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A 22-year-old African American female presents to your family practice
office complaining of progressive
skin discoloration. She is adopted and has no known family history of skin
problems. The patient notes
nonpalpable patches of skin loss and blanching of her forehead and both
hands and feet. It has
developed over a period of 6 months and appears to have stopped. It is not
pruritic, and there is no
erythema or sign of infectious etiology. What is the most likely diagnosis?
• Vitiligo
• Alopecia
,Addison Disease
Tinea Versicolor - 🧠 ANSWER ✔✔Vitiligo- This is the physical description of
vitiligo.
Which presentation is most concerning for skin cancer?
• Dark pigmentation of 1 solitary nail that has developed quickly and without
trauma.
• A 1-mm blue, round, nonpalpable discoloration of the skin that has been
present since birth without change.
A 5-mm black mole with round, regular boarders.
• A 2-mm brown mole that is raised 1 mm but round and regular. - 🧠
ANSWER ✔✔Dark pigmentation of 1 solitary nail that has developed
quickly and without trauma. This is
concerning for acral melanoma
A 4-year-old male presents to your pediatric clinic with his mother
complaining of an itchy rash, mostly
between his fingers. This has been going on for multiple days and has
been getting worse. The patient
,recently started at a new day care. On physical exam, the patient is afebrile
and has multiple small (1-2
mm) red papules in sets of 3 located in the web spaces between his
fingers. He also has signs of
excoriation. What is the treatment for this problem?
• Permethrin lotion for the patient and also his family members.
Cold compresses and hydrocortisone cream 1% twice a day.
Over-the-counter Benadryl cream.
Ketoconazole cream. - 🧠 ANSWER ✔✔Permethrin lotion for the patient and
also his family members. - This is the treatment for
scabies
Which of the following patients would not be at risk of Candida infection?
• A patient with a history of coronary artery disease.
A diabetic patient.
• A patient requiring home antibiotics while recovering from an operation for
an infected hernia.
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3
, A patient using a steroid regimen for asthma control - 🧠 ANSWER ✔✔A
patient with a history of coronary artery disease. Coronary artery disease
doesn't increase
the risk of Candida infection.
A diabetic patient.
Diabetes increases the risk of Candida infection.
A 3-year-old patient presents to your pediatric office with her mother. She
has recently been started in day care. Her mother noted slight perioral
erythema on the right side of the patient's mouth prior to bed last night. The
patient awoke today with 3 small, superficial, honey-colored vesicles where
the erythema was last night. The patient has no surrounding erythema. She
had no difficulty eating this
morning and is active and energetic and doesn't appear lethargic or
fatigued. She is also afebrile. How
would you treat this child?
• Local debridement and mupirocin for 5 days.
Oral Keflex for 7 days.
Topical compress with Burow solution and follow-up in 2 to 3 days.