ESTUDYR
HONDROS NUR 176 TEST 2, NUR 176 EXAM 2 MOST
TESTED QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS GRADED A+ WITH
RATIONALES
Acute renal failure (ARF) can be caused by which of the following?
A. Hyperthyroidism only
B. Hemorrhage, trauma, infection, decreased cardiac output, and certain medications. ✅
C. Exclusively viral infections of the liver
D. Only chronic dehydration
Rationale: ARF has many causes — pre-renal (decreased perfusion), intrinsic
(nephrotoxins/infection), and post-renal.
Early signs/symptoms of ARF often mimic dehydration and include:
A. Hyperactivity and polyphagia
B. Anorexia, headache, edema, vomiting, nausea, lethargy. ✅
C. High fever and rash only
D. Increased urine output without other symptoms
Rationale: ARF often produces GI symptoms, lethargy, and fluid/electrolyte disturbances.
Which statement about malignant hypertension is true?
A. It is the mildest form of hypertension
B. It is the most severe form of hypertension with rapid organ damage. ✅
C. It is not associated with increased diastolic values
D. It only occurs in children
Rationale: Malignant HTN is severe and can rapidly compromise organs.
Which of these is a common sign of malignant hypertension?
A. Bradycardia only
B. Diastolic >120 mmHg, severe headache, blurred vision, dyspnea, history of HTN. ✅
C. Always low cholesterol only
D. Asymptomatic always
Rationale: Malignant HTN features very high pressures and acute end-organ signs (eye, brain,
heart).
Beta-blockers are commonly used to treat which conditions?
A. Only diabetes
B. Hypertension, angina, some arrhythmias, and post-MI care. ✅
C. Exclusively infections
,ESTUDYR
D. Only kidney stones
Rationale: Beta-blockers reduce heart rate and contractility, helping these cardiac conditions.
Beta-blockers decrease blood pressure and heart rate by blocking:
A. Dopamine receptors only
B. Epinephrine and norepinephrine (beta-adrenergic blockade). ✅
C. Insulin receptors
D. Calcium channels only
Rationale: Beta blockade reduces sympathetic stimulation to heart and vessels.
A common side effect of beta-blocker therapy is:
A. Increased appetite only
B. Shortness of breath (bronchospasm risk), dizziness, weakness, dry mouth, headache, GI
upset. ✅
C. Hair growth only
D. Immediate hyperglycemia only
Rationale: Nonselective beta-blockers can worsen bronchospasm and cause systemic side
effects.
Which of the following are common beta-blocker agents?
A. Lisinopril and enalapril
B. Metoprolol (Lopressor, Toprol-XL) and propranolol (Inderal). ✅
C. Furosemide and spironolactone
D. Insulin and glargine
Rationale: Metoprolol and propranolol are well-known beta-blockers.
Atenolol (Tenormin) is commonly used in:
A. Treating peptic ulcer disease
B. Management of myocardial infarction and angina (cardiac conditions). ✅
C. Treating fungal infections
D. Replacing thyroid hormone
Rationale: Atenolol is a cardioselective beta-blocker used post-MI and in HTN.
Digoxin (Lanoxin) is indicated primarily for:
A. Hypertension only
B. Heart failure and some atrial arrhythmias (rate control). ✅
C. Renal failure only
D. Hyperthyroidism only
Rationale: Digoxin improves contractility and controls ventricular response in AFib.
, ESTUDYR
Before administering digoxin, the nurse should:
A. Measure blood glucose only
B. Assess heart rate — hold and call MD if pulse <60 bpm. ✅
C. Check oxygen saturation only
D. Withhold for temperature >38°C only
Rationale: Bradycardia is a sign to hold digitalis due to toxicity risk.
Nitroglycerin is used for chest pain because it:
A. Raises heart rate only
B. Dilates blood vessels (venous and coronary), decreasing myocardial oxygen demand. ✅
C. Is a beta-blocker
D. Is an anticoagulant
Rationale: Nitrates relieve ischemic chest pain via vasodilation.
Proper sublingual nitroglycerin administration includes:
A. One tablet every 30 minutes forever
B. 1 tablet sublingual q5 min up to 3 tablets; call MD/ED if pain persists; may cause headache.
✅
C. Always give with grapefruit juice
D. Only given intramuscularly
Rationale: Classic dosing is q5 min up to three doses; persistent pain needs emergency eval.
PTCA stands for:
A. Partial Thrombus Catheter Assessment
B. Percutaneous Transluminal Coronary Angioplasty (balloon angioplasty). ✅
C. Pulmonary Thrombus Catheterization Artery
D. Peripheral Tissue Circulation Assessment
Rationale: PTCA is catheter-based balloon dilatation of coronary stenosis.
Patient teaching before PTCA should include:
A. General anesthesia will be used (completely asleep)
B. Explain balloon inflation, contrast use (warm flush sensation), sedation while awake,
informed consent including possible future CABG. ✅
C. No IV access will be used
D. The patient will have no sensation during contrast injection
Rationale: Patients are usually sedated but awake; contrast causes warmth and consent is
required.
Classic signs/symptoms of left-sided heart failure include:
A. Peripheral edema only
HONDROS NUR 176 TEST 2, NUR 176 EXAM 2 MOST
TESTED QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS GRADED A+ WITH
RATIONALES
Acute renal failure (ARF) can be caused by which of the following?
A. Hyperthyroidism only
B. Hemorrhage, trauma, infection, decreased cardiac output, and certain medications. ✅
C. Exclusively viral infections of the liver
D. Only chronic dehydration
Rationale: ARF has many causes — pre-renal (decreased perfusion), intrinsic
(nephrotoxins/infection), and post-renal.
Early signs/symptoms of ARF often mimic dehydration and include:
A. Hyperactivity and polyphagia
B. Anorexia, headache, edema, vomiting, nausea, lethargy. ✅
C. High fever and rash only
D. Increased urine output without other symptoms
Rationale: ARF often produces GI symptoms, lethargy, and fluid/electrolyte disturbances.
Which statement about malignant hypertension is true?
A. It is the mildest form of hypertension
B. It is the most severe form of hypertension with rapid organ damage. ✅
C. It is not associated with increased diastolic values
D. It only occurs in children
Rationale: Malignant HTN is severe and can rapidly compromise organs.
Which of these is a common sign of malignant hypertension?
A. Bradycardia only
B. Diastolic >120 mmHg, severe headache, blurred vision, dyspnea, history of HTN. ✅
C. Always low cholesterol only
D. Asymptomatic always
Rationale: Malignant HTN features very high pressures and acute end-organ signs (eye, brain,
heart).
Beta-blockers are commonly used to treat which conditions?
A. Only diabetes
B. Hypertension, angina, some arrhythmias, and post-MI care. ✅
C. Exclusively infections
,ESTUDYR
D. Only kidney stones
Rationale: Beta-blockers reduce heart rate and contractility, helping these cardiac conditions.
Beta-blockers decrease blood pressure and heart rate by blocking:
A. Dopamine receptors only
B. Epinephrine and norepinephrine (beta-adrenergic blockade). ✅
C. Insulin receptors
D. Calcium channels only
Rationale: Beta blockade reduces sympathetic stimulation to heart and vessels.
A common side effect of beta-blocker therapy is:
A. Increased appetite only
B. Shortness of breath (bronchospasm risk), dizziness, weakness, dry mouth, headache, GI
upset. ✅
C. Hair growth only
D. Immediate hyperglycemia only
Rationale: Nonselective beta-blockers can worsen bronchospasm and cause systemic side
effects.
Which of the following are common beta-blocker agents?
A. Lisinopril and enalapril
B. Metoprolol (Lopressor, Toprol-XL) and propranolol (Inderal). ✅
C. Furosemide and spironolactone
D. Insulin and glargine
Rationale: Metoprolol and propranolol are well-known beta-blockers.
Atenolol (Tenormin) is commonly used in:
A. Treating peptic ulcer disease
B. Management of myocardial infarction and angina (cardiac conditions). ✅
C. Treating fungal infections
D. Replacing thyroid hormone
Rationale: Atenolol is a cardioselective beta-blocker used post-MI and in HTN.
Digoxin (Lanoxin) is indicated primarily for:
A. Hypertension only
B. Heart failure and some atrial arrhythmias (rate control). ✅
C. Renal failure only
D. Hyperthyroidism only
Rationale: Digoxin improves contractility and controls ventricular response in AFib.
, ESTUDYR
Before administering digoxin, the nurse should:
A. Measure blood glucose only
B. Assess heart rate — hold and call MD if pulse <60 bpm. ✅
C. Check oxygen saturation only
D. Withhold for temperature >38°C only
Rationale: Bradycardia is a sign to hold digitalis due to toxicity risk.
Nitroglycerin is used for chest pain because it:
A. Raises heart rate only
B. Dilates blood vessels (venous and coronary), decreasing myocardial oxygen demand. ✅
C. Is a beta-blocker
D. Is an anticoagulant
Rationale: Nitrates relieve ischemic chest pain via vasodilation.
Proper sublingual nitroglycerin administration includes:
A. One tablet every 30 minutes forever
B. 1 tablet sublingual q5 min up to 3 tablets; call MD/ED if pain persists; may cause headache.
✅
C. Always give with grapefruit juice
D. Only given intramuscularly
Rationale: Classic dosing is q5 min up to three doses; persistent pain needs emergency eval.
PTCA stands for:
A. Partial Thrombus Catheter Assessment
B. Percutaneous Transluminal Coronary Angioplasty (balloon angioplasty). ✅
C. Pulmonary Thrombus Catheterization Artery
D. Peripheral Tissue Circulation Assessment
Rationale: PTCA is catheter-based balloon dilatation of coronary stenosis.
Patient teaching before PTCA should include:
A. General anesthesia will be used (completely asleep)
B. Explain balloon inflation, contrast use (warm flush sensation), sedation while awake,
informed consent including possible future CABG. ✅
C. No IV access will be used
D. The patient will have no sensation during contrast injection
Rationale: Patients are usually sedated but awake; contrast causes warmth and consent is
required.
Classic signs/symptoms of left-sided heart failure include:
A. Peripheral edema only
