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BIO322 Applied Pathophysiology Exam Bundle (2025/2026) - All Exams 1-4 Practice Tests with Verified Solutions

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Conquer your entire Applied Pathophysiology course with this complete BIO322 exam bundle. Includes all practice tests for Exams 1, 2, 3 & 4 with verified questions and answers. Updated for 2025/2026 GCU curriculum.

Institution
BIO322
Course
BIO322

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BIO322 Applied Pathophysiology Exam Bundle
(2025/2026) - All Exams 1-4 Practice Tests
with Verified Solutions

======================================================
============

EXAM 1 – Foundations of Pathophysiology (50 questions)


SECTION A – Cellular & Molecular Basis (20 Q)

A1. Cellular Injury & Adaptation (7 Q)

Q1.

A 68-year-old male with a 50-pack-year history presents with persistent productive
cough and weight loss. Chest CT reveals a 2.5 cm spiculated mass. Biopsy shows
disorganized sheets of pleomorphic cells with high nuclear-to-cytoplasmic ratios and
numerous mitoses. Which cellular alteration is the most reliable indicator of
malignancy?

A. Cellular pleomorphism

B. High mitotic rate

C. Anaplasia

D. Metastatic spread

,Answer: C – Anaplasia (loss of differentiation) is the hallmark of malignancy.

Rationale: While pleomorphism and mitoses support malignancy, anaplasia reflects the
fundamental loss of structural and functional differentiation. Metastasis is definitive but
may not be present early. (Ref: Robbins 2025)

Q2.

A patient with septic shock develops acute kidney injury. Urinalysis shows muddy-brown
granular casts. Which type of cellular injury is most likely?

A. Apoptosis

B. Necrosis

C. Autophagy

D. Metaplasia

Answer: B – Necrosis (coagulative in renal tubules) produces cellular debris cast in
urine.

Rationale: Septic hypotension → ATP depletion → membrane failure → necrosis.
Apoptosis is programmed and energy-dependent; casts are not seen.

Q3.

A 45-year-old female with BRCA1 mutation undergoes prophylactic mastectomy.
Microscopy reveals atypical ductal hyperplasia. This represents which adaptive cellular
change?

A. Hypertrophy

B. Hyperplasia

,C. Metaplasia

D. Dysplasia

Answer: D – Dysplasia (disordered growth) is pre-neoplastic.

Rationale: BRCA1 impairs DNA repair → genomic instability → dysplasia precedes
carcinoma in situ.

Q4.

A bodybuilder develops cardiac hypertrophy. Which signaling pathway is primarily
responsible?

A. mTOR-mediated protein synthesis

B. Ubiquitin-proteasome degradation

C. Caspase activation

D. Autophagy induction

Answer: A – Mechanical stretch activates mTOR → sarcomere addition.

Rationale: Physiologic hypertrophy requires increased contractile proteins; mTOR
integrates growth signals.

Q5.

A smoker’s bronchial epithelium changes from columnar to squamous. This is:

A. Hypertrophy

B. Hyperplasia

, C. Metaplasia

D. Anaplasia

Answer: C – Metaplasia (reversible change in differentiation).

Rationale: Chronic irritation → reserve cell differentiation → squamous metaplasia;
protective but predisposes to dysplasia.

Q6.

A 70-year-old man undergoes orchiectomy for prostate cancer. Histology shows
abundant lipofuscin in Leydig cells. This pigment is a marker of:

A. Hemosiderosis

B. Lipid peroxidation

C. Melanin deposition

D. Copper overload

Answer: B – Lipofuscin = indigestible oxidized lipid residue from autophagy.

Rationale: “Wear-and-tear” pigment common in elderly; reflects free-radical injury.

Q7.

SATA. Which cellular events characterize apoptosis? (Select all that apply.)

A. Chromatin condensation

B. Cell swelling

C. Caspase activation

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