ESTUDYR
RN PHARMACOLOGY LATEST 2025 ACTUAL EXAM 242
QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES
(VERIFIED ANSWERS) |ALREADY GRADED A+
1. A provider prescribes phenobarbital for a client who has a seizure disorder. The
medication has a long half-life (~4 days). How many times per day should the nurse
expect to administer this medication?
a. One
b. Two
c. Three
d. Four
Answer: a. One
Rationale: Drugs with very long half-lives maintain therapeutic plasma levels long
between doses, so once-daily dosing is common.
2. A staff educator reviews factors that require lower medication dosages. Which of the
following should be included? (Select all that apply.)
a. Increased renal secretion
b. Increased medication-metabolizing enzymes
c. Liver failure
d. Peripheral vascular disease
e. Concurrent drugs metabolized by the same pathway (drug–drug competition)
Answer: c, e
Rationale: Liver failure reduces metabolism (↑ drug level → ↓ dose). Co-metabolism
leads to competition and ↑ concentrations, necessitating dose reduction.
3. When administering eye drops, which actions should the nurse take? (Select all that
apply.)
a. Have the client lie on her side
b. Ask the client to look up at the ceiling
c. Tell the client to blink when the drops enter her eye
d. Drop the medication into the center of the conjunctival sac
e. Instruct the client to close her eye gently after instillation
Answer: b, d, e
Rationale: Looking up exposes conjunctival sac; place drops in conjunctival sac (not on
cornea); gentle eye closure helps distribution (avoid blinking forcefully).
4. Discharge teaching for a client with a transdermal patch — which statement shows
understanding?
a. “I will clean the site with an alcohol swab before I apply the patch.”
b. “I will rotate the application sites weekly.”
c. “I will apply the patch to an area of skin with no hair.”
,ESTUDYR
d. “I will place the new patch on the site of the old patch.”
Answer: c
Rationale: Patches should be placed on hairless, intact skin for optimal absorption; do
not reuse same exact site (rotate) and alcohol may irritate.
5. To verify a trough level of a medication, when should the nurse obtain the blood
specimen?
a. Immediately before the next scheduled dose
b. After the client has been taking the drug for 24 hr
c. Collect urine after the next dose
d. 30 minutes after administering the dose
Answer: a
Rationale: A trough is the lowest serum concentration — draw immediately prior to the
next dose.
6. Which actions are legal nursing responsibilities regarding medication administration?
(Select all that apply.)
a. Maintain skill competency
b. Determine the dosage
c. Monitor for adverse effects
d. Safeguard medications (e.g., controlled substances)
e. Identify the client's diagnosis
Answer: a, c, d
Rationale: Nurses must be competent, monitor for side effects, and secure meds;
prescribing or diagnosing is the provider’s role.
7. A new prescription reads lisinopril 10 mg PO once daily. This type of prescription is best
categorized as:
a. Single
b. Stat
c. Routine (standard)
d. Standing
Answer: c
Rationale: Routine (scheduled) orders are given regularly until discontinued by the
prescriber.
8. A prescription reads ondansetron 4 mg PO PRN for nausea for hyperemesis gravidarum.
What must be clarified with the provider?
a. Name
b. Dosage
c. Route
d. Frequency (time/frequency not specified in example)
Answer: d
,ESTUDYR
Rationale: PRN orders must include dosing interval or frequency parameters; clarify if
not specified.
9. Pre-medication assessment should include which of the following? (Select all that
apply.)
a. Use of herbal teas
b. Daily fluid intake
c. Current health status
d. Previous surgical history
e. Food allergies
Answer: a, c, e
Rationale: Herbs can interact with meds, current status affects safety, and allergies are
essential to avoid reactions.
10. Which statement indicates correct telephone prescription procedure?
a. “A second nurse enters the prescription into the client’s chart.”
b. “Another nurse should listen to the phone call.”
c. “The provider can clarify later when he signs the record.”
d. “Omit the ‘read back’ if it’s a one-time order.”
Answer: b
Rationale: A second nurse should listen (and co-verify) to telephone/verbal orders to
reduce errors; read-back is required.
11. Calculation: Vancomycin 1 g in 100 mL D5W to infuse over 45 minutes via manual
tubing (10 gtt/mL). Set the infusion to how many gtt/min? (Round to nearest whole
number.)
a. 13 gtt/min
b. 22 gtt/min
c. 27 gtt/min
d. 44 gtt/min
Answer: b (22 gtt/min)
Rationale: (100 mL × 10 gtt/mL) ÷ 45 min = 1000 ÷ 45 ≈ 22.22 → 22 gtt/min.
12. Calculation: Clindamycin 200 mg IV in 100 mL NS to infuse over 30 minutes. Set pump to
mL/hr:
a. 100 mL/hr
b. 150 mL/hr
c. 200 mL/hr
d. 300 mL/hr
Answer: c (200 mL/hr)
Rationale: 100 mL ÷ 0.5 hr = 200 mL/hr.
13. Calculation: Furosemide 80 mg PO; available 10 mg/mL oral solution. How many mL?
a. 4 mL
, ESTUDYR
b. 6 mL
c. 8 mL
d. 10 mL
Answer: c (8 mL)
Rationale: 80 mg ÷ (10 mg/mL) = 8 mL.
14. Calculation: Haloperidol 2 mg PO q12; available 1 mg tablets. How many tablets per
dose?
a. 0.5 tablet
b. 1 tablet
c. 2 tablets
d. 3 tablets
Answer: c (2 tablets)
Rationale: 2 mg needed ÷ 1 mg/tablet = 2 tablets.
15. Calculation (pediatric): Amoxicillin 20 mg/kg/day PO divided q12 to a 44-lb (20 kg)
preschooler. Available: 250 mg/5 mL. How many mL per dose?
a. 2 mL
b. 3 mL
c. 4 mL
d. 6 mL
Answer: c (4 mL)
Rationale: Weight = 44 lb ÷ 2.2 = 20 kg → total daily = 20 mg/kg × 20 kg = 400 mg/day →
per dose q12 = 200 mg → concentration 250 mg/5 mL = 50 mg/mL → 200 mg ÷ 50
mg/mL = 4 mL.
16. Calculation: Heparin 15,000 units SC q12; available 20,000 units/mL. How many mL per
dose? (Round to nearest tenth.)
a. 0.5 mL
b. 0.8 mL
c. 1.0 mL
d. 1.2 mL
Answer: b (0.8 mL)
Rationale: 15,000 ÷ 20,000 = 0.75 mL → rounded to nearest tenth = 0.8 mL.
17. Calculation: Acetaminophen 650 mg PO; available 500 mg/5 mL liquid. How many mL?
(Round to nearest tenth.)
a. 5.0 mL
b. 6.5 mL
c. 7.5 mL
d. 10.0 mL
Answer: b (6.5 mL)
Rationale: 500 mg/5 mL = 100 mg/mL → 650 mg ÷ 100 mg/mL = 6.5 mL.
RN PHARMACOLOGY LATEST 2025 ACTUAL EXAM 242
QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES
(VERIFIED ANSWERS) |ALREADY GRADED A+
1. A provider prescribes phenobarbital for a client who has a seizure disorder. The
medication has a long half-life (~4 days). How many times per day should the nurse
expect to administer this medication?
a. One
b. Two
c. Three
d. Four
Answer: a. One
Rationale: Drugs with very long half-lives maintain therapeutic plasma levels long
between doses, so once-daily dosing is common.
2. A staff educator reviews factors that require lower medication dosages. Which of the
following should be included? (Select all that apply.)
a. Increased renal secretion
b. Increased medication-metabolizing enzymes
c. Liver failure
d. Peripheral vascular disease
e. Concurrent drugs metabolized by the same pathway (drug–drug competition)
Answer: c, e
Rationale: Liver failure reduces metabolism (↑ drug level → ↓ dose). Co-metabolism
leads to competition and ↑ concentrations, necessitating dose reduction.
3. When administering eye drops, which actions should the nurse take? (Select all that
apply.)
a. Have the client lie on her side
b. Ask the client to look up at the ceiling
c. Tell the client to blink when the drops enter her eye
d. Drop the medication into the center of the conjunctival sac
e. Instruct the client to close her eye gently after instillation
Answer: b, d, e
Rationale: Looking up exposes conjunctival sac; place drops in conjunctival sac (not on
cornea); gentle eye closure helps distribution (avoid blinking forcefully).
4. Discharge teaching for a client with a transdermal patch — which statement shows
understanding?
a. “I will clean the site with an alcohol swab before I apply the patch.”
b. “I will rotate the application sites weekly.”
c. “I will apply the patch to an area of skin with no hair.”
,ESTUDYR
d. “I will place the new patch on the site of the old patch.”
Answer: c
Rationale: Patches should be placed on hairless, intact skin for optimal absorption; do
not reuse same exact site (rotate) and alcohol may irritate.
5. To verify a trough level of a medication, when should the nurse obtain the blood
specimen?
a. Immediately before the next scheduled dose
b. After the client has been taking the drug for 24 hr
c. Collect urine after the next dose
d. 30 minutes after administering the dose
Answer: a
Rationale: A trough is the lowest serum concentration — draw immediately prior to the
next dose.
6. Which actions are legal nursing responsibilities regarding medication administration?
(Select all that apply.)
a. Maintain skill competency
b. Determine the dosage
c. Monitor for adverse effects
d. Safeguard medications (e.g., controlled substances)
e. Identify the client's diagnosis
Answer: a, c, d
Rationale: Nurses must be competent, monitor for side effects, and secure meds;
prescribing or diagnosing is the provider’s role.
7. A new prescription reads lisinopril 10 mg PO once daily. This type of prescription is best
categorized as:
a. Single
b. Stat
c. Routine (standard)
d. Standing
Answer: c
Rationale: Routine (scheduled) orders are given regularly until discontinued by the
prescriber.
8. A prescription reads ondansetron 4 mg PO PRN for nausea for hyperemesis gravidarum.
What must be clarified with the provider?
a. Name
b. Dosage
c. Route
d. Frequency (time/frequency not specified in example)
Answer: d
,ESTUDYR
Rationale: PRN orders must include dosing interval or frequency parameters; clarify if
not specified.
9. Pre-medication assessment should include which of the following? (Select all that
apply.)
a. Use of herbal teas
b. Daily fluid intake
c. Current health status
d. Previous surgical history
e. Food allergies
Answer: a, c, e
Rationale: Herbs can interact with meds, current status affects safety, and allergies are
essential to avoid reactions.
10. Which statement indicates correct telephone prescription procedure?
a. “A second nurse enters the prescription into the client’s chart.”
b. “Another nurse should listen to the phone call.”
c. “The provider can clarify later when he signs the record.”
d. “Omit the ‘read back’ if it’s a one-time order.”
Answer: b
Rationale: A second nurse should listen (and co-verify) to telephone/verbal orders to
reduce errors; read-back is required.
11. Calculation: Vancomycin 1 g in 100 mL D5W to infuse over 45 minutes via manual
tubing (10 gtt/mL). Set the infusion to how many gtt/min? (Round to nearest whole
number.)
a. 13 gtt/min
b. 22 gtt/min
c. 27 gtt/min
d. 44 gtt/min
Answer: b (22 gtt/min)
Rationale: (100 mL × 10 gtt/mL) ÷ 45 min = 1000 ÷ 45 ≈ 22.22 → 22 gtt/min.
12. Calculation: Clindamycin 200 mg IV in 100 mL NS to infuse over 30 minutes. Set pump to
mL/hr:
a. 100 mL/hr
b. 150 mL/hr
c. 200 mL/hr
d. 300 mL/hr
Answer: c (200 mL/hr)
Rationale: 100 mL ÷ 0.5 hr = 200 mL/hr.
13. Calculation: Furosemide 80 mg PO; available 10 mg/mL oral solution. How many mL?
a. 4 mL
, ESTUDYR
b. 6 mL
c. 8 mL
d. 10 mL
Answer: c (8 mL)
Rationale: 80 mg ÷ (10 mg/mL) = 8 mL.
14. Calculation: Haloperidol 2 mg PO q12; available 1 mg tablets. How many tablets per
dose?
a. 0.5 tablet
b. 1 tablet
c. 2 tablets
d. 3 tablets
Answer: c (2 tablets)
Rationale: 2 mg needed ÷ 1 mg/tablet = 2 tablets.
15. Calculation (pediatric): Amoxicillin 20 mg/kg/day PO divided q12 to a 44-lb (20 kg)
preschooler. Available: 250 mg/5 mL. How many mL per dose?
a. 2 mL
b. 3 mL
c. 4 mL
d. 6 mL
Answer: c (4 mL)
Rationale: Weight = 44 lb ÷ 2.2 = 20 kg → total daily = 20 mg/kg × 20 kg = 400 mg/day →
per dose q12 = 200 mg → concentration 250 mg/5 mL = 50 mg/mL → 200 mg ÷ 50
mg/mL = 4 mL.
16. Calculation: Heparin 15,000 units SC q12; available 20,000 units/mL. How many mL per
dose? (Round to nearest tenth.)
a. 0.5 mL
b. 0.8 mL
c. 1.0 mL
d. 1.2 mL
Answer: b (0.8 mL)
Rationale: 15,000 ÷ 20,000 = 0.75 mL → rounded to nearest tenth = 0.8 mL.
17. Calculation: Acetaminophen 650 mg PO; available 500 mg/5 mL liquid. How many mL?
(Round to nearest tenth.)
a. 5.0 mL
b. 6.5 mL
c. 7.5 mL
d. 10.0 mL
Answer: b (6.5 mL)
Rationale: 500 mg/5 mL = 100 mg/mL → 650 mg ÷ 100 mg/mL = 6.5 mL.
