1
ATI PN Maternal Newborn Proctored
Exam 2025/2026 – Actual Exam
Questions with 100% Correct Verified
Answers (Latest Update, Graded A+)
1. A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client who is at 8 weeks gestation about
prenatal care. Which statement by the client indicates understanding?
a) “I should schedule my first prenatal visit after 20 weeks.”
b) “I should attend prenatal visits monthly until the third trimester.”
c) “I need to avoid all physical activity during pregnancy.”
d) “I can continue drinking alcohol in moderation.”
Rationale: Prenatal visits should begin early and occur monthly until the third
trimester, when they increase in frequency. The first visit is typically at 8–12 weeks,
physical activity is encouraged unless contraindicated, and alcohol is avoided to prevent
fetal harm.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who is in active labor and reports an urge to have a
bowel movement. Which stage of labor is the client experiencing?
a) Latent phase
b) Second stage
c) Transition phase
d) Fourth stage
Rationale: The transition phase (8–10 cm dilation) is characterized by intense
contractions, irritability, and an urge to have a bowel movement due to fetal head
pressure on the rectum. The latent phase is early labor, the second stage involves pushing,
and the fourth stage is postpartum.
3. A nurse is assessing a client at 26 weeks gestation who reports dizziness after lying
supine. Which action should the nurse take?
a) Request a preeclampsia workup
b) Advise the client to lie on her left side
c) Order an ultrasound for fetal well-being
d) Recommend a calcium supplement
, 2
Rationale: Supine hypotensive syndrome occurs when the uterus compresses the
vena cava, causing dizziness. Lying on the left side relieves pressure and improves blood
flow. Preeclampsia workup, ultrasound, or calcium supplements are not indicated for this
symptom.
4. A nurse is reinforcing teaching about contraceptive use with a group of adolescent
clients. Which statement requires clarification?
a) “Condoms protect against STIs.”
b) “IUDs require replacement every 3–10 years.”
c) “I can get pregnant immediately after stopping oral contraceptives.”
d) “I should report leg pain while taking oral contraceptives.”
Rationale: Fertility may take several weeks to months to return after stopping oral
contraceptives, so the statement about immediate pregnancy requires clarification.
Condoms do protect against STIs, IUDs have varying replacement intervals, and leg pain
is a danger sign.
5. A nurse is caring for a client receiving oxytocin during labor. Which adverse effect
should the nurse monitor for?
a) Diarrhea
b) Oliguria
c) Fetal asphyxia
d) Thromboembolism
Rationale: Oxytocin can cause uterine hyperstimulation, leading to reduced placental
perfusion and fetal asphyxia. Diarrhea, oliguria, and thromboembolism are not primary
concerns with oxytocin.
6. A nurse is assessing a newborn 24 hours after birth. Which finding requires
immediate intervention?
a) Acrocyanosis of hands and feet
b) Respiratory rate of 40 breaths/min
c) Nasal flaring and grunting
d) Weight loss of 5%
Rationale: Nasal flaring and grunting indicate respiratory distress in a newborn,
requiring immediate intervention. Acrocyanosis, a respiratory rate of 40, and 5% weight
loss are normal within the first 24 hours.
, 3
7. A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client who is 4 weeks postpartum and
breastfeeding. Which statement indicates understanding of expected weight loss?
a) “I should lose all my pregnancy weight by now.”
b) “I won’t lose weight while breastfeeding.”
c) “I can expect to lose about 1 pound per week.”
d) “I should lose 5 pounds per week with exercise.”
Rationale: Breastfeeding mothers typically lose about 0.5–1 pound per week due to
caloric expenditure. Losing all pregnancy weight by 4 weeks or 5 pounds weekly is
unrealistic, and weight loss occurs with breastfeeding.
8. A nurse is caring for a client at 38 weeks gestation with a blood pressure of 160/100
mmHg and proteinuria. Which condition should the nurse suspect?
a) Gestational diabetes
b) Preeclampsia
c) Placenta previa
d) Abruptio placentae
Rationale: Hypertension and proteinuria at 38 weeks are hallmark signs of
preeclampsia, a serious condition requiring monitoring. Gestational diabetes involves
glucose intolerance, placenta previa causes painless bleeding, and abruptio placentae
causes painful bleeding.
9. A nurse is performing Leopold maneuvers on a client in labor. Which finding
indicates a breech presentation?
a) Hard, round mass in the fundus
b) Soft, irregular mass in the fundus
c) Firm mass in the pelvis
d) Palpable fetal limbs in the fundus
Rationale: In a breech presentation, the soft, irregular buttocks are felt in the fundus,
while the head is in the pelvis. A hard, round mass in the fundus indicates a cephalic
presentation.
10. A nurse is teaching a client about danger signs during pregnancy. Which finding
should the client report immediately?
a) Mild constipation
ATI PN Maternal Newborn Proctored
Exam 2025/2026 – Actual Exam
Questions with 100% Correct Verified
Answers (Latest Update, Graded A+)
1. A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client who is at 8 weeks gestation about
prenatal care. Which statement by the client indicates understanding?
a) “I should schedule my first prenatal visit after 20 weeks.”
b) “I should attend prenatal visits monthly until the third trimester.”
c) “I need to avoid all physical activity during pregnancy.”
d) “I can continue drinking alcohol in moderation.”
Rationale: Prenatal visits should begin early and occur monthly until the third
trimester, when they increase in frequency. The first visit is typically at 8–12 weeks,
physical activity is encouraged unless contraindicated, and alcohol is avoided to prevent
fetal harm.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who is in active labor and reports an urge to have a
bowel movement. Which stage of labor is the client experiencing?
a) Latent phase
b) Second stage
c) Transition phase
d) Fourth stage
Rationale: The transition phase (8–10 cm dilation) is characterized by intense
contractions, irritability, and an urge to have a bowel movement due to fetal head
pressure on the rectum. The latent phase is early labor, the second stage involves pushing,
and the fourth stage is postpartum.
3. A nurse is assessing a client at 26 weeks gestation who reports dizziness after lying
supine. Which action should the nurse take?
a) Request a preeclampsia workup
b) Advise the client to lie on her left side
c) Order an ultrasound for fetal well-being
d) Recommend a calcium supplement
, 2
Rationale: Supine hypotensive syndrome occurs when the uterus compresses the
vena cava, causing dizziness. Lying on the left side relieves pressure and improves blood
flow. Preeclampsia workup, ultrasound, or calcium supplements are not indicated for this
symptom.
4. A nurse is reinforcing teaching about contraceptive use with a group of adolescent
clients. Which statement requires clarification?
a) “Condoms protect against STIs.”
b) “IUDs require replacement every 3–10 years.”
c) “I can get pregnant immediately after stopping oral contraceptives.”
d) “I should report leg pain while taking oral contraceptives.”
Rationale: Fertility may take several weeks to months to return after stopping oral
contraceptives, so the statement about immediate pregnancy requires clarification.
Condoms do protect against STIs, IUDs have varying replacement intervals, and leg pain
is a danger sign.
5. A nurse is caring for a client receiving oxytocin during labor. Which adverse effect
should the nurse monitor for?
a) Diarrhea
b) Oliguria
c) Fetal asphyxia
d) Thromboembolism
Rationale: Oxytocin can cause uterine hyperstimulation, leading to reduced placental
perfusion and fetal asphyxia. Diarrhea, oliguria, and thromboembolism are not primary
concerns with oxytocin.
6. A nurse is assessing a newborn 24 hours after birth. Which finding requires
immediate intervention?
a) Acrocyanosis of hands and feet
b) Respiratory rate of 40 breaths/min
c) Nasal flaring and grunting
d) Weight loss of 5%
Rationale: Nasal flaring and grunting indicate respiratory distress in a newborn,
requiring immediate intervention. Acrocyanosis, a respiratory rate of 40, and 5% weight
loss are normal within the first 24 hours.
, 3
7. A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client who is 4 weeks postpartum and
breastfeeding. Which statement indicates understanding of expected weight loss?
a) “I should lose all my pregnancy weight by now.”
b) “I won’t lose weight while breastfeeding.”
c) “I can expect to lose about 1 pound per week.”
d) “I should lose 5 pounds per week with exercise.”
Rationale: Breastfeeding mothers typically lose about 0.5–1 pound per week due to
caloric expenditure. Losing all pregnancy weight by 4 weeks or 5 pounds weekly is
unrealistic, and weight loss occurs with breastfeeding.
8. A nurse is caring for a client at 38 weeks gestation with a blood pressure of 160/100
mmHg and proteinuria. Which condition should the nurse suspect?
a) Gestational diabetes
b) Preeclampsia
c) Placenta previa
d) Abruptio placentae
Rationale: Hypertension and proteinuria at 38 weeks are hallmark signs of
preeclampsia, a serious condition requiring monitoring. Gestational diabetes involves
glucose intolerance, placenta previa causes painless bleeding, and abruptio placentae
causes painful bleeding.
9. A nurse is performing Leopold maneuvers on a client in labor. Which finding
indicates a breech presentation?
a) Hard, round mass in the fundus
b) Soft, irregular mass in the fundus
c) Firm mass in the pelvis
d) Palpable fetal limbs in the fundus
Rationale: In a breech presentation, the soft, irregular buttocks are felt in the fundus,
while the head is in the pelvis. A hard, round mass in the fundus indicates a cephalic
presentation.
10. A nurse is teaching a client about danger signs during pregnancy. Which finding
should the client report immediately?
a) Mild constipation
