NASM CPT Exam 1 With Actual
Questions & Verified Answers ,Plus
Explained Rationales/Expert Verified
For Guaranteed Pass 2026/Latest
Update/Instant Download Pdf
1. Which energy system is primarily used for short-duration, high-
intensity activities lasting less than 10 seconds?
A. Oxidative
B. Glycolytic
C. ATP-PC
D. Aerobic
Rationale: The ATP-PC system provides immediate energy for
explosive, short-duration movements.
2. Which muscle is considered the primary agonist during a barbell
squat?
A. Hamstrings
B. Quadriceps
C. Gastrocnemius
D. Erector spinae
Rationale: The quadriceps are the prime movers responsible for
knee extension during squats.
,3. What is the recommended rest period for maximal strength
training?
A. 0–30 seconds
B. 30–60 seconds
C. 1–2 minutes
D. 3–5 minutes
Rationale: Maximal strength requires long rest intervals to allow
full phosphagen recovery.
4. Which plane of motion includes movements such as abduction
and adduction?
A. Transverse
B. Sagittal
C. Frontal
D. Diagonal
Rationale: The frontal plane divides the body into front/back halves
and involves side-to-side movements.
5. The Golgi tendon organ (GTO) responds to:
A. Muscle length
B. Joint position
C. Pain
D. Muscle tension
Rationale: GTOs detect tension changes and reduce muscle
activation to prevent injury.
,6. Which macronutrient is the body’s preferred source of energy
during moderate to high-intensity exercise?
A. Fat
B. Protein
C. Carbohydrates
D. Vitamins
Rationale: Carbohydrates provide rapid ATP production for
moderate to high-intensity activity.
7. What is the first step in the NASM Optimum Performance
Training (OPT) model?
A. Strength Endurance
B. Hypertrophy
C. Stabilization Endurance
D. Power
Rationale: The foundational level trains neuromuscular efficiency
and joint stability.
8. Which muscle is overactive when a client exhibits an excessive
forward lean in an overhead squat?
A. Soleus
B. Gluteus maximus
C. Anterior tibialis
D. Erector spinae
Rationale: Tight calf muscles, such as the soleus, contribute to
forward trunk lean.
, 9. Which assessment best evaluates cardiorespiratory fitness?
A. Push-up test
B. Davies test
C. YMCA step test
D. Shark skill test
Rationale: The YMCA 3-minute step test is a validated aerobic
fitness assessment.
10. Which term describes the ability of muscles to work together to
produce movement?
A. Force couple
B. Agonist dominance
C. Flexibility
D. Synergistic function
Rationale: Synergists assist the prime mover by coordinating
movement patterns.
11. What does the SAID principle stand for?
A. Specific Adaptation to Imposed Demands
B. Strength Adaptation in Daily Demands
C. Specific Adaptation to Imposed Demands
D. Systematic Adaptation in Integrated Design
Rationale: The SAID principle means training must match the goal
for specific outcome.
12. Which muscle acts as the prime mover for shoulder flexion?
Questions & Verified Answers ,Plus
Explained Rationales/Expert Verified
For Guaranteed Pass 2026/Latest
Update/Instant Download Pdf
1. Which energy system is primarily used for short-duration, high-
intensity activities lasting less than 10 seconds?
A. Oxidative
B. Glycolytic
C. ATP-PC
D. Aerobic
Rationale: The ATP-PC system provides immediate energy for
explosive, short-duration movements.
2. Which muscle is considered the primary agonist during a barbell
squat?
A. Hamstrings
B. Quadriceps
C. Gastrocnemius
D. Erector spinae
Rationale: The quadriceps are the prime movers responsible for
knee extension during squats.
,3. What is the recommended rest period for maximal strength
training?
A. 0–30 seconds
B. 30–60 seconds
C. 1–2 minutes
D. 3–5 minutes
Rationale: Maximal strength requires long rest intervals to allow
full phosphagen recovery.
4. Which plane of motion includes movements such as abduction
and adduction?
A. Transverse
B. Sagittal
C. Frontal
D. Diagonal
Rationale: The frontal plane divides the body into front/back halves
and involves side-to-side movements.
5. The Golgi tendon organ (GTO) responds to:
A. Muscle length
B. Joint position
C. Pain
D. Muscle tension
Rationale: GTOs detect tension changes and reduce muscle
activation to prevent injury.
,6. Which macronutrient is the body’s preferred source of energy
during moderate to high-intensity exercise?
A. Fat
B. Protein
C. Carbohydrates
D. Vitamins
Rationale: Carbohydrates provide rapid ATP production for
moderate to high-intensity activity.
7. What is the first step in the NASM Optimum Performance
Training (OPT) model?
A. Strength Endurance
B. Hypertrophy
C. Stabilization Endurance
D. Power
Rationale: The foundational level trains neuromuscular efficiency
and joint stability.
8. Which muscle is overactive when a client exhibits an excessive
forward lean in an overhead squat?
A. Soleus
B. Gluteus maximus
C. Anterior tibialis
D. Erector spinae
Rationale: Tight calf muscles, such as the soleus, contribute to
forward trunk lean.
, 9. Which assessment best evaluates cardiorespiratory fitness?
A. Push-up test
B. Davies test
C. YMCA step test
D. Shark skill test
Rationale: The YMCA 3-minute step test is a validated aerobic
fitness assessment.
10. Which term describes the ability of muscles to work together to
produce movement?
A. Force couple
B. Agonist dominance
C. Flexibility
D. Synergistic function
Rationale: Synergists assist the prime mover by coordinating
movement patterns.
11. What does the SAID principle stand for?
A. Specific Adaptation to Imposed Demands
B. Strength Adaptation in Daily Demands
C. Specific Adaptation to Imposed Demands
D. Systematic Adaptation in Integrated Design
Rationale: The SAID principle means training must match the goal
for specific outcome.
12. Which muscle acts as the prime mover for shoulder flexion?
