have any consequences on ecosystems. C) They improve the health of ecosystems. D) Acid rain damages ecosystems, but ocean acidification improves the health of oceans. 29) Something with a pH of 5 would be . A) acidic B) basic C) neutral D) alkaline 31) Which of the following accurately describes the pH scale? A) The pH scale runs from 0 (most basic) to 14 (most acidic), with 7 as a neutral. B) The pH scale runs from 0 (most acidic) to 14 (most basic), with 7 as a neutral. C) The pH scale runs from 0 (neutral) to 14 (most acidic), with 7 as an average acidity level. D) The pH scale runs from 0 (most acidic) to 14 (neutral), with 7 as an average acidity level. 32) Organic compounds are distinguished by molecules that contain bonded to other elements. A) nitrogen B) carbon C) oxygen D) hydrogen 33) What are the four classes of large organic molecules important to life on Earth? A) Carbohydrates, lipids, proteins, and enzymes B) Carbohydrates, lipids, proteins, and sugars C) Carbohydrates, proteins, nucleic acids, and sugars D) Carbohydrates, proteins, lipids, and nucleic acids 34) What is an organic compound? A) A molecule that contains nitrogen bonded to other elements B) A molecule that contains carbon bonded to other elements C) A molecule that contains both carbon and nitrogen D) A molecule that contains a nitrogen skeleton 35) Why is life based on carbon-based molecules? A) Because carbon is found everywhere B) Because carbon has unique ionic properties C) Because a single carbon can bond with up to four other atoms D) Because a single carbon can bond with up to eight other atoms 36) Which of the following large organic molecules include table sugar? A) Carbohydrates B) Lipids C) Proteins D) Nucleic acids 37) The breaking of a large organic molecule into smaller, individual subunits involves multiple . A) hydrolysis reactions B) osmotic reactions C) dehydration synthesis reactions D) hydrosynthetic reactions 38) The building of a large organic molecule from small subunits involves multiple . A) hydrolysis reactions B) osmotic reactions C) dehydration synthesis reactions D) hydrosynthetic reactions 39) What are the monomers of proteins? A) Glucose B) Nucleic acids C) Fatty acids D) Amino acids 40) What do we call the sum total of all the chemical reactions that take place in your body? A) Catabolism B) Anabolism C) Embolism D) Metabolism 41) What is another name for the polymers of carbohydrates? A) Triglycerides B) Polysaccharides C) Polypeptides D) Nucleotides 42) Which of the following is not made from long chains of glucose? A) Starch B) Sucrose C) Glycogen D) Cellulose 43) Which of the following represents a simple sugar (also called a monosaccharide)? A) Lactose B) Cellulose C) Glucose D) Sucrose (table sugar) 44) Which of the following is a polysaccharide? A) Glucose B) Cellulose C) Fructose D) Sucrose 45) is the polysaccharide most commonly found in highly fibrous foods such as celery. A) Starch B) Cellulose C) Glycogen D) Chitin 46) What are isomers? A) Two molecules that have the same arrangement of atoms B) Two atoms that have the same ionic properties C) Two molecules that have the same atoms arranged differently D) Two elements that can bond with each other 47) All lipids are . A) water-loving molecules B) hydrophilic C) hydrophobic D) hydrolytic 48) Evaluate this statement: Cholesterol is a type of lipid, and thus all cholesterol lipids are bad for human health. A) True, because high levels of cholesterol lead to increased heart disease. B) True, because high levels of cholesterol lead to obesity. C) False, because some types cholesterol increase heart disease, but other types are necessary, especially in the plasma membrane. D) False, because cholesterol levels are not related to human health. 49) What is the basic structure of a triglyceride? A) A glycerol head and three fatty acid tails B) A linear chain of fatty acids C) A branched chain of fatty acids D) A chain of fatty acid tails 50) Which of the following dietary fats is considered to be the least healthy? A) Saturated fat B) Trans unsaturated fat C) Cholesterol D) All dietary fats are unhealthy 51) Oil hydrogenation can produce a product, such as vegetable shortening or margarine, that is spreadable at room temperature because of an unusual bond that does not occur naturally. What is the name of this category of lipid? A) Saturated fat B) Healthy fat C) Trans fat D) Cholesterol 52) Which would have the highest concentration of C–H bonds? A) Saturated fat B) Unsaturated fat C) Trans fat D) Cholesterol 53) Which of the following molecules is solid at room temperature? A) Saturated fats B) Unsaturated fats C) Cholesterol D) Both saturated and unsaturated fats 54) What kind of bond joins amino acids together to form a protein? A) Peptide bond B) Hydrogen bond C) Polar bond D) Protein bond 55) A polypeptide is . A) a long chain of amino acids B) a long chain of glucose C) a long chain of fatty acids D) a long chain of nucleic acids 56) To a large extent, a protein's function is dependent upon its shape. What determines a protein's shape? A) The location of the active site B) The sequence of amino acids C) The number of amino acids D) The number of peptide bonds 57) Proteins are diverse molecules that perform a wide variety of functions. Which of the following is not a typical function of proteins? A) Transport B) Catalyze reactions via enzymes C) Movement D) Energy storage 58) What might happen if a protein has a change in one amino acid? A) The amino acid chain folds incorrectly. B) The protein can no longer function properly. C) The protein has a new shape. D) All of these may happen. 59) Enzymes are a type of . A) carbohydrate B) protein C) lipid D) monomer 61) What are inhibitors? A) Molecules that allow reactions to proceed more quickly B) Molecules that prevent enzymes from working C) Molecules that inhibit protein synthesis D) Molecules that bind to an enzyme to help its reaction   Chapter 3 1) Identify the prokaryotic organism from the list below. A) Fungus B) Bacteria C) Animal D) Protist 2) Which cellular structure is unique to plant cells? A) Ribosome B) Chloroplasts C) Mitochondria D) Plasma membrane 4) Which cellular structure is unique to animal cells? A) Nucleus B) Ribosomes C) Mitochondria D) Lysosome 5) Which of the following statements is correct? A) Prokaryotic cells and eukaryotic cells evolved at about the same time. B) Prokaryotic cells evolved a lot earlier (over a billion years) than eukaryotic cells. C) Eukaryotic cells evolved a lot earlier (over a billion years) than prokaryotic cells. D) Scientists do not have any evidence regarding whether prokaryotic or eukaryotic cells evolved first. 6) Which of the following statements is correct? A) Achaea are part of the same domain as bacteria in the classification of life. B) Archaea are made up of eukaryotic cells. C) Archaea are older organisms than eukaryotes. D) Archaea are typically multicellular organisms. 7) Prokaryotes consist of . A) organisms belonging all to the same domain, bacteria B) organisms belonging to two different domains, bacteria and archaea C) organisms belonging to three different domains, bacteria, archaea, and protists D) organisms belonging to eukaryotes 8) Eukaryotes are . A) always multicellular B) often multicellular, sometimes unicellular (PROTOZOA) C) always unicellular D) often made of prokaryotic cells 10) Were there any eukaryotic cells on Earth 1.5 billion years ago? A) Yes, they first appear in the fossil record around 3.5 billion years ago. B) Yes, they first appear in the fossil record around 1.8 billion years ago. C) No, they do not appear in the fossil record until around 1 million years ago. D) No, they do not appear in the fossil record until around 500 million years ago. 11) Which organelle functions to break down and recycle large molecules? A) Ribosome B) Golgi apparatus C) Lysosome D) Chloroplast 14) Select the image that is representative of an idealized plant cell. A) B) C) D) Both A and C 15) Which structure selectively regulates the transport of substances into and out of a plant cell? A) The plasma membrane B) The cell wall C) The nucleus D) The chloroplast 17) Which of the following is an accurate description of the plasma membrane? A) Two layers of phospholipids with a number of proteins embedded within B) One layer of phospholipids with a number of proteins embedded within C) Two layers of proteins with a few phospholipids embedded within D) One layer of proteins with a few phospholipids embedded within 18) What is a phospholipid? A) A special kind of lipid with a water-fearing head and 2 water-loving tails B) A special kind of lipid with a water-loving head and 2 water-fearing tails C) A special kind of lipid with 2 water-loving heads and 1 water-fearing tail D) A special kind of lipid with 2 water-fearing heads and 1 water-loving tail 19) The passive transport of water is specifically called . A) simple diffusion B) facilitated diffusion C) hydrosmosis D) osmosis 21) Which form of transport requires the expenditure of energy? A) Facilitated diffusion B) Active transport C) Passive transport D) Osmosis 22) Which statement best describes active transport? A) A substance goes from an area of low concentration to an area of high concentration, and this releases energy. B) A substance goes from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration, and this requires energy. C) A substance goes from an area of low concentration to an area of high concentration, and this requires energy. D) A substance goes from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration, and this releases energy. 23) Which statement best describes passive transport? A) A substance goes from an area of low concentration to an area of high concentration, and this releases energy. B) A substance goes from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration, and this requires energy. C) A substance goes from an area of low concentration to an area of high concentration, and this requires energy. D) A substance goes from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration, and this releases energy. 25) What might happen to your red blood cells if your blood solute concentration began to fall rapidly below normal? A) Your blood cells would stay the same size. B) Your blood cells would enlarge and could rupture because water would move into the cells via osmosis. C) Your blood cells would shrivel because water would move out of the cells via osmosis. D) We do not have enough information to answer this question. 26) What is the definition of endocytosis? A) The entire plasma membrane turns itself inside out. B) The digestion of larger molecules that were brought into the cell. C) The transport of large molecules into the cell. D) The transport of large molecules out of the cell. 27) Which would most likely pass unaided through a plasma membrane? A) Something small and nonpolar, such as nitrogen gas B) Something small and polar, such as a water molecule C) Something small and charged, such as an ion D) Something large, such as a glucose molecule 28) Substances are often packaged into small for transport, either through the membrane or throughout the interior of the cell. A) vacuoles B) corpuscles C) vesicles D) organelles 29) What passes through the nuclear pores? A) RNA B) DNA C) DNA and RNA D) Neither DNA nor RNA 30) Which of the following statements is correct regarding chromosomes in a eukaryotic cell? A) Chromosomes are strands of DNA, tightly wrapped up, that are located everywhere in the cell. B) Chromosomes are strands of RNA, tightly wrapped up, that are in the cytoplasm. C) Chromosomes are strands of DNA, tightly wrapped up, that are located in the nucleus. D) Chromosomes are strands of RNA, loosely wrapped up, that are located everywhere in the cell. 32) How is DNA linked to the production of proteins? A) Proteins hold the instructions on how to make DNA. B) DNA is the end point of protein production that allows cells to finish making proteins. C) DNA holds the instructions for the cells on how to make proteins. D) DNA is not linked to the production of proteins. 33) Which of the following statements is true in eukaryotic cells? A) Transcription occurs in the nucleus, and translation occurs in the cytoplasm. B) Transcription occurs in the cytoplasm, and translation occurs in the nucleus. C) Transcription and translation both occur in the nucleus. D) Transcription and translation both occur in the cytoplasm. 34) Which of the following statements is true in prokaryotic organisms? A) Transcription occurs in the nucleus, and translation occurs in the cytoplasm. B) Transcription and translation both occur in the nucleus. C) Transcription and translation both occur in the cytoplasm. D) Prokaryotic organisms do not carry out transcription or translation, only eukaryotic cells do. 35) Which of the following statements is typically false? A) DNA is double stranded, whereas RNA is single stranded. B) DNA contains the same nucleotides as RNA. C) The process that goes from DNA to RNA is called transcription. D) The process that goes from RNA to protein is called translation. 36) Ribosomes are directly associated with which process? A) Transcription B) Translocation C) Translation D) Replication 37) Where are ribosomes located in eukaryotic cells? A) In the cytoplasm only B) On the rough endoplasmic reticulum only C) On the smooth endoplasmic reticulum and in the cytoplasm D) On the rough endoplasmic reticulum and in the cytoplasm 38) Which is the correct pathway of a protein through a cell as it is being made? Nucleus, ER, Ribosome, vesicles, Golgi, vesicles A) Nucleus, Golgi apparatus, ribosome B) Golgi apparatus, ribosome, rough endoplasmic reticulum C) Nucleus, smooth endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi apparatus = dapat rough ER ? D) Ribosome, Golgi apparatus 39) Final protein refinements, storage, and packaging occur . A) in the cytoplasm B) in the rough endoplasmic reticulum C) in the smooth endoplasmic reticulum D) in the Golgi apparatus 40) Mitochondria have an unusual characteristic for organelles that make them very useful in genetic studies. This characteristic is . A) mitochondria contain their own DNA B) mitochondria have an unusual membrane C) mitochondria produce a lot of ATP D) mitochondria are only found in females 43) What harvests energy from food molecules to make ATP? A) Chloroplasts B) Mitochondria C) Nucleus D) Lysosome 44) What is ATP? A) A protein B) A carbohydrate C) An energy molecule D) An information storage molecule 45) Which reaction represents cellular respiration? A) Sugar + Oxygen → Carbon dioxide+ Water + ATP B) Carbon dioxide + Water + ATP → Sugar + Oxygen C) Oxygen + Carbon dioxide → Sugar + Water + ATP D) Water + ATP → Carbon dioxide + Sugar 46) How is heat involved in photosynthesis and respiration? A) It is a waste product. B) It is a needed input for both reactions. C) It is a needed input for respiration only, and a product for photosynthesis. D) Heat is not involved in photosynthesis or in respiration. 47) Do only plants have vacuoles? A) Yes, only plants cells have vacuoles. B) No, other organisms, such as certain types of fungi and protists, have vacuoles that serve different functions. C) No, other organisms, such as certain types of fungi and protists, have vacuoles that serve the same function as in plant cells. D) No, bacteria also contain vacuoles that serve the same function 48) What is the function of the cell wall? A) To provide protection for the cell B) To help maintain the shape of the cell C) To provide the stiffness needed D) All of the above are functions of the cell wall 49) The long extension of a cell that can propel a cell forward by whipping back and forth (such as human sperm) is called a . A) vesicle B) flagellum C) pilus D) cilium 50) The cytoskeleton has several primary functions. The first and most obvious is that it acts as an interior skeleton that supports the rest of the cell. What is another function of the cytoskeleton? A) It provides a communication network whereby chemo-electrical signals can be sent from one area of the cell to another. B) It creates a durable outer covering to increase the strength and rigidity of the cell. C) It provides a series of tracks along which vesicles can move throughout the cell. D) It connects one cell to another.   Chapter 4 1) Water behind a dam has a certain amount of stored energy that can be released as the water falls over the top of the dam. It may be enough energy to turn a mill wheel or an electricity- generating turbine. Choose the term that best describes the type of energy stored in the water at the top of the dam. A) Chemical C) Radiant D) Kinetic 2) We use energy in many ways. What is one thing we cannot do to energy? B) Waste it. C) Convert it. D) Store it. 3) What is the definition of energy? B) The movement of an object C) Particles moving in waves through a system D) The amount of order in a system 5) Which of the following is a common energy currency in living cells that powers most living organisms? A) Sunlight B) Heat D) Phosphate 6) Since energy cannot be created, which arrow represents the energy that will be converted to chemical energy the chameleon can later use? A) Arrow A, the tongue extending B) C) Arrow C, sunlight striking the chameleon D) Arrow D, heat radiating from the chameleon 7) How does ATP release energy that can be used by living cells? A) By being exposed to body heat C) By being exposed to sunlight D) By adding more phosphate groups to itself 8) Evaluate the following statement about heat: Heat is released in all energy conversion processes as a byproduct. A) B) False, heat is never released as a byproduct. C) False, heat is released as a byproduct only in a few energy conversion processes. D) False, heat is released in most but not all energy conversion processes. 10) Chemical energy is most often released by . A) creating a bond between two molecules B) C) reorganizing molecules with each other D) adding phosphate groups to a molecule 11) Identify the principal role of cellular respiration. A) To convert solar energy into the chemical energy of sugars B) To convert kinetic energy into the chemical energy of sugars C) D) To convert the chemical energy of sugars into heat to maintain an elevated body temperature 13) Select the ultimate source of energy for nearly every organism on this planet. A) Plants B) ATP molecules C) D) Sugars 14) Which of the following can carry out photosynthesis? A) Seaweeds B) Some bacteria C) Plants D) 16) Which processes can be carried out by consumers? A) Only photosynthesis B) C) Both photosynthesis and cellular respiration D) Neither photosynthesis nor cellular respiration 17) Heat is released in both photosynthesis and cellular respiration as a byproduct. A) True, both processes release heat B) False, only photosynthesis releases heat as a byproduct D) Fall, neither photosynthesis nor respiration release heat as a byproduct 18) The chemical reactions of photosynthesis occur in which cellular organelle? A) B) Nucleus C) Mitochondria D) Ribosomes 19) Which of the following organism is not a consumer? A) A lion B) A human C) A mushroom D) 20) What is the role of chloroplasts in animals? A) To produce ATP B) To carry out photosynthesis C) To produce sugars D) 22) How does water enter a plant? A) B) Through the stomata C) Through the leaf D) Through the grana 23) Which of the following best describes the chemical equation for photosynthesis? A) Carbon dioxide + Sugar + Energy = Oxygen + Water B) Oxygen + Water + Carbon dioxide = Sugar + Energy C) D) Oxygen + Sugar = Water + Carbon dioxide + Energy 24) Plastids are storage organelles. A chloroplast is a type of plastid. What does a chloroplast store? A) Carbon B) C) Sugar D) Oxygen 25) How do we know green light is not absorbed by chlorophyll? A) B) Not enough of the green light penetrates the ozone layer and makes it to the plant. C) Green light has such a small wavelength that most of it goes straight through the leaves without interacting with the chlorophyll. D) Green light does not have enough energy to excite an electron in the photosystem. 26) Name the fluid-filled interior of the chloroplast. A) Thylakoids B) C) Grana D) Stomata The following question(s) relate to the data table below, showing typical fluctuating pH and dissolved oxygen levels in a fish pond with a heavy concentration of algae over a 24-hour period. Time Oxygen (ppm) pH 2 A.M. 4.5 7.7 4 A.M. 2.8 7.2 6 A.M. 2.2 6.8 8 A.M. 2.5 6.8 10 A.M. 3.9 7.2 Noon 6.5 7.7 2 P.M. 10.0 8.3 4 P.M. 12.1 8.8 6 P.M. 13.1 9.2 8 P.M. 13.0 9.2 10 P.M. 12.0 8.8 Midnight 10.8 8.3 28) You are investigating a massive fish kill in one of the shallow lakes in the area. Lab reports show no toxins in the water, but a monitoring station reported these oxygen and pH values. Based on the table above, what, if any, is the relationship between oxygen and pH? A) Inverse relationship: when one increases, the other decreases B) C) Exponential relationship: when one increases, the other increases 10 to 100 times D) No relationship: there is no pattern between oxygen and pH 29) In such a pond that contains algae and fish, what processes are happening? A) Only cellular respiration is happening, carried out by both the algae and the fish B) Only photosynthesis is happening, carried out by the algae C) Both photosynthesis (carried out by the algae) and cellular respiration (carried out by the fish) are happening D) 30) In such a pond that contains algae and fish, what is happening to the oxygen? A) Oxygen is only produced by the algae B) Oxygen is only consumed by the fish C) Oxygen is only consumed by both the algae and the fish D) 31) What is a possible reason for oxygen to be so low by the end of the night? A) Algae produce oxygen as a by-product of photosynthesis during the day, and not at night, so oxygen runs out by the end of the night; fish are not linked to the low oxygen. B) Fish consume oxygen during the night, and oxygen starts to run out by dawn; algae are not linked to the low oxygen. C) . D) Neither fish nor algae or linked to the low oxygen found at the end of the night. 32) Upon closer examination, the fish appeared to have died from a lack of oxygen. What time of day did the fish most likely die? A) Around midnight B) C) In the middle of the afternoon D) At sundown 33) What molecule(s) link the light reactions (stage 1 of photosynthesis) to the Calvin cycle (stage 2 of photosynthesis)? A) The oxygen and carbon dioxide molecules B) C) The sugars D) The water 34) The main purpose of the Calvin cycle is to produce . A) O2 B) ATP C) CO2 D) 36) What is a photosystem? A) Stacks of thylakoids B) A double-membrane organelle containing thylakoids C) D) A leaf or any green part of the plant 37) Identify the role of oxygen in photosynthesis. A) It is split to form sugar. B) It is the final electron acceptor. C) D) It is the initial electron releaser. 39) What is the role of light in photosynthesis? A) It is the source of electrons. B) It fixes carbon into sugars. C) D) It splits ATP molecules. 40) What happens during the electron transport chain of the light reactions? A) The electrons get increasingly excited as they move up the chain. B) The electrons release their energy, which is captured by ATP and NADPH. C) The electrons get fused with each other to capture energy. D) The electrons interact with oxygen to move up the chain. 41) Which process produces glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate (3GP)? A) Citric acid cycle B) Fermentation C) D) Glycolysis 42) Where do the molecules used as the inputs of the Calvin cycles (ATP and NADPH) come from? A) They come from the sun. B) C) They come from the air. D) They come from previous Calvin cycles. 43) Identify the role of carbon dioxide in photosynthesis. A) B) It is split to release electrons. C) It is a by-product of the Calvin cycle D) It is the final electron acceptor. 45) For what purpose does a plant use the sugars produced during photosynthesis? A) For cellular respiration to produce ATP B) For storage C) For making cellulose, which makes the bulk of a plant D) 46) At what stage(s) is carbon dioxide needed in photosynthesis? A) At the very beginning of the light reactions B) At the end of the light reactions C) D) During both the light reactions and the Calvin cycle 47) Where does cellular respiration occur? A) In the chloroplasts B) C) In the nucleus D) In the airways of the respiratory system 48) What happens to the ATP molecule after it has been used to do work? A) It breaks down into carbon dioxide and water. B) It is split into two molecules of pyruvic acid. C) D) It is completely destroyed. 49) Respiration is called aerobic because . A) it happens in the absence of oxygen B) it requires oxygen C) it requires carbon dioxide D) it happens in mitochondria 50) What are the main by-products of cellular respiration? A) Oxygen and sugars B) Sugars and water C) D) Carbon dioxide and oxygen 51) What is the main purpose of cellular respiration? A) To produce carbon dioxide B) To produce sugars C) D) To produce oxygen 52) Which molecule has a higher potential energy? A) ADP B) C) ANP D) NADP+ 53) Identify the stage of cellular respiration where glucose is split into two molecules of pyruvic acid. A) Citric acid cycle B) Calvin cycle C) Electron transport chain D) 54) Identify the stage of cellular respiration that occurs entirely outside of the mitochondria. A) Citric acid cycle B) Electron transport chain C) D) All of the above occur outside of the mitochondria 55) During which stage of cellular respiration is the majority of the ATP produced? A) Glycolysis B) Citric acid cycle C) Fermentation D) 56) Which stage of cellular respiration requires oxygen that you breathe? A) Glycolysis B) Citric acid cycle C) Electron transport chain D) 57) ATP molecules are charged during cellular respiration; where does the energy to charge the ATPs comes from? A) B) The energy comes from the water. C) The energy comes from the building of carbon dioxide. D) The energy comes from the breaking of oxygen. 58) What is the chemical equation for glucose? A) C2H4O2 B) C4 H8O4 C) D) C8H16O8 59) Can energy be harvested by the cells from glucose without oxygen? A) Yes, about as much as with oxygen. B) Yes, but not quite as much as with oxygen. C) D) No, oxygen is required to harvest any energy from glucose. 60) What is anaerobic fermentation? A) A process that releases energy from food in the presence of oxygen B) A process that releases energy from food in the absence of oxygen C) A process that releases energy from food that is more efficient than aerobic respiration D) A process that releases energy from food only found in bacteria 62) Alcohol is a waste product produced by yeast in the presence of sugar and the absence of . A) CO2 B) H2O C) O2 D) ATP   Chapter 5 1) The offspring produced via asexual reproduction are genetically to the parents. A) indifferent B) identical C) parsimonious D) unique 2) Upon fertilization, the egg and sperm fuse to form a single cell called a(n) . A) zygote B) gamete C) embryo D) gonad 3) Dead or damaged cells are replaced by the process of . A) fertilization B) binary fission C) meiosis D) mitosis 5) Cell theory states that . A) cells can be created from sexual reproduction or from asexual reproduction B) all life is made up of cells, and cells arise from preexisting cells C) cells come from non-cell entities D) cells go through the process of cell division 6) Human white blood cells are often multinucleated (in other words, have more than one nucleus). How many chromosomes would be present in a human white blood cell with two nuclei? A) 46 B) 92 C) 184 D) It varies depending on gender. 8) DNA plus its associated proteins is called a . A) centromere B) gene C) chromatin D) genome 9) Chromosomes are often represented as an X, with two sister chromatids attached at the centromere. Do chromosomes always look like an X? A) Yes, chromosomes are always made up of two sister chromatids attached. B) No, chromosomes only look like an X when condensed, but they always have two sister chromatids attached. C) No, chromosomes only look like an X following DNA replication, and before cell division; D) No, chromosomes only look like an X right after cell division; the rest of the time, they have only one sister chromatid each. 10) Genes are located on . A) chromosomes B) the cytoplasm C) mitosis D) the centromere 11) What are attached at the centromere? A) Homologous chromosomes B) Sister chromatids C) Daughter cells D) Genomes 13) During which phase of the cell cycle are the chromosomes duplicated? A) Interphase B) Mitosis C) Meiosis D) Cytokinesis 14) How many chromosomes and chromatids would a typical human cell have after duplication but before mitosis? A) 23 chromosomes, 23 sister chromatids B) 23 chromosomes, 46 sister chromatids C) 46 chromosomes, 46 sister chromatids D) 46 chromosomes, 92 sister chromatids 17) What specifically separates during anaphase of mitosis? A) Homologous chromosomes B) Sister chromatids C) The cytoplasm D) The genome 18) What is cytokinesis? A) The stage of the cell cycle that happens before the cell is ready to divide its DNA B) The stage of the cell cycle during which the cell separates its duplicated DNA C) The stage of the cell cycle during which the cell duplicates its DNA D) The stage of the cell cycle after the cell has divided its DNA and during which the cytoplasm 19) What happens during cytokinesis? A) The sister chromatids line up in the middle of the cell. B) The sister chromatids split apart and go to opposite sides of the cell. C) The cytoplasm replicates itself to be distributed to the two daughter cells created during mitosis. D) The cytoplasm is split and distributed to the two daughter cells created during mitosis. 20) When does the cell plate form during cell division? A) In the middle of animal cell mitosis B) In the middle of plant cell mitosis C) At the completion of animal cell mitosis D) At the completion of plant cell mitosis 22) In reproductive cloning, when a clone grows from a single cell to a full organism, the development happens through . A) meiosis B) cloning C) mitosis D) surrogate growth 23) Which of the following is a type of cloning? A) Artificial cloning of plants to generate specific types of fruits or vegetables B) Reproductive cloning, where organisms are produced through nuclear transplantation C) Therapeutic cloning of stem cells to general specialized cell D) All of the above are types of cloning 24) How could an embryonic stem cell be used to repair a severed spine? A) Embryonic stem cells secrete proteins that repair all other cell types, including nerve cells. B) Embryonic stem cells can grow into any other cell type, including a nerve cell. C) Embryonic stem cells can cause any other cell type to multiply. D) Embryonic stem cells are primarily involved with neural growth and development. 25) How many chromosomes did you inherit from your father? A) 2 B) 23 C) 46 D) 92 26) Somatic cells are . A) haploid (n) B) haploid (2n) C) diploid (n) D) diploid (2n) 27) If a human diploid cell and a human haploid cell somehow managed to fuse together and not lose any of the chromosomes, how many sets of chromosomes would be inside the newly formed cell? A) 3 B) 2.5 C) 2 D) 1.5 28) What is the gender of the person indicated in the photograph? A) Male B) Female C) Cannot be determined 29) What is a karyotype? A) A picture of all the chromosomes in one person's cell B) A list of all the genes on our chromosomes C) A complete sequence of our DNA D) A list of all the mutations in our chromosomes 30) In the picture below, how many chromosomes are present? A) 22 B) 23 C) 46 D) 92 31) In the picture below, what is encircled? A) A sister chromatid B) A single chromosome C) Two sister chromatids D) A pair of homologous chromosomes 32) If a cell had 12 chromosomes at the beginning of meiosis II, how many would each daughter cell have after the completion of meiosis II? A) 6 B) 12 C) 18 D) 24 34) What specifically separates during meiosis II? A) Homologous chromosomes B) Sister chromatids C) The cytoplasm D) The genome 35) If mitosis makes somatic cells, what does meiosis make? A) Gametes B) Heart cells C) Nerve cells D) Body cells 36) What produces four daughter cells? A) Meiosis B) Mitosis C) Both of these D) Neither of these 38) Which process requires DNA to undergo duplication before it can proceed? A) Meiosis B) Mitosis C) Both of these D) Neither of these 39) Which of the following processes does not generate genetic variation during sexual reproduction? A) Crossing over B) Independent assortment C) Random fertilization D) All of the processes above generate genetic variation 40) When does crossing over occur? A) Cytokinesis B) Mitosis C) Meiosis I D) Meiosis II 41) Evaluate this statement: crossing over is the only mechanism that creates genetic variation by creating hybrid chromosomes with new combinations of alleles. A) True, independent assortment and random fertilization create genetic variation by shuffling chromosomes instead B) False, independent assortment and random fertilization also create genetic variation by C) False, random fertilization also creates genetic variation by creating hybrid chromosomes D) False, independent assortment also creates genetic variation by creating hybrid chromosomes 42) What process can lead to an individual having too many or two few chromosomes? A) Crossing over B) Independent assortment C) Homologous recombination D) Nondisjunction 43) What is the name of the syndrome that produces the XXY combination of sex chromosomes? A) Jacob's syndrome B) Down syndrome C) Klinefelter syndrome D) Turner syndrome 45) Since an XO female can survive but an OY male cannot, what can we conclude about the genetic information in the X and Y chromosomes? A) Females need the Y chromosome to survive B) Males need at least one X chromosome to survive C) XX females are healthier than XO females D) YY males can survive 47) Two alleles of the same gene . A) are always different B) are always the same C) can be the same or can be different D) originate from the same parent 48) When I say a flower is "purple," what have I described? A) Its phenotype B) Its haplotype C) Its karyotype D) Its genotype 49) An individual can be homozygous for a trait, which means . A) both of their alleles carry the same information B) their two alleles carry different information C) they can only express the dominant trait D) they can only express the recessive trait 51) A homozygous milk chocolate Easter bunny is crossed with a homozygous dark chocolate Easter bunny. Assuming dark chocolate is dominant over milk chocolate and the traits segregate according to Mendelian genetics, which traits will be observable in the offspring? A) 3 dark to 1 milk B) 3 milk to 1 dark C) All milk D) All dark 52) A testcross is performed to determine if a specific individual is a carrier. The results generate a 50/50 ratio of phenotypes. The test subject is therefore . A) heterozygous B) homozygous dominant C) homozygous recessive D) heterozygous dominant 53) Assuming complete dominance, what is the expected ratio of genotypes of the offspring following the cross of two heterozygotes? A) 4:1 B) 1:1 C) 3:1 D) 1:2:1 54) Assuming complete dominance, what is the expected ratio of phenotypes of the offspring following the cross of two heterozygotes? A) 4:1 B) 1:1 C) 3:1 D) 1:2:1 55) Define Mendel's law of independent assortment. A) The inheritance of one character has no effect on the inheritance of another character. B) Segregation of homologous chromosomes is random. C) The expression of one gene has no effect on the expression of another gene. D) There are two versions of each trait, a dominant and a recessive; the one you get is random. 66) Which of the following processes generates a continuum (spectrum) of varying phenotypes? A) Incomplete dominance B) Polygenic inheritance C) Multiple alleles D) Single-gene traits 67) A woman with blood type B and a man with blood type A could have children with which of the following phenotypes? A) A, B, AB, or O B) AB only C) A, B, or O D) AB or O 68) Genes located near one another on the same chromosome are often inherited together. These are called . A) nonsegregated genes B) joined genes C) fused genes D) linked genes 69) If genes are described as "sex linked," then they are . A) typically on the X chromosome B) typically on the Y chromosome C) located next to one another D) expressed only in women or only in men 71) Hemophilia is a sex-linked, recessive genetic disorder. If a woman who was a carrier for hemophilia married a man who had the disorder, which of the following is not true? A) Female children would have a 50% chance of being hemophiliac. B) Female children would either have the disorder or be a carrier for the disorder. C) All male children would be hemophiliac. D) Male children would have a 50% chance of being hemophiliac.   Chapter 6 1) What is the monomer of the DNA molecule? A) Polynucleotide B) Monosaccharide C) D) Peptide 2) What do the letters D-N-A stand for? A) Dioxyribonucleic acid B) Dioxyribonuclear acid C) D) Deoxyrobonuclear acid 3) What is the type of bond between two strands of DNA? A) A peptide bond B) C) A ionic bond D) A covalent bond 5) What are the three components of a DNA nucleotide? A) A B) A sugar, a base, and a polypeptide C) A sugar, a phosphate, and a peptide D) A phosphate, a base, and a polypeptide 6) If you know that a DNA double helix consists of 20 % adenine, what percentage of the DNA double helix is guanine (G)? A) 20% C) 80% D) There is not information to know 7) Which enzyme is responsible for adding complementary DNA bases to an exposed DNA strand? A) DNA helicase B) C) DNA ligase D) DNA peptidase 8) What is the main function of DNA helicase in DNA replication? A) B) Adding complementary DNA bases to the newly forming DNA strand C) Proofreading the DNA molecule D) Fusing DNA fragments together 9) According to the base pairing rules of DNA, if the sequence of bases on one strand was AGGCTTA, what would be the sequence of bases on the complementary strand? A) AGGCTTA B) ATTCGGA C) CGGATTC D) 11) Which of the following statement is not correct about DNA replication? A) It happens in the nucleus B) It is semi-conservative C) D) It involves DNA polymerase 12) Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding DNA and RNA? A) They each contain a slightly different sugar molecule. B) DNA is double stranded, and RNA is a single strand. C) One of the bases is different. 13) If DNA directs the production of RNA, what does RNA make? A) B) RNA makes more DNA. C) RNA makes membranes. D) RNA makes more RNA. 14) How is DNA linked to the production of proteins? A) Proteins hold the instructions on how to make DNA. B) DNA is the end point of protein production that allows cells to finish making proteins. C) D) DNA is not linked to the production of proteins. 16) Why does transcription occur in the nucleus and not in the cytoplasm in eukaryotes? A) RNA cannot exist in the cytoplasm. B) C) Ribosomes cannot leave the nucleus. D) Codons are only found in the nucleus. 17) A codon is . A) three nucleotides of DNA that code for an amino acid C) the section of DNA that codes for a protein D) the section of RNA that codes for a protein 18) Ribosomes . A) B) transcribe DNA into mRNA C) are located inside the nucleus in eukaryotic cells D) are involved in making ATP for eukaryotic cells 19) What part of a chromosome goes through transcription and translation? A)