ATI CAPSTONE FUNDAMENTALS VERSION 1/NEWEST UPDATE 2026
Question 1
A nurse is completing a nutritional assessment on a client and measures their Body Mass Index
(BMI). Which of the following readings should the nurse identify as correlating with an
overweight client?
A) 17.5
B) 21.0
C) 24.5
D) 27.0
E) 32.5
Correct Answer: D) 27.0
Rationale: Body Mass Index (BMI) is a standardized screening tool used to identify weight
categories. A BMI below 18.5 is considered underweight. A healthy or "normal" weight
range is 18.5 to 24.9. The overweight range is defined as 25.0 to 29.9. A BMI of 30.0 or
higher falls into the obese category. Therefore, a reading of 27.0 specifically indicates that
the client is in the overweight range.
Question 2
A nurse is verifying the placement of a nasogastric (NG) tube by assessing the pH of aspirated
gastric fluid. Which of the following pH values provides the most reliable indication of correct
placement in the stomach?
A) 2
B) 5
C) 6
D) 7
E) 8
Correct Answer: A) 2
Rationale: Gastric secretions are highly acidic due to the presence of hydrochloric acid. In a
client who has been fasting, the pH of gastric aspirate is typically between 0 and 4. A pH of
2 is a classic finding for gastric placement. Values of 6 or higher typically suggest the tube
may be in the lungs (respiratory secretions) or the small intestine, necessitating further
verification, such as an X-ray, which remains the gold standard for confirmation.
Question 3
A nurse is caring for a client with a closed head injury. When pressure is applied to the nail beds,
the client opens their eyes, moans, and exhibits adduction of the arms with flexion of the elbows
and wrists. What is the client's Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score?
A) 3
B) 5
C) 7
, 2
D) 9
E) 11
Correct Answer: C) 7
Rationale: The GCS is calculated based on three categories: Eye Opening, Verbal Response,
and Motor Response. In this scenario: 1) Eyes open to pain = 2 points. 2) Verbal response is
moaning (incomprehensible sounds) = 2 points. 3) Motor response is decorticate posturing
(adduction and flexion) = 3 points. Total score: 2 + 2 + 3 = 7. A score of 8 or less typically
indicates a severe head injury and a comatose state.
Question 4
A nurse is teaching a client about the use of a three-point gait with crutches. Which of the
following clients would require this specific gait?
A) A client with bilateral leg weakness
B) A client who is able to bear full weight on both legs
C) A client with a right femur fracture and a "no weight-bearing" status on the affected leg
D) A client recovering from a total knee replacement with "weight-bearing as tolerated"
E) A client with severe ataxia requiring a wide base of support
Correct Answer: C) A client with a right femur fracture and a "no weight-bearing" status on
the affected leg
Rationale: The three-point gait requires the client to bear all of their weight on one
unaffected leg. The client moves both crutches and the affected (non-weight-bearing) leg
forward together, then moves the unaffected leg forward. This gait is specifically designed
for individuals who cannot put any weight on one extremity but have the upper body
strength to support themselves on crutches.
Question 5
A nurse is providing teaching about the Mediterranean diet to a client with hypertension. Which
statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "I will use olive oil instead of butter for cooking."
B) "I will consume fish at least twice a week."
) "I will limit my intake of red meat to twice a week."
D) "I will increase my intake of fresh fruits and vegetables."
E) "I will snack on nuts and seeds instead of processed chips."
Correct Answer: C) "I will limit my intake of red meat to twice a week."
Rationale: In a true Mediterranean diet, red meat should be limited to only a few times per
month (approximately twice monthly), not twice weekly. The diet emphasizes high intake of
plant-based foods, healthy fats like olive oil, and moderate intake of poultry and fish. If the
client believes twice-weekly red meat consumption is the standard, they require
clarification to maximize the cardiovascular benefits of the diet.
, 3
Question 6
A nurse is providing dietary education to a client with cholecystitis who has been prescribed a
low-fat diet. Which of the following meal selections indicates an understanding of the education?
A) Fried chicken, french fries, and whole milk
B) Roast turkey, rice pilaf, and green beans
C) Beef tacos with extra cheese and sour cream
D) Pepperoni pizza with a side salad and ranch dressing
E) Avocado toast with a fried egg and bacon
Correct Answer: B) Roast turkey, rice pilaf, and green beans
Rationale: Cholecystitis is inflammation of the gallbladder, often triggered by the ingestion
of fatty foods which cause the gallbladder to contract. A low-fat diet is essential. Roast
turkey (skinless), rice pilaf, and steamed green beans are all low in fat. The other options
contain high-fat items like fried foods, whole milk, cheese, sour cream, pepperoni, and
bacon, all of which could trigger a painful gallbladder attack.
Question 7
A client with a cystocele is encouraged to perform exercises to strengthen pelvic floor muscles.
Which of the following exercises should the nurse instruct the client to perform?
A) Squats
B) Planks
C) Kegels
D) Crunches
E) Jumping jacks
Correct Answer: C) Kegels
Rationale: Kegel exercises involve the repeated contraction and relaxation of the
pubococcygeus muscles (pelvic floor). Strengthening these muscles helps support pelvic
organs like the bladder and uterus. This is a primary non-surgical intervention to manage a
cystocele (protrusion of the bladder into the vagina) and can help reduce symptoms of
stress urinary incontinence.
Question 8
A nurse is caring for an older adult client with delirium. Which of the following interventions is
most effective for reducing the client's risk for falls?
A) Applying bilateral wrist restraints
B) Administering a sedative at bedtime
C) Hourly rounding by the nursing staff
D) Keeping all four side rails in the upright position
E) Dimming all lights in the room to promote rest
, 4
Correct Answer: C) Hourly rounding by the nursing staff
Rationale: Delirium involves acute confusion and fluctuating levels of consciousness, which
significantly increases fall risk. Hourly rounding allows the nurse to proactively address the
client's needs (toileting, pain, positioning), which reduces the likelihood of the client
attempting to get out of bed unassisted. Restraints and sedatives can increase agitation and
falls, while four side rails are considered a form of restraint.
Question 9
A nurse is teaching a client who has been prescribed furosemide. Which of the following foods
should the nurse encourage the client to include in their diet?
A) White bread
B) Oranges
C) White rice
D) Canned corn
E) Processed cheese
Correct Answer: B) Oranges
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that is "potassium-wasting," meaning it increases
the excretion of potassium through the kidneys. To prevent hypokalemia, clients should be
encouraged to consume foods high in potassium. Oranges, bananas, tomatoes, avocados,
and dark leafy greens are excellent sources. The other options do not provide significant
potassium to offset the effects of the medication.
Question 10
A menopausal client reports difficulty sleeping. Which of the following measures should the
nurse recommend to promote better sleep hygiene?
A) Drinking a glass of wine immediately before bed
B) Smoking a cigarette to relax before lying down
C) Limiting alcohol and nicotine intake at least 4 hours before bedtime
D) Engaging in high-intensity exercise 30 minutes before sleep
E) Taking frequent naps during the afternoon to make up for lost sleep
Correct Answer: C) Limiting alcohol and nicotine intake at least 4 hours before bedtime
Rationale: Both alcohol and nicotine are substances that disrupt the sleep cycle. Nicotine is
a stimulant, and while alcohol may help a person fall asleep, it prevents deep REM sleep
and often causes middle-of-the-night awakening. Sleep hygiene standards suggest avoiding
these substances for several hours before bed to improve sleep quality.
Question 11
A nurse is caring for several clients who are prescribed heat or cold therapies. Which of the
following clients should the nurse identify as being at the highest risk for injury from these
therapies? (Select All That Apply)
Question 1
A nurse is completing a nutritional assessment on a client and measures their Body Mass Index
(BMI). Which of the following readings should the nurse identify as correlating with an
overweight client?
A) 17.5
B) 21.0
C) 24.5
D) 27.0
E) 32.5
Correct Answer: D) 27.0
Rationale: Body Mass Index (BMI) is a standardized screening tool used to identify weight
categories. A BMI below 18.5 is considered underweight. A healthy or "normal" weight
range is 18.5 to 24.9. The overweight range is defined as 25.0 to 29.9. A BMI of 30.0 or
higher falls into the obese category. Therefore, a reading of 27.0 specifically indicates that
the client is in the overweight range.
Question 2
A nurse is verifying the placement of a nasogastric (NG) tube by assessing the pH of aspirated
gastric fluid. Which of the following pH values provides the most reliable indication of correct
placement in the stomach?
A) 2
B) 5
C) 6
D) 7
E) 8
Correct Answer: A) 2
Rationale: Gastric secretions are highly acidic due to the presence of hydrochloric acid. In a
client who has been fasting, the pH of gastric aspirate is typically between 0 and 4. A pH of
2 is a classic finding for gastric placement. Values of 6 or higher typically suggest the tube
may be in the lungs (respiratory secretions) or the small intestine, necessitating further
verification, such as an X-ray, which remains the gold standard for confirmation.
Question 3
A nurse is caring for a client with a closed head injury. When pressure is applied to the nail beds,
the client opens their eyes, moans, and exhibits adduction of the arms with flexion of the elbows
and wrists. What is the client's Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score?
A) 3
B) 5
C) 7
, 2
D) 9
E) 11
Correct Answer: C) 7
Rationale: The GCS is calculated based on three categories: Eye Opening, Verbal Response,
and Motor Response. In this scenario: 1) Eyes open to pain = 2 points. 2) Verbal response is
moaning (incomprehensible sounds) = 2 points. 3) Motor response is decorticate posturing
(adduction and flexion) = 3 points. Total score: 2 + 2 + 3 = 7. A score of 8 or less typically
indicates a severe head injury and a comatose state.
Question 4
A nurse is teaching a client about the use of a three-point gait with crutches. Which of the
following clients would require this specific gait?
A) A client with bilateral leg weakness
B) A client who is able to bear full weight on both legs
C) A client with a right femur fracture and a "no weight-bearing" status on the affected leg
D) A client recovering from a total knee replacement with "weight-bearing as tolerated"
E) A client with severe ataxia requiring a wide base of support
Correct Answer: C) A client with a right femur fracture and a "no weight-bearing" status on
the affected leg
Rationale: The three-point gait requires the client to bear all of their weight on one
unaffected leg. The client moves both crutches and the affected (non-weight-bearing) leg
forward together, then moves the unaffected leg forward. This gait is specifically designed
for individuals who cannot put any weight on one extremity but have the upper body
strength to support themselves on crutches.
Question 5
A nurse is providing teaching about the Mediterranean diet to a client with hypertension. Which
statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "I will use olive oil instead of butter for cooking."
B) "I will consume fish at least twice a week."
) "I will limit my intake of red meat to twice a week."
D) "I will increase my intake of fresh fruits and vegetables."
E) "I will snack on nuts and seeds instead of processed chips."
Correct Answer: C) "I will limit my intake of red meat to twice a week."
Rationale: In a true Mediterranean diet, red meat should be limited to only a few times per
month (approximately twice monthly), not twice weekly. The diet emphasizes high intake of
plant-based foods, healthy fats like olive oil, and moderate intake of poultry and fish. If the
client believes twice-weekly red meat consumption is the standard, they require
clarification to maximize the cardiovascular benefits of the diet.
, 3
Question 6
A nurse is providing dietary education to a client with cholecystitis who has been prescribed a
low-fat diet. Which of the following meal selections indicates an understanding of the education?
A) Fried chicken, french fries, and whole milk
B) Roast turkey, rice pilaf, and green beans
C) Beef tacos with extra cheese and sour cream
D) Pepperoni pizza with a side salad and ranch dressing
E) Avocado toast with a fried egg and bacon
Correct Answer: B) Roast turkey, rice pilaf, and green beans
Rationale: Cholecystitis is inflammation of the gallbladder, often triggered by the ingestion
of fatty foods which cause the gallbladder to contract. A low-fat diet is essential. Roast
turkey (skinless), rice pilaf, and steamed green beans are all low in fat. The other options
contain high-fat items like fried foods, whole milk, cheese, sour cream, pepperoni, and
bacon, all of which could trigger a painful gallbladder attack.
Question 7
A client with a cystocele is encouraged to perform exercises to strengthen pelvic floor muscles.
Which of the following exercises should the nurse instruct the client to perform?
A) Squats
B) Planks
C) Kegels
D) Crunches
E) Jumping jacks
Correct Answer: C) Kegels
Rationale: Kegel exercises involve the repeated contraction and relaxation of the
pubococcygeus muscles (pelvic floor). Strengthening these muscles helps support pelvic
organs like the bladder and uterus. This is a primary non-surgical intervention to manage a
cystocele (protrusion of the bladder into the vagina) and can help reduce symptoms of
stress urinary incontinence.
Question 8
A nurse is caring for an older adult client with delirium. Which of the following interventions is
most effective for reducing the client's risk for falls?
A) Applying bilateral wrist restraints
B) Administering a sedative at bedtime
C) Hourly rounding by the nursing staff
D) Keeping all four side rails in the upright position
E) Dimming all lights in the room to promote rest
, 4
Correct Answer: C) Hourly rounding by the nursing staff
Rationale: Delirium involves acute confusion and fluctuating levels of consciousness, which
significantly increases fall risk. Hourly rounding allows the nurse to proactively address the
client's needs (toileting, pain, positioning), which reduces the likelihood of the client
attempting to get out of bed unassisted. Restraints and sedatives can increase agitation and
falls, while four side rails are considered a form of restraint.
Question 9
A nurse is teaching a client who has been prescribed furosemide. Which of the following foods
should the nurse encourage the client to include in their diet?
A) White bread
B) Oranges
C) White rice
D) Canned corn
E) Processed cheese
Correct Answer: B) Oranges
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that is "potassium-wasting," meaning it increases
the excretion of potassium through the kidneys. To prevent hypokalemia, clients should be
encouraged to consume foods high in potassium. Oranges, bananas, tomatoes, avocados,
and dark leafy greens are excellent sources. The other options do not provide significant
potassium to offset the effects of the medication.
Question 10
A menopausal client reports difficulty sleeping. Which of the following measures should the
nurse recommend to promote better sleep hygiene?
A) Drinking a glass of wine immediately before bed
B) Smoking a cigarette to relax before lying down
C) Limiting alcohol and nicotine intake at least 4 hours before bedtime
D) Engaging in high-intensity exercise 30 minutes before sleep
E) Taking frequent naps during the afternoon to make up for lost sleep
Correct Answer: C) Limiting alcohol and nicotine intake at least 4 hours before bedtime
Rationale: Both alcohol and nicotine are substances that disrupt the sleep cycle. Nicotine is
a stimulant, and while alcohol may help a person fall asleep, it prevents deep REM sleep
and often causes middle-of-the-night awakening. Sleep hygiene standards suggest avoiding
these substances for several hours before bed to improve sleep quality.
Question 11
A nurse is caring for several clients who are prescribed heat or cold therapies. Which of the
following clients should the nurse identify as being at the highest risk for injury from these
therapies? (Select All That Apply)
