NUR2755 / NUR 2755 FINAL EXAM (LATEST 2026 ):
MULTIDIMENSIONAL CARE IV / MDC 4 -150 CORRECT QUESTIONS
AND ANSWERS ALREADY GRADED A+
1
A nurse is caring for a client with heart failure who is prescribed furosemide.
Which lab value should the nurse monitor most closely due to the risk of adverse
effects?
A) Potassium
B) Calcium
C) Sodium
D) Magnesium
Correct Answer: A) Potassium
Explanation: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that increases potassium excretion,
leading to hypokalemia. Low potassium may cause arrhythmias and muscle
weakness, so potassium levels must be monitored closely.
2
A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) has an oxygen
saturation of 89% on room air. Which intervention is most appropriate?
A) Increase oxygen flow to maintain saturation above 98%
B) Administer oxygen at 2 liters per nasal cannula
C) Place client in Trendelenburg position
D) Withhold oxygen to avoid hypoventilation
Correct Answer: B) Administer oxygen at 2 liters per nasal cannula
Explanation: COPD patients rely on hypoxic drive; oxygen is given at low flow (1–
,2 L/min) to prevent suppressing their respiratory drive while maintaining safe
oxygenation.
3
A nurse is reviewing teaching with a client prescribed warfarin. Which dietary
instruction is most important?
A) Avoid foods high in protein
B) Limit foods high in vitamin C
C) Maintain consistent intake of vitamin K foods
D) Avoid dairy products
Correct Answer: C) Maintain consistent intake of vitamin K foods
Explanation: Vitamin K influences clotting and interferes with warfarin
effectiveness. Clients should not eliminate vitamin K but must keep intake
consistent to stabilize INR values.
4
A nurse is caring for a client with type 2 diabetes who reports frequent urination
and extreme thirst. Which lab finding best supports hyperglycemia?
A) Sodium 138 mEq/L
B) Hemoglobin 12 g/dL
C) Glucose 310 mg/dL
D) Potassium 4.1 mEq/L
Correct Answer: C) Glucose 310 mg/dL
Explanation: A glucose level above 200 mg/dL with symptoms of polyuria and
polydipsia confirms hyperglycemia and indicates poor glycemic control in
diabetes.
5
Which nursing intervention is a priority for a client experiencing a seizure?
,A) Place tongue depressor in mouth
B) Restrain the client’s movements
C) Turn the client onto their side
D) Insert oral airway immediately
Correct Answer: C) Turn the client onto their side
Explanation: Side-lying position maintains airway patency, reduces aspiration
risk, and protects the tongue. Restraining or inserting objects is contraindicated.
6
Which medication is commonly used to treat acute angina episodes?
A) Furosemide
B) Nitroglycerin
C) Atenolol
D) Digoxin
Correct Answer: B) Nitroglycerin
Explanation: Nitroglycerin is a vasodilator that reduces myocardial oxygen
demand and relieves chest pain during angina attacks. It is administered
sublingually for rapid action.
7
Which finding indicates fluid volume overload in a client with heart failure?
A) Flat neck veins
B) Hypotension
C) Crackles in lungs
D) Dry mucous membranes
Correct Answer: C) Crackles in lungs
Explanation: Crackles (rales) result from pulmonary congestion and fluid
accumulation, a common sign of left-sided heart failure and fluid overload.
, 8
A client receiving chemotherapy reports oral ulcers and pain. What is the priority
nursing intervention?
A) Provide hard candy for salivation
B) Encourage lemon juice rinses
C) Offer soft, bland foods
D) Increase acidic foods
Correct Answer: C) Offer soft, bland foods
Explanation: Oral mucositis is a side effect of chemotherapy. Soft, non-irritating
foods minimize discomfort and prevent further tissue injury.
9
Which client is at greatest risk for developing pressure injuries?
A) A 45-year-old postoperative client ambulating three times daily
B) A 70-year-old client with a stroke who is immobile and incontinent
C) A 25-year-old client with a fractured wrist in a cast
D) A 60-year-old client receiving physical therapy twice daily
Correct Answer: B) A 70-year-old client with a stroke who is immobile and
incontinent
Explanation: Risk factors include immobility, advanced age, incontinence, and
decreased sensation, all present in this client.
10
A client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) suddenly develops shortness of
breath, chest pain, and tachycardia. What complication should the nurse suspect?
A) Pulmonary embolism
B) Air embolism
C) Pneumonia
D) Myocardial infarction
Correct Answer: B) Air embolism
Explanation: Improper central line handling during TPN administration can
MULTIDIMENSIONAL CARE IV / MDC 4 -150 CORRECT QUESTIONS
AND ANSWERS ALREADY GRADED A+
1
A nurse is caring for a client with heart failure who is prescribed furosemide.
Which lab value should the nurse monitor most closely due to the risk of adverse
effects?
A) Potassium
B) Calcium
C) Sodium
D) Magnesium
Correct Answer: A) Potassium
Explanation: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that increases potassium excretion,
leading to hypokalemia. Low potassium may cause arrhythmias and muscle
weakness, so potassium levels must be monitored closely.
2
A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) has an oxygen
saturation of 89% on room air. Which intervention is most appropriate?
A) Increase oxygen flow to maintain saturation above 98%
B) Administer oxygen at 2 liters per nasal cannula
C) Place client in Trendelenburg position
D) Withhold oxygen to avoid hypoventilation
Correct Answer: B) Administer oxygen at 2 liters per nasal cannula
Explanation: COPD patients rely on hypoxic drive; oxygen is given at low flow (1–
,2 L/min) to prevent suppressing their respiratory drive while maintaining safe
oxygenation.
3
A nurse is reviewing teaching with a client prescribed warfarin. Which dietary
instruction is most important?
A) Avoid foods high in protein
B) Limit foods high in vitamin C
C) Maintain consistent intake of vitamin K foods
D) Avoid dairy products
Correct Answer: C) Maintain consistent intake of vitamin K foods
Explanation: Vitamin K influences clotting and interferes with warfarin
effectiveness. Clients should not eliminate vitamin K but must keep intake
consistent to stabilize INR values.
4
A nurse is caring for a client with type 2 diabetes who reports frequent urination
and extreme thirst. Which lab finding best supports hyperglycemia?
A) Sodium 138 mEq/L
B) Hemoglobin 12 g/dL
C) Glucose 310 mg/dL
D) Potassium 4.1 mEq/L
Correct Answer: C) Glucose 310 mg/dL
Explanation: A glucose level above 200 mg/dL with symptoms of polyuria and
polydipsia confirms hyperglycemia and indicates poor glycemic control in
diabetes.
5
Which nursing intervention is a priority for a client experiencing a seizure?
,A) Place tongue depressor in mouth
B) Restrain the client’s movements
C) Turn the client onto their side
D) Insert oral airway immediately
Correct Answer: C) Turn the client onto their side
Explanation: Side-lying position maintains airway patency, reduces aspiration
risk, and protects the tongue. Restraining or inserting objects is contraindicated.
6
Which medication is commonly used to treat acute angina episodes?
A) Furosemide
B) Nitroglycerin
C) Atenolol
D) Digoxin
Correct Answer: B) Nitroglycerin
Explanation: Nitroglycerin is a vasodilator that reduces myocardial oxygen
demand and relieves chest pain during angina attacks. It is administered
sublingually for rapid action.
7
Which finding indicates fluid volume overload in a client with heart failure?
A) Flat neck veins
B) Hypotension
C) Crackles in lungs
D) Dry mucous membranes
Correct Answer: C) Crackles in lungs
Explanation: Crackles (rales) result from pulmonary congestion and fluid
accumulation, a common sign of left-sided heart failure and fluid overload.
, 8
A client receiving chemotherapy reports oral ulcers and pain. What is the priority
nursing intervention?
A) Provide hard candy for salivation
B) Encourage lemon juice rinses
C) Offer soft, bland foods
D) Increase acidic foods
Correct Answer: C) Offer soft, bland foods
Explanation: Oral mucositis is a side effect of chemotherapy. Soft, non-irritating
foods minimize discomfort and prevent further tissue injury.
9
Which client is at greatest risk for developing pressure injuries?
A) A 45-year-old postoperative client ambulating three times daily
B) A 70-year-old client with a stroke who is immobile and incontinent
C) A 25-year-old client with a fractured wrist in a cast
D) A 60-year-old client receiving physical therapy twice daily
Correct Answer: B) A 70-year-old client with a stroke who is immobile and
incontinent
Explanation: Risk factors include immobility, advanced age, incontinence, and
decreased sensation, all present in this client.
10
A client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) suddenly develops shortness of
breath, chest pain, and tachycardia. What complication should the nurse suspect?
A) Pulmonary embolism
B) Air embolism
C) Pneumonia
D) Myocardial infarction
Correct Answer: B) Air embolism
Explanation: Improper central line handling during TPN administration can
