1|Page
FHEA (Faculty for the Health Education of Advanced
Practice) Exam Prep|| QUESTIONS AND CORRECT
ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES |ALREADY GRADED
A+||LATEST VERSION!!!
A 22-year-old man presents with new-onset pain and
swelling in the feet and ankles as well as conjunctivitis,
oral lesions, and dysuria. The most important test to obtain
is:
Rheumatoid factor.
Sedimentation rate.
Urethral cultures.
Antinuclear antibody. - ANSWER-Urethral cultures.
Laboratory assessment of a patient with subclinical
hypothyroidism is likely to reveal:
TSH=0.1 mIU/L (0.4-4.0 mIU/L); total T4=7.2 mcg/dL (4.5-
12.0 mcg/dL).
TSH=2.6 mIU/L (0.4-4.0 mIU/L); total T3=310 ng/dL (95-
190 ng/dL).
TSH=7.7 mIU/L (0.4-4.0 mIU/L); free T4=22 pmol/L (10-27
pmol/L).
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TSH=0.2 mIU/L (0.4-4.0 mIU/L); free T3=1.7 ng/dL (0.2-
0.5 ng/dL). - ANSWER-TSH=7.7 mIU/L (0.4-4.0 mIU/L);
free T4=22 pmol/L (10-27 pmol/L).
Which of the following is most consistent with the
diagnosis of herpes zoster?
Papules in a dermatomal distribution
Low-grade fever and malaise prior to eruption
Presence of pustules and honey-crusted lesions
A 1-2-day prodrome of pain prior to lesions erupting -
ANSWER-A 1-2-day prodrome of pain prior to lesions
erupting
When prescribing an SSRI, the nurse practitioner
considers that:
There will be full therapeutic effect within 2-3 days of the
first dose.
These drugs are potentially photosensitizing.
These medications cannot be used in patients with
cardiovascular disease.
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Mild GI upset is often reported in first weeks of use. -
ANSWER-Mild GI upset is often reported in first weeks of
use.
*******Which of the following is most consistent with the
diagnosis of depression?
Recurrent diarrhea and cramping
Difficulty initiating sleep
Diminished cognitive ability
Consistent early morning wakening - ANSWER-Consistent
early morning wakening
*******Which of the following is an absolute
contraindication to post-menopausal hormone therapy?
Unexplained vaginal bleeding
Seizure disorder
Endometriosis
Cigarette smoking - ANSWER-Unexplained vaginal
bleeding
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A 36-year-old man presents with a 12-h history of
anorexia, nausea, and right lower quadrant abdominal
pain.
A white blood cell count with differential demonstrates:
-TWBC=16,500 cells/mm3
-Neutrophils=66%
-Bands=8%
-Lymphocytes=22%
Expected physical examination findings include:
Murphy's sign.
A palpable left lower quadrant mass.
Periumbilical ecchymosis.
A positive obturator sign. - ANSWER-A positive obturator
sign.
A 36-year-old man with asthma has been treating his
asthma with albuterol once or twice a week for the last few
years. He reports that for the last month or so he has had
to use it much more often—"not every day, but almost."
The nurse practitioner should consider all of the following
except:
FHEA (Faculty for the Health Education of Advanced
Practice) Exam Prep|| QUESTIONS AND CORRECT
ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES |ALREADY GRADED
A+||LATEST VERSION!!!
A 22-year-old man presents with new-onset pain and
swelling in the feet and ankles as well as conjunctivitis,
oral lesions, and dysuria. The most important test to obtain
is:
Rheumatoid factor.
Sedimentation rate.
Urethral cultures.
Antinuclear antibody. - ANSWER-Urethral cultures.
Laboratory assessment of a patient with subclinical
hypothyroidism is likely to reveal:
TSH=0.1 mIU/L (0.4-4.0 mIU/L); total T4=7.2 mcg/dL (4.5-
12.0 mcg/dL).
TSH=2.6 mIU/L (0.4-4.0 mIU/L); total T3=310 ng/dL (95-
190 ng/dL).
TSH=7.7 mIU/L (0.4-4.0 mIU/L); free T4=22 pmol/L (10-27
pmol/L).
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TSH=0.2 mIU/L (0.4-4.0 mIU/L); free T3=1.7 ng/dL (0.2-
0.5 ng/dL). - ANSWER-TSH=7.7 mIU/L (0.4-4.0 mIU/L);
free T4=22 pmol/L (10-27 pmol/L).
Which of the following is most consistent with the
diagnosis of herpes zoster?
Papules in a dermatomal distribution
Low-grade fever and malaise prior to eruption
Presence of pustules and honey-crusted lesions
A 1-2-day prodrome of pain prior to lesions erupting -
ANSWER-A 1-2-day prodrome of pain prior to lesions
erupting
When prescribing an SSRI, the nurse practitioner
considers that:
There will be full therapeutic effect within 2-3 days of the
first dose.
These drugs are potentially photosensitizing.
These medications cannot be used in patients with
cardiovascular disease.
,3|Page
Mild GI upset is often reported in first weeks of use. -
ANSWER-Mild GI upset is often reported in first weeks of
use.
*******Which of the following is most consistent with the
diagnosis of depression?
Recurrent diarrhea and cramping
Difficulty initiating sleep
Diminished cognitive ability
Consistent early morning wakening - ANSWER-Consistent
early morning wakening
*******Which of the following is an absolute
contraindication to post-menopausal hormone therapy?
Unexplained vaginal bleeding
Seizure disorder
Endometriosis
Cigarette smoking - ANSWER-Unexplained vaginal
bleeding
, 4|Page
A 36-year-old man presents with a 12-h history of
anorexia, nausea, and right lower quadrant abdominal
pain.
A white blood cell count with differential demonstrates:
-TWBC=16,500 cells/mm3
-Neutrophils=66%
-Bands=8%
-Lymphocytes=22%
Expected physical examination findings include:
Murphy's sign.
A palpable left lower quadrant mass.
Periumbilical ecchymosis.
A positive obturator sign. - ANSWER-A positive obturator
sign.
A 36-year-old man with asthma has been treating his
asthma with albuterol once or twice a week for the last few
years. He reports that for the last month or so he has had
to use it much more often—"not every day, but almost."
The nurse practitioner should consider all of the following
except:
