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NR507 & NR509 & NRNP 6675 EXAM BUNDLE 2026–2027 | 200+ VERIFIED QUESTIONS & ANSWERS | A+

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Prepare to excel with our comprehensive NR507, NR509, and NRNP 6675 exam bundle (2025–2027), featuring over 200 verified, up-to-date questions and detailed answers. Each question includes realistic patient scenarios, differential diagnoses, labs, and rationales to enhance your critical thinking and advanced pathophysiology knowledge. Perfect for PMHNP, FNP, and advanced nursing students, this all-in-one study guide ensures you’re ready for midterms and finals with confidence. Includes multi-line, clinical vignette style questions, answer options (A–D), correct answers, and in-depth explanations to guarantee mastery of core concepts. Achieve an A+ grade with this premium, fully updated resource.

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NR507 & NR509 & NRNP 6675 EXAM BUNDLE 2026–2027 | 200+
VERIFIED QUESTIONS & ANSWERS | A+
Q1.
A 54-year-old woman presents with a new headache, sudden in onset, described as
the “worst of her life.” On exam, she has photophobia and neck stiffness. What is
the most likely cause?
A. Migraine with aura
B. Subarachnoid hemorrhage
C. Tension headache
D. Cluster headache
Answer: B. Subarachnoid hemorrhage
Rationale: A thunderclap headache with meningeal signs strongly suggests
subarachnoid bleed.


Q2.
A 62-year-old man presents with exertional chest pain that improves with rest.
Physical exam is normal. Which test is most appropriate first?
A. Echocardiogram
B. Exercise stress test
C. Cardiac catheterization
D. Holter monitoring
Answer: B. Exercise stress test
Rationale: Stable angina is best evaluated initially with non-invasive stress testing.


Q3.
A 70-year-old man with hypertension presents with acute left-sided weakness and
slurred speech. What is your immediate diagnostic priority?
A. ECG

,2 | Page


B. Carotid ultrasound
C. Non-contrast CT head
D. MRI brain
Answer: C. Non-contrast CT head
Rationale: First step in stroke evaluation is to rule out hemorrhage before
thrombolysis.


Q4.
A 23-year-old woman presents with palpitations, sweating, and tremors. Exam
shows tachycardia and exophthalmos. Which lab confirms the diagnosis?
A. Cortisol level
B. TSH and free T4
C. ACTH stimulation
D. Serum insulin
Answer: B. TSH and free T4
Rationale: Hyperthyroidism is confirmed with suppressed TSH and elevated free
T4.


Q5.
A 5-year-old child presents with fever, barking cough, and inspiratory stridor. What
is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Asthma
B. Croup (laryngotracheobronchitis)
C. Epiglottitis
D. Bronchiolitis
Answer: B. Croup
Rationale: Barking cough and stridor are classic for viral croup.


Q6.
A 30-year-old woman presents with polyuria, polydipsia, and weight loss. Her
fasting glucose is 290 mg/dL. What is the diagnosis?

,3 | Page


A. Type 2 diabetes
B. Type 1 diabetes mellitus
C. SIADH
D. Hyperthyroidism
Answer: B. Type 1 diabetes
Rationale: Young age, weight loss, and marked hyperglycemia suggest Type 1
diabetes.


Q7.
A 45-year-old man presents with hematuria and flank pain. He has a history of
smoking. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Kidney stone
B. Renal cell carcinoma
C. Polycystic kidney disease
D. Cystitis
Answer: B. Renal cell carcinoma
Rationale: Classic triad is hematuria, flank pain, and palpable mass, especially in
smokers.


Q8.
A 56-year-old woman has symmetrical morning joint stiffness >1 hour, affecting
hands and wrists. Which lab test best supports the diagnosis?
A. ANA
B. Rheumatoid factor (RF)
C. Anti-dsDNA
D. ESR
Answer: B. Rheumatoid factor
Rationale: RF and anti-CCP confirm rheumatoid arthritis.


Q9.

, 4 | Page


A 66-year-old man presents with progressive dyspnea, orthopnea, and leg swelling.
Which physical finding best supports heart failure?
A. Wheezing
B. Elevated jugular venous pressure
C. Clear lung fields
D. Normal S1, S2
Answer: B. Elevated jugular venous pressure
Rationale: JVD reflects systemic venous congestion seen in heart failure.


Q10.
A 40-year-old woman presents with fatigue, pallor, and spoon-shaped nails. Labs
show microcytic anemia. What is the most likely cause?
A. Vitamin B12 deficiency
B. Iron deficiency anemia
C. Folate deficiency
D. Sickle cell disease
Answer: B. Iron deficiency anemia
Rationale: Koilonychia (spoon nails) is characteristic of iron deficiency anemia.


Q11.
A 3-year-old presents with wheezing and cough after playing with peanuts. What is
the first priority?
A. Start steroids
B. Order CXR
C. Assess airway and remove obstruction
D. Give antibiotics
Answer: C. Assess airway and remove obstruction
Rationale: In suspected foreign body aspiration, airway management is priority.


Q12.
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