AH 2 Exam 3 Study Guide Chapter 33 Assessment of the Cardiovascular System
AH 2 Exam 3 Study Guide
Chapter 33 Assessment of the Cardiovascular System
1.	A nurse assesses a client who had a myocardial infarction and is hypotensive. Which additional assessment finding should the nurse expect?
a. Heart rate of 120 beats/min
b. Cool, clammy skin
c. Oxygen saturation of 90%
d. Respiratory rate of 8 breaths/min
When a client experiences hypotension, baroreceptors in the aortic arch sense a pressure decrease in the vessels. The parasympathetic system responds by lessening the inhibitory effect on the sinoatrial node. This results in an increase in heart rate and respiratory rate.
2.	A nurse assesses a client after administering a prescribed beta blocker. Which assessment should the nurse expect to find?
a. Blood pressure increased from 98/42 mm Hg to 132/60 mm Hg
b. Respiratory rate decreased from 25 breaths/min to 14 breaths/min
c. Oxygen saturation increased from 88% to 96%
d. Pulse decreased from 100 beats/min to 80 beats/min
Beta blockers block the stimulation of beta1-adrenergic receptors. They block the sympathetic (fight-or-flight) response and decrease the heart rate (HR). The beta blocker will decrease HR and blood pressure, increasing ventricular filling time.
3.	A nurse assesses clients on a medical-surgical unit. Which client should the nurse identify as having the greatest risk for cardiovascular disease?
a. An 86-year-old man with a history of asthma
b. A 32-year-old Asian-American man with colorectal cancer
c. A 45-year-old American Indian woman with diabetes mellitus
d. A 53-year-old postmenopausal woman who is on hormone therapy
The incidence of coronary artery disease and hypertension is higher in American Indians than in whites or Asian Americans. Diabetes mellitus increases the risk for hypertension and coronary artery disease in people of any race or ethnicity.
4.	A nurse assesses an older adult client who has multiple chronic diseases. The client's heart rate is 48 beats/min. Which action should the nurse take first?
a. Document the finding in the chart.
b. Initiate external pacing.
c. Assess the client's medications.
d. Administer 1 mg of atropine.
Pacemaker cells in the conduction system decrease in number as a person ages, resulting in bradycardia. The nurse should check the medication reconciliation for medications that might cause such a drop in heart rate, then should inform the health care provider.
5.	An emergency room nurse obtains the health history of a client. Which statement by the client should alert the nurse to the occurrence of heart failure?
a. "I get short of breath when I climb stairs."
b. "I see halos floating around my head."
c. "I have trouble remembering things."
d. "I have lost weight over the past month."
Dyspnea on exertion is an early manifestation of heart failure and is associated with an activity such as stair climbing.
6.	A nurse obtains the health history of a client who is newly admitted to the medical unit. Which statement by the client should alert the nurse to the presence of edema?
a. "I wake up to go to the bathroom at night."
b. "My shoes fit tighter by the end of the day."
c. "I seem to be feeling more anxious lately."
d. "I drink at least eight glasses of water a day."
Weight gain can result from fluid accumulation in the interstitial spaces. This is known as edema. The nurse should note whether the client feels that his or her shoes or rings are tight, and should observe, when present, an indentation around the leg where the socks end.
7.	A nurse assesses an older adult client who is experiencing a myocardial infarction. Which clinical manifestation should the nurse expect?
a. Excruciating pain on inspiration
b. Left lateral chest wall pain
c. Disorientation and confusion
d. Numbness and tingling of the arm
In older adults, disorientation or confusion may be the major manifestation of myocardial infarction caused by poor cardiac output. Pain manifestations and numbness and tingling of the arm could also be related to the myocardial infarction.
8.	A nurse assesses a client 2 hours after a cardiac angiography via the left femoral artery. The nurse notes that the left pedal pulse is weak. Which action should the nurse take?
a. Elevate the leg and apply a sandbag to the entrance site.
b. Increase the flow rate of intravenous fluids.
c. Assess the color and temperature of the left leg.
d. Document the finding as "left pedal pulse of +1/4."
Loss of a pulse distal to an angiography entry site is serious, indicating a possible arterial obstruction. The pulse may be faint because of edema. The left pulse should be compared with the right, and pulses should be compared with previous assessments, especially before the procedure. Assessing color (pale, cyanosis) and temperature (cool, cold) will identify a decrease in circulation.
9.	A nurse assesses a client who is recovering after a left-sided cardiac catheterization. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?
a. Urinary output less than intake
b. Bruising at the insertion site
c. Slurred speech and confusion
d. Discomfort in the left leg
A left-sided cardiac catheterization specifically increases the risk for a cerebral vascular accident. A change in neurologic status needs to be acted on immediately.
10.	A nurse assesses a client who is scheduled for a cardiac catheterization. Which assessment should the nurse complete prior to this procedure?
a. Client's level of anxiety
b. Ability to turn self in bed
c. Cardiac rhythm and heart rate
d. Allergies to iodine-based agents
Before the procedure, the nurse should ascertain whether the client has an allergy to iodine-containing preparations, such as seafood or local anesthetics. The contrast medium used during the procedure is iodine based.
11.	A nurse cares for a client who is prescribed magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of the heart. The client's health history includes a previous myocardial infarction and pacemaker implantation. Which action should the nurse take?
a. Schedule an electrocardiogram just before the MRI.
b. Notify the health care provider before scheduling the MRI.
c. Call the physician and request a laboratory draw for cardiac enzymes.
d. Instruct the client to increase fluid intake the day before the MRI.
The magnetic fields of the MRI can deactivate the pacemaker. The nurse should call the health care provider and report that the client has a pacemaker so the provider can order other diagnostic tests.
12.	A nurse assesses a client who is recovering from a myocardial infarction. The client's pulmonary artery pressure reading is 25/12 mm Hg. Which action should the nurse take first?
a. Compare the results with previous pulmonary artery pressure readings.
b. Increase the intravenous fluid rate because these readings are low.
c. Immediately notify the health care provider of the elevated pressures.
d. Document the finding in the client's chart as the only action.
Normal pulmonary artery pressures range from 15 to 26 mm Hg for systolic and from 5 to 15 mm Hg for diastolic. Although this client's readings are within normal limits, the nurse needs to assess any trends that may indicate a need for medical treatment to prevent complications.
13.	A nurse cares for a client who has an 80% blockage of the right coronary artery (RCA) and is scheduled for bypass surgery. Which intervention should the nurse be prepared to implement while this client waits for surgery?
a. Administration of IV furosemide (Lasix)
b. Initiation of an external pacemaker
c. Assistance with endotracheal intubation
d. Placement of central venous access
The RCA supplies the right atrium, the right ventricle, the inferior portion of the left ventricle, and the atrioventricular (AV) node. It also supplies the sinoatrial node in 50% of people. If the client totally occludes the RCA, the AV node would not function and the client would go into heart block, so emergency pacing should be available for the client.
14.	A nurse teaches a client with diabetes mellitus and a body mass index of 42 who is at high risk for coronary artery disease. Which statement related to nutrition should the nurse include in this client's teaching?
a. "The best way to lose weight is a high-protein, low-carbohydrate diet."
b. "You should balance weight loss with consuming necessary nutrients."
c. "A nutritionist will provide you with information about your new diet."
d. "If you exercise more frequently, you won't need to change your diet."
Clients at risk for cardiovascular diseases should follow the AHA guidelines. The nurse should encourage the client to eat vegetables, fruits, unrefined whole-grain products, and fat-free dairy products while losing weight.
15.	A nurse cares for a client who has advanced cardiac disease and states, "I am having trouble sleeping at night." How should the nurse respond?
a. "I will consult the provider to prescribe a sleep study to determine the problem."
b. "You become hypoxic while sleeping; oxygen therapy via nasal cannula will
c. "A CPAP, breathing mask will help you breathe at night."
d. "Use pillows to elevate your head and chest while you are sleeping."
The client is experiencing orthopnea (shortness of breath while lying flat). The nurse should teach the client to elevate the head and chest with pillows or sleep in a recliner.
16.	A nurse cares for a client who is recovering from a myocardial infarction. The client states, "I will need to stop eating so much chili to keep that indigestion pain from returning." How should the nurse respond?
a. "Chili is high in fat and calories; it would be a good idea to stop eating it."
b. "The provider has prescribed an antacid for you to take every morning."
c. "What do you understand about what happened to you?"
d. "When did you start experiencing this indigestion?"
Clients who experience myocardial infarction often respond with denial, which is a defense mechanism. The nurse should ask the client what he or she thinks happened, or what the illness means to him or her.
17.	A nurse prepares a client for coronary artery bypass graft surgery. The client states, "I am afraid I might die." How should the nurse respond?
a. "This is a routine surgery and the risk of death is very low."
b. "Would you like to speak with a chaplain prior to surgery?"
c. "Tell me more about your concerns about the surgery."
d. "What support systems do you have to assist you?"
The nurse should discuss the client's feelings and concerns related to the surgery.
18.	An emergency department nurse triages clients who present with chest discomfort. Which client should the nurse plan to assess first?
a. A 42-year-old female who describes her pain as a dull ache with numbness in her
b. A 49-year-old male who reports moderate pain that is worse on inspiration
c. A 53-year-old female who reports substernal pain that radiates to her abdomen
d. A 58-year-old male who describes his pain as intense stabbing that spreads across
The nurse must understand common differences in pain descriptions. Intense stabbing, vise-like substernal pain that spreads through the client's chest, arms, jaw, back, or neck is indicative of a myocardial infarction. The nurse should plan to see this client first.
19.	A nurse auscultated heart tones on an older adult client. Which action should the nurse take based on heart tones heard?
a. Administer a diuretic.
b. Document the finding.
c. Decrease the IV flow rate.
d. Evaluate the client's medications.
The sound heard is an atrial gallop S4 may be heard in older clients because of a stiffened ventricle. The nurse should document the finding.
20.	A nurse is caring for a client with a history of renal insufficiency who is scheduled for a cardiac catheterization. Which actions should the nurse take prior to the catheterization? (Select all that apply.)
a. Assess for allergies to iodine.
b. Administer intravenous fluids.
c. Assess blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine results.
d. Insert a Foley catheter.
e. Administer a prophylactic antibiotic.
f. Insert a central venous catheter.
If the client has kidney disease (as indicated by BUN and creatinine results), fluids and Mucomyst may be given 12 to 24 hours before the procedure for renal protection. The client should be assessed for allergies to iodine, including shellfish; the contrast medium used during the catheterization contains iodine. A Foley catheter and central venous catheter are not required for the procedure and would only increase the client's risk for infection. Prophylactic antibiotics are not administered prior to a cardiac catheterization.
21.	An emergency room nurse assesses a female client. Which assessment findings should alert the nurse to request a prescription for an electrocardiogram? (Select all that apply.)
b. Fatigue despite adequate rest
d. Abdominal pain
e. Shortness of breath
Women may not have chest pain with myocardial infarction, but may feel discomfort or indigestion. They often present with a triad of symptoms—indigestion or feeling of abdominal fullness, feeling of chronic fatigue despite adequate rest, and feeling unable to catch their breath. Frequently, women are not diagnosed and therefore are not treated adequately. Hypertension and abdominal pain are not associated with acute coronary syndrome.
22.	A nurse assesses a client who is recovering after a coronary catheterization. Which assessment findings in the first few hours after the procedure require immediate action by the nurse? (Select all that apply.)
a. Blood pressure of 140/88 mm Hg
b. Serum potassium of 2.9 mEq/L
c. Warmth and redness at the site
d. Expanding groin hematoma
e. Rhythm changes on the cardiac monitor
In the first few hours postprocedure, the nurse monitors for complications such as bleeding from the insertion site, hypotension, acute closure of the vessel, dye reaction, hypokalemia, and dysrhythmias. The client's blood pressure is slightly elevated but does not need immediate action. Warmth and redness at the site would indicate an infection, but this would not be present in the first few hours.
23.	4. A nurse reviews a client's laboratory results. Which findings should alert the nurse to the possibility of atherosclerosis? (Select all that apply.)
a. Total cholesterol: 280 mg/dL
b. High-density lipoprotein cholesterol: 50 mg/dL
c. Triglycerides: 200 mg/dL
d. Serum albumin: 4 g/dL
e. Low-density lipoprotein cholesterol: 160 mg/dL
A lipid panel is often used to screen for cardiovascular risk. Total cholesterol, triglycerides, and low-density lipoprotein cholesterol levels are all high, indicating higher risk for cardiovascular disease. High-density lipoprotein cholesterol is within the normal range for both males and females. Serum albumin is not assessed for atherosclerosis.
24.	A nurse prepares a client for a pharmacologic stress echocardiogram. Which actions should the nurse take when preparing this client for the procedure? (Select all that apply.)
a. Assist the provider to place a central venous access device.
b. Prepare for continuous blood pressure and pulse monitoring.
c. Administer the client's prescribed beta blocker.
d. Give the client nothing by mouth 3 to 6 hours before the procedure.
e. Explain to the client that dobutamine will simulate exercise for this examination.
Clients receiving a pharmacologic stress echocardiogram will need peripheral venous access and continuous blood pressure and pulse monitoring. The client must be NPO 3 to 6 hours prior to the procedure. Education about dobutamine, which will be administered during the procedure, should be performed. Beta blockers are often held prior to the procedure.
25.	A nurse cares for a client who is recovering from a right-sided heart catheterization. For which complications of this procedure should the nurse assess? (Select all that apply.)
c. Pulmonary embolism
d. Myocardial infarction
e. Cardiac tamponade
Complications from a right-sided heart catheterization include thrombophlebitis, pulmonary embolism, and vagal response. Cardiac tamponade is a risk of both right- and left-sided heart catheterizations. Stroke and myocardial infarction are complications of left-sided heart catheterizations.
Chapter 24: Care of Patients with Dysrhythmias
1.	 A nurse assesses a client's electrocardiograph tracing and observes that not all QRS complexes are preceded by a P wave. How should the nurse interpret this observation? a. The client has hyperkalemia causing irregular QRS complexes.
b. Ventricular tachycardia is overriding the normal atrial rhythm.
c. The client's chest leads are not making sufficient contact with the skin.
d. Ventricular and atrial depolarizations are initiated from different sites.
Normal rhythm shows one P wave preceding each QRS complex, indicating that all depolarization is initiated at the sinoatrial node. QRS complexes without a P wave indicate a different source of initiation of depolarization.
2.	A nurse cares for a client who has a heart rate averaging 56 beats/min with no adverse symptoms. Which activity modification should the nurse suggest to avoid further slowing of the heart rate?
a. "Make certain that your bath water is warm."
b. "Avoid straining while having a bowel movement."
c. "Limit your intake of caffeinated drinks to one a day."
d. "Avoid strenuous exercise such as running."
Bearing down strenuously during a bowel movement is one type of Valsalva maneuver, which stimulates the vagus nerve and results in slowing of the heart rate. Such a response is not desirable in a person who has bradycardia.
3.	A nurse is assessing clients on a medical-surgical unit. Which client should the nurse identify as being at greatest risk for atrial fibrillation?
a. A 45-year-old who takes an aspirin daily
b. A 50-year-old who is post coronary artery bypass graft surgery
c. A 78-year-old who had a carotid endarterectomy
d. An 80-year-old with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
Atrial fibrillation occurs commonly in clients with cardiac disease and is a common occurrence after coronary artery bypass graft surgery.
4.	 A nurse assesses a client with atrial fibrillation. Which manifestation should alert the nurse to the possibility of a serious complication from this condition?
a. Sinus tachycardia
b. Speech alterations
d. Dyspnea with activity
Clients with atrial fibrillation are at risk for embolic stroke. Evidence of embolic events includes changes in mentation, speech, sensory function, and motor function.
5.	A nurse evaluates prescriptions for a client with chronic atrial fibrillation. Which medication should the nurse expect to find on this client's medication administration record to prevent a common complication of this condition?
a. Sotalol (Betapace)
b. Warfarin (Coumadin)
c. Atropine (Sal-Tropine)
d. Lidocaine (Xylocaine)
Atrial fibrillation puts clients at risk for developing emboli. Clients at risk for emboli are treated with anticoagulants, such as heparin, enoxaparin, or warfarin.
6.	 A nurse administers prescribed adenosine (Adenocard) to a client. Which response should the nurse assess for as the expected therapeutic response?
a. Decreased intraocular pressure
b. Increased heart rate
c. Short period of asystole
d. Hypertensive crisis
Clients usually respond to adenosine with a short period of asystole, bradycardia, hypotension, dyspnea, and chest pain.
7.	A telemetry nurse assesses a client with third-degree heart block who has wide QRS complexes and a heart rate of 35 beats/min on the cardiac monitor. Which assessment should the nurse complete next?
a. Pulmonary auscultation
b. Pulse strength and amplitude
c. Level of consciousness
d. Mobility and gait stability
A heart rate of 40 beats/min or less with widened QRS complexes could have hemodynamic consequences. The client is at risk for inadequate cerebral perfusion. The nurse should assess for level of consciousness, light-headedness, confusion, syncope, and seizure activity.
8.	A nurse cares for a client with an intravenous temporary pacemaker for bradycardia. The nurse observes the presence of a pacing spike but no QRS complex on the client's electrocardiogram. Which action should the nurse take next?
a. Administer intravenous diltiazem (Cardizem).
b. Assess vital signs and level of consciousness.
c. Administer sublingual nitroglycerin.
d. Assess capillary refill and temperature.
In temporary pacing, the wires are threaded onto the epicardial surface of the heart and exit through the chest wall. The pacemaker spike should be followed immediately by a QRS complex. Pacing spikes seen without subsequent QRS complexes imply loss of capture. If there is no capture, then there is no ventricular depolarization and contraction. The nurse should assess for cardiac output via vital signs and level of consciousness.
9.	A nurse prepares to defibrillate a client who is in ventricular fibrillation. Which priority intervention should the nurse perform prior to defibrillating this client?
a. Make sure the defibrillator is set to the synchronous mode.
b. Administer 1 mg of intravenous epinephrine.
c. Test the equipment by delivering a smaller shock at 100 joules.
d. Ensure that everyone is clear of contact with the client and the bed.
To avoid injury, the rescuer commands that all personnel clear contact with the client or the bed and ensures their compliance before delivery of the shock.
10.	After teaching a client who has an implantable cardioverter-defibrillator (ICD), a nurse assesses the client's understanding. Which statement by the client indicates a correct understanding of the teaching?
a. "I should wear a snug-fitting shirt over the ICD."
b. "I will avoid sources of strong electromagnetic fields."
c. "I should participate in a strenuous exercise program."
d. "Now I can discontinue my antidysrhythmic medication."
The client being discharged with an ICD is instructed to avoid strong sources of electromagnetic fields.
11.	A nurse cares for a client with atrial fibrillation who reports fatigue when completing activities of daily living. What interventions should the nurse implement to address this client's concerns?
a. Administer oxygen therapy at 2 liters per nasal cannula.
b. Provide the client with a sleeping pill to stimulate rest.
c. Schedule periods of exercise and rest during the day.
d. Ask unlicensed assistive personnel to help bathe the client.
Clients who have atrial fibrillation are at risk for decreased cardiac output and fatigue when completing activities of daily living. The nurse should schedule periods of exercise and rest during the day to decrease fatigue.
12.	A nurse assists with the cardioversion of a client experiencing acute atrial fibrillation. Which action should the nurse take prior to the initiation of cardioversion?
a. Administer intravenous adenosine.
b. Turn off oxygen therapy.
c. Ensure a tongue blade is available.
d. Position the client on the left side.
For safety during cardioversion, the nurse should turn off any oxygen therapy to prevent fire.
13.	A nurse prepares to discharge a client with cardiac dysrhythmia who is prescribed home health care services. Which priority information should be communicated to the home health nurse upon discharge?
a. Medication reconciliation
b. Immunization history
c. Religious beliefs
d. Nutrition preferences
The home health nurse needs to know current medications the client is taking to ensure assessment, evaluation, and further education related to these medications.
14.	A nurse assesses a client with tachycardia. Which clinical manifestation requires immediate intervention by the nurse?
a. Mid-sternal chest pain
b. Increased urine output
c. Mild orthostatic hypotension
d. P wave touching the T wave
Chest pain, possibly angina, indicates that tachycardia may be increasing the client's myocardial workload and oxygen demand to such an extent that normal oxygen delivery cannot keep pace. This results in myocardial hypoxia and pain.
15.	A nurse teaches a client who experiences occasional premature atrial contractions (PACs) accompanied by palpitations that resolve spontaneously without treatment. Which statement should the nurse include in this client's teaching?
a. "Minimize or abstain from caffeine."
b. "Lie on your side until the attack subsides."
c. "Use your oxygen when you experience PACs."
d. "Take amiodarone (Cordarone) daily to prevent PACs."
PACs usually have no hemodynamic consequences. For a client experiencing infrequent PACs, the nurse should explore possible lifestyle causes, such as excessive caffeine intake and stress.
16.	The nurse asks a client who has experienced ventricular dysrhythmias about substance abuse. The client asks, "Why do you want to know if I use cocaine?" How should the nurse respond?
a. "Substance abuse puts clients at risk for many health issues."
b. "The hospital requires that I ask you about cocaine use."
c. "Clients who use cocaine are at risk for fatal dysrhythmias."
d. "We can provide services for cessation of substance abuse."
Clients who use cocaine or illicit inhalants are particularly at risk for potentially fatal dysrhythmias.
17.	A nurse supervises an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) applying electrocardiographic monitoring. Which statement should the nurse provide to the UAP related to this procedure?
a. "Clean the skin and clip hairs if needed."
b. "Add gel to the electrodes prior to applying them."
c. "Place the electrodes on the posterior chest."
d. "Turn off oxygen prior to monitoring the client."
To ensure the best signal transmission, the skin should be clean and hairs clipped.
18.	A nurse assesses a client's electrocardiogram (ECG) and observes the reading shown below:
How should the nurse document this client's ECG strip?
a. Ventricular tachycardia
b. V entricular fibrillation
c. Sinus rhythm with premature atrial contractions (PACs)
d. Sinus rhythm with premature ventricular contractions (PVCs)
Sinus rhythm with PVCs has an underlying regular sinus rhythm with ventricular depolarization that sometimes precede atrial depolarization. Ventricular tachycardia and ventricular fibrillation rhythms would not have sinus beats present.
19.	A nurse cares for a client who is on a cardiac monitor. The monitor displayed the rhythm shown below:
Which action should the nurse take first?
a. Assess airway, breathing, and level of consciousness.
b. Administer an amiodarone bolus followed by a drip.
c. Cardiovert the client with a biphasic defibrillator.
d. Begin cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR).
Ventricular tachycardia occurs with repetitive firing of an irritable ventricular ectopic focus, usually at a rate of 140 to 180 beats/min or more. Ventricular tachycardia is a lethal dysrhythmia. The nurse should first assess if the client is alert and breathing.
20.	A nurse performs an admission assessment on a 75-year-old client with multiple chronic diseases. The client's blood pressure is 135/75 mm Hg and oxygen saturation is 94% on 2 liters per nasal cannula. The nurse assesses the client's rhythm on the cardiac monitor and observes the reading shown below:
Which action should the nurse take first?
a. Begin external temporary pacing.
b. Assess peripheral pulse strength.
c. Ask the client what medications he or she takes.
d. Administer 1 mg of atropine.
This client is stable and therefore does not require any intervention except to determine the cause of the bradycardia. Bradycardia is often caused by medications.
21.	The nurse is caring for a client on the medical-surgical unit who suddenly becomes unresponsive and has no pulse. The cardiac monitor shows the rhythm below:
After calling for assistance and a defibrillator, which action should the nurse take next?
a. Perform a pericardial thump.
b. Initiate cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR).
c. Start an 18-gauge intravenous line.
d. Ask the client's family about code status.
The client's rhythm is ventricular fibrillation. This is a lethal rhythm that is best treated with immediate defibrillation. While the nurse is waiting for the defibrillator to arrive, the nurse should start CPR.
22.	After assessing a client who is receiving an amiodarone intravenous infusion for unstable ventricular tachycardia, the nurse documents the findings:
0800: Temperature: 98° F, Heart rate: 68 beats/min, Blood pressure: 135/60 mm/Hg, Respiratory rate: 14 breaths/min, Oxygen saturation: 96% @ 2L nc, Client alert and oriented, normal sinus rhythm, Skin: warm, dry, Respirations equal and unlabored. Client denies shortness of breath and chest pain.
1000: Temperature: 98.2° F, Heart rate: 50 beats/min, Blood pressure: 132/57 mm/Hg, Respiratory rate: 16 breaths/min, Oxygen saturation: 95% 2 L nc, Client alert and oriented, sinus bradycardia. Skin: warm, dry, Respirations equal and unlabored. Client denies shortness of breath and chest pain, Client voids 420 mL of clear yellow urine.
Based on the assessments, which action should the nurse take?
a. Stop the infusion and flush the IV.
b. Slow the amiodarone infusion rate.
c. Administer IV normal saline.
d. Ask the client to cough and deep breathe.
IV administration of amiodarone may cause bradycardia and atrioventricular (AV) block. The correct action for the nurse to take at this time is to slow the infusion, because the client is asymptomatic and no evidence reveals AV block that might require pacing.
23.	 A nurse cares for a client with congestive heart failure who has a regular cardiac rhythm of 128 beats/min. For which physiologic alterations should the nurse assess? (Select all that apply.)
a. Decrease in cardiac output
b. Increase in cardiac output
c. Decrease in blood pressure
d. Increase in blood pressure
e. Decrease in urine output
f. Increase in urine output
Elevated heart rates in a healthy client initially cause blood pressure and cardiac output to increase. However, in a client who has congestive heart failure or a client with long-term tachycardia, ventricular filling time, cardiac output, and blood pressure eventually decrease. As cardiac output and blood pressure decrease, urine output will fall.
24.	 A nurse teaches a client with a new permanent pacemaker. Which instructions should the nurse include in this client's teaching? (Select all that apply.)
a. "Until your incision is healed, do not submerge your pacemaker. Only take showers."
b. "Report any pulse rates lower than your pacemaker settings."
c. "If you feel weak, apply pressure over your generator."
d. "Have your pacemaker turned off before having (MRI)."
e. "Do not lift your left arm above the level of your shoulder for 8 weeks."
The client should not submerge in water until the site has healed; after the incision is healed, the client may take showers or baths without concern for the pacemaker. The client should be instructed to report changes in heart rate or rhythm, such as rates lower than the pacemaker setting or greater than 100 beats/min. The client should be advised of restrictions on physical activity for 8 weeks to allow the pacemaker to settle in place. The client should never apply pressure over the generator and should avoid tight clothing. The client should never have MRI because, whether turned on or off, the pacemaker contains metal.
25.	 A nurse is teaching a client with premature ectopic beats. Which education should the nurse include in this client's teaching? (Select all that apply.)
a. Smoking cessation
b. Stress reduction and management
c. Avoiding vagal stimulation
d. Adverse effects of medications
e. Foods high in potassium
A client who has premature beats or ectopic rhythms should be taught to stop smoking, manage stress, take medications as prescribed, and report adverse effects of medications. Clients with premature beats are not at risk for vasovagal attacks or potassium imbalances.
Chapter 35: Care of Patients with Cardiac Problems
1.	A nurse assesses clients on a cardiac unit. Which client should the nurse identify as being at greatest risk for the development of left-sided heart failure?
a. A 36-year-old woman with aortic stenosis
b. A 42-year-old man with pulmonary hypertension
c. A 59-year-old woman who smokes cigarettes daily
d. A 70-year-old man who had a cerebral vascular accident
Although most people with heart failure will have failure that progresses from left to right, it is possible to have left-sided failure alone for a short period. It is also possible to have heart failure that progresses from right to left. Causes of left ventricular failure include mitral or aortic valve disease, coronary artery disease, and hypertension.
2.	A nurse assesses a client in an outpatient clinic. Which statement alerts the nurse to the possibility of left-sided heart failure?
a. "I have been drinking more water than usual."
b. "I am awakened by the need to urinate at night."
c. "I must stop halfway up the stairs to catch my breath."
d. "I have experienced blurred vision on several occasions."
Clients with left-sided heart failure report weakness or fatigue while performing normal activities of daily living, as well as difficulty breathing, or "catching their breath."
3.	A nurse assesses a client admitted to the cardiac unit. Which statement by the client alerts the nurse to the possibility of right-sided heart failure?
a. "I sleep with four pillows at night."
b. "My shoes fit really tight lately."
c. "I wake up coughing every night."
d. "I have trouble catching my breath."
Signs of systemic congestion occur with right-sided heart failure. Fluid is retained, pressure builds in the venous system, and peripheral edema develops.
4.	While assessing a client on a cardiac unit, a nurse identifies the presence of an S3 gallop. Which action should the nurse take next?
a. Assess for symptoms of left-sided heart failure.
b. Document this as a normal finding.
c. Call the health care provider immediately.
d. Transfer the client to the intensive care unit.
The presence of an S3 gallop is an early diastolic filling sound indicative of increasing left ventricular pressure and left ventricular failure. The other actions are not warranted.
5.	A nurse cares for a client with right-sided heart failure. The client asks, "Why do I need to weigh myself every day?" How should the nurse respond?
a. "Weight is the best indication that you are gaining or losing fluid."
b. "Daily weights will help us make sure that you're eating properly."
c. "The hospital requires that all inpatients be weighed daily."
d. "You need to lose weight to decrease the incidence of heart failure."
Daily weights are needed to document fluid retention or fluid loss. One liter of fluid equals 2.2 pounds.
6.	A nurse is teaching a client with heart failure who has been prescribed enalapril (Vasotec). Which statement should the nurse include in this client's teaching?
a. "Avoid using salt substitutes."
b. "Take your medication with food."
c. "Avoid using aspirin-containing products."
d. "Check your pulse daily."
Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors such as enalapril inhibit the excretion of potassium. Hyperkalemia can be a life-threatening side effect, and clients should be taught to limit potassium intake. Salt substitutes are composed of potassium chloride.
7.	After administering newly prescribed captopril (Capoten) to a client with heart failure, the nurse implements interventions to decrease complications. Which priority intervention should the nurse implement for this client?
a. Provide food to decrease nausea and aid in absorption.
b. Instruct the client to ask for assistance when rising from bed.
c. Collaborate with unlicensed assistive personnel to bathe the client.
d. Monitor potassium levels and check for symptoms of hypokalemia.
Administration of the first dose of angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors is often associated with hypotension, usually termed first-dose effect. The nurse should instruct the client to seek assistance before arising from bed to prevent injury from postural hypotension.
8.	A nurse assesses a client after administering isosorbide mononitrate (Imdur). The client reports a headache. Which action should the nurse take?
a. Initiate oxygen therapy.
b. Hold the next dose of Imdur.
c. Instruct the client to drink water.
d. Administer PRN acetaminophen.
The vasodilating effects of isosorbide mononitrate frequently cause clients to have headaches during the initial period of therapy. Clients should be told about this side effect and encouraged to take the medication with food. Some clients obtain relief with mild analgesics, such as acetaminophen.
9.	A nurse teaches a client who is prescribed digoxin (Lanoxin) therapy. Which statement should the nurse include in this client's teaching?
a. "Avoid taking aspirin or aspirin-containing products."
b. "Increase your intake of foods that are high in potassium."
c. "Hold this medication if your pulse rate is below 80 beats/min."
d. "Do not take this medication within 1 hour of taking an antacid."
Gastrointestinal absorption of digoxin is erratic. Many medications, especially antacids, interfere with its absorption. Clients are taught to hold their digoxin for bradycardia; a heart rate of 80 beats/min is too high for this cutoff.
10.	A nurse teaches a client who has a history of heart failure. Which statement should the nurse include in this client's discharge teaching?
a. "Avoid drinking more than 3 quarts of liquids each day."
b. "Eat six small meals daily instead of three larger meals."
c. "When you feel short of breath, take an additional diuretic."
d. "Weigh yourself daily while wearing the same amount of clothing."
Clients with heart failure are instructed to weigh themselves daily to detect worsening heart failure early, and thus avoid complications. Other signs of worsening heart failure include increasing dyspnea, exercise intolerance, cold symptoms, and nocturia.
11.	A nurse admits a client who is experiencing an exacerbation of heart failure. Which action should the nurse take first?
a. Assess the client's respiratory status.
b. Draw blood to assess the client's serum electrolytes.
c. Administer intravenous furosemide (Lasix).
d. Ask the client about current medications.
Assessment of respiratory and oxygenation status is the priority nursing intervention for the prevention of complications.
12.	A nurse assesses a client with mitral valve stenosis. What clinical manifestation should alert the nurse to the possibility that the client's stenosis has progressed?
a. Oxygen saturation of 92%
b. Dyspnea on exertion
c. Muted systolic murmur
d. Upper extremity weakness
Dyspnea on exertion develops as the mitral valvular orifice narrows and pressure in the lungs increases.
13.	A nurse cares for a client recovering from prosthetic valve replacement surgery. The client asks, "Why will I need to take anticoagulants for the rest of my life?" How should the nurse respond?
a. "The prosthetic valve places you at greater risk for a heart attack."
b. "Blood clots form more easily in artificial replacement valves."
c. "The vein taken from your leg reduces circulation in the leg."
d. "The surgery left a lot of small clots in your heart and lungs."
Synthetic valve prostheses and scar tissue provide surfaces on which platelets can aggregate easily and initiate the formation of blood clots.
14.	After teaching a client who is being discharged home after mitral valve replacement surgery, the nurse assesses the client's understanding. Which client statement indicates a need for additional teaching?
a. "I'll be able to carry heavy loads after 6 months of rest."
b. "I will have my teeth cleaned by my dentist in 2 weeks."
c. "I must avoid eating foods high in vitamin K, like spinach."
d. "I must use an electric razor instead of a straight razor to shave."
Clients who have defective or repaired valves are at high risk for endocarditis. The client who has had valve surgery should avoid dental procedures for 6 months because of the risk for endocarditis.
15.	A nurse cares for a client with infective endocarditis. Which infection control precautions should the nurse use?
a. Standard Precautions
b. Bleeding precautions
c. Reverse isolation
d. Contact isolation
The client with infective endocarditis does not pose any specific threat of transmitting the causative organism. Standard Precautions should be used.
16.	A nurse assesses a client with pericarditis. Which assessment finding should the nurse expect to find?
a. Heart rate that speeds up and slows down
b. Friction rub at the left lower sternal border
c. Presence of a regular gallop rhythm
d. Coarse crackles in bilateral lung bases
The client with pericarditis may present with a pericardial friction rub at the left lower sternal border. This sound is the result of friction from inflamed pericardial layers when they rub together.
17.	After teaching a client who is recovering from a heart transplant to change positions slowly, the client asks, "Why is this important?" How should the nurse respond?
a. "Rapid position changes can create shear and friction forces, which can tear out
your internal vascular sutures."
b. "Your new vascular connections are more sensitive to position changes, leading to
increased intravascular pressure and dizziness."
c. "Your new heart is not connected to the nervous system and is unable to respond to
decreases in blood pressure caused by position changes."
d. "While your heart is recovering, blood flow is diverted away from the brain,
increasing the risk for stroke when you stand up."
Because the new heart is denervated, the baroreceptor and other mechanisms that compensate for blood pressure drops caused by position changes do not function. This allows orthostatic hypotension to persist in the postoperative period.
18.	A nurse teaches a client recovering from a heart transplant who is prescribed cyclosporine (Sandimmune). Which statement should the nurse include in this client's discharge teaching?
a. "Use a soft-bristled toothbrush and avoid flossing."
b. "Avoid large crowds and people who are sick."
c. "Change positions slowly to avoid hypotension."
d. "Check your heart rate before taking the medication."
These agents cause immune suppression, leaving the client more vulnerable to infection.
19.	A nurse cares for a client with end-stage heart failure who is awaiting a transplant. The client appears depressed and states, "I know a transplant is my last chance, but I don't want to become a vegetable." How should the nurse respond?
a. "Would you like to speak with a priest or chaplain?"
b. "I will arrange for a psychiatrist to speak with you."
c. "Do you want to come off the transplant list?"
d. "Would you like information about advance directives?"
The client is verbalizing a real concern or fear about negative outcomes of the surgery. The best action is to allow the client to verbalize the concern and work toward a positive outcome without making the client feel as though he or she is crazy.
20.	A nurse assesses a client who has a history of heart failure. Which question should the nurse ask to assess the extent of the client's heart failure?
a. "Do you have trouble breathing or chest pain?"
b. "Are you able to walk upstairs without fatigue?"
c. "Do you awake with breathlessness during the night?"
d. "Do you have new-onset heaviness in your legs?"
Clients with a history of heart failure generally have negative findings, such as shortness of breath. The nurse needs to determine whether the client's activity is the same or worse, or whether the client identifies a decrease in activity level.
21.	A nurse cares for an older adult client with heart failure. The client states, "I don't know what to do. I don't want to be a burden to my daughter, but I can't do it alone. Maybe I should die." How should the nurse respond?
a. "Would you like to talk more about this?"
b. "You are lucky to have such a devoted daughter."
c. "It is normal to feel as though you are a burden."
d. "Would you like to meet with the chaplain?"
Depression can occur in clients with heart failure, especially older adults. Having the client talk about his or her feelings will help the nurse focus on the actual problem.
22.	A nurse teaches a client with heart failure about energy conservation. Which statement should the nurse include in this client's teaching?
a. "Walk until you become short of breath, and then walk back home."
b. "Gather everything you need for a chore before you begin."
c. "Pull rather than push or carry items heavier than 5 pounds."
d. "Take a walk after dinner every day to build up your strength."
A client who has heart failure should be taught to conserve energy. Gathering all supplies needed for a chore at one time decreases the amount of energy needed.
23.	A nurse is caring for a client with acute pericarditis who reports substernal precordial pain that radiates to the left side of the neck. Which nonpharmacologic comfort measure should the nurse implement?
a. Apply an ice pack to the client's chest.
b. Provide a neck rub, especially on the left side.
c. Allow the client to lie in bed with the lights down.
d. Sit the client up with a pillow to lean forward on.
Pain from acute pericarditis may worsen when the client lays supine. The nurse should position the client in a comfortable position, which usually is upright and leaning slightly forward.
24.	A nurse assesses a client who has mitral valve regurgitation. For which cardiac dysrhythmia should the nurse assess?
a. Preventricular contractions
b. Atrial fibrillation
c. Symptomatic bradycardia
d. Sinus tachycardia
Atrial fibrillation is a clinical manifestation of mitral valve regurgitation and stenosis.
25.	A nurse is assessing a client with left-sided heart failure. For which clinical manifestations should the nurse assess? (Select all that apply.)
a. Pulmonary crackles
b. Confusion, restlessness
c. Pulmonary hypertension
d. Dependent edema
e. Cough that worsens at night
Left-sided heart failure occurs with a decrease in contractility of the heart or an increase in afterload. Most of the signs will be noted in the respiratory system. Right-sided heart failure occurs with problems from the pulmonary vasculature onward including pulmonary hypertension. Signs will be noted before the right atrium or ventricle including dependent edema.
26.	 A nurse evaluates laboratory results for a client with heart failure. Which results should the nurse expect? (Select all that apply.)
a. Hematocrit: 32.8%
b. Serum sodium: 130 mEq/L
c. Serum potassium: 4.0 mEq/L
d. Serum creatinine: 1.0 mg/dL
A hematocrit of 32.8% is low (should be 42.6%), indicating a dilutional ratio of red blood cells to fluid. A serum sodium of 130 mEq/L is low because of hemodilution. Microalbuminuria and proteinuria are present, indicating a decrease in renal filtration. These are early warning signs of decreased compliance of the heart. The potassium level is on the high side of normal and the serum creatinine level is normal.
27.	 A nurse assesses clients on a cardiac unit. Which clients should the nurse identify as at greatest risk for the development of acute pericarditis? (Select all that apply.)
a. A 36-year-old woman with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
b. A 42-year-old man recovering from coronary artery bypass graft surgery
c. A 59-year-old woman recovering from a hysterectomy
d. An 80-year-old man with a bacterial infection of the respiratory tract
e. An 88-year-old woman with a stage III sacral ulcer
Acute pericarditis is most commonly associated acute exacerbations of systemic connective tissue disease, including SLE; with Dressler's syndrome, or inflammation of the cardiac sac after cardiac surgery or a myocardial infarction; and with infective organisms, including bacterial, viral, and fungal infections. Abdominal and reproductive surgeries and pressure ulcers do not increase clients' risk for acute pericarditis.
28.	After teaching a client with congestive heart failure (CHF), the nurse assesses the client's understanding. Which client statements indicate a correct understanding of the teaching related to nutritional intake? (Select all that apply.)
a. "I'll read the nutritional labels on food items for salt content."
b. "I will drink at least 3 liters of water each day."
c. "Using salt in moderation will reduce the workload of my heart."
d. "I will eat oatmeal for breakfast instead of ham and eggs."
e. "Substituting fresh vegetables for canned ones will lower my salt intake."
Nutritional therapy for a client with CHF is focused on decreasing sodium and water retention to decrease the workload of the heart. The client should be taught to read nutritional labels on all food items, omit table salt and foods high in sodium (e.g., ham and canned foods), and limit water intake to a normal 2 L/day.
29.	A nurse collaborates with an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) to provide care for a client with congestive heart failure. Which instructions should the nurse provide to the UAP when delegating care for this client? (Select all that apply.)
a. "Reposition the client every 2 hours."
b. "Teach the client to perform deep-breathing exercises."
c. "Accurately record intake and output."
d. "Use the same scale to weigh the client each morning."
e. "Place the client on oxygen if the client becomes short of breath."
The UAP should reposition the client every 2 hours to improve oxygenation and prevent atelectasis. The UAP can also accurately record intake and output, and use the same scale to weigh the client each morning before breakfast. UAPs are not qualified to teach clients or assess the need for and provide oxygen therapy.
30.	 A nurse prepares to discharge a client who has heart failure. Based on the Heart Failure Core Measure Set, which actions should the nurse complete prior to discharging this client? (Select all that apply.)
a. Teach the client about dietary restrictions.
b. Ensure the client is prescribed an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor.
c. Encourage the client to take a baby aspirin each day.
d. Confirm that an echocardiogram has been completed.
e. Consult a social worker for additional resources.
The Heart Failure Core Measure Set includes discharge instructions on diet, activity, medications, weight monitoring and plan for worsening symptoms, evaluation of left ventricular systolic function (usually with an echocardiogram), and prescribing an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Aspirin is not part of the Heart Failure Core Measure Set and is usually prescribed for clients who experience a myocardial infarction. Although the nurse may consult the social worker or case manager for additional resources, this is not part of the Core Measures.
31.	 A nurse prepares to discharge a client who has heart failure. Which questions should the nurse ask to ensure this client's safety prior to discharging home? (Select all that apply.)
a. "Are your bedroom and bathroom on the first floor?"
b. "What social support do you have at home?"
c. "Will you be able to afford your oxygen therapy?"
d. "What spiritual beliefs may impact your recovery?"
e. "Are you able to accurately weigh yourself at home?"
To ensure safety upon discharge, the nurse should assess for structural barriers to functional ability, such as stairs. The nurse should also assess the client's available social support, which may include family, friends, and home health services. The client's ability to adhere to medication and treatments, including daily weights, should also be reviewed. The other questions do not address the client's safety upon discharge.
32.	 A nurse assesses a client who is recovering from a heart transplant. Which assessment findings should alert the nurse to the possibility of heart transplant rejection? (Select all that apply.)
a. Shortness of breath
b. Abdominal bloating
c. New-onset bradycardia
d. Increased ejection fraction
Clinical manifestations of heart transplant rejection include shortness of breath, fatigue, fluid gain, abdominal bloating, new-onset bradycardia, hypotension, atrial fibrillation or flutter, decreased activity tolerance, and decreased ejection fraction.
33.	 A nurse assesses a client who is diagnosed with infective endocarditis. Which assessment findings should the nurse expect? (Select all that apply.)
a. Weight gain
b. Night sweats
c. Cardiac murmur
d. Abdominal bloating
e. Osler's nodes
Clinical manifestations of infective endocarditis include fever with chills, night sweats, malaise and fatigue, anorexia and weight loss, cardiac murmur, and Osler's nodes on palms of the hands and soles of the feet. Abdominal bloating is a manifestation of heart transplantation rejection.
Chapter 36: Care of Patients with Vascular Problems
1.	A student nurse is assessing the peripheral vascular system of an older adult. What action by the student would cause the faculty member to intervene?
a. Assessing blood pressure in both upper extremities
b. Auscultating the carotid arteries for any bruits
c. Classifying capillary refill of 4 seconds as normal
d. Palpating both carotid arteries at the same time
The student should not compress both carotid arteries at the same time to avoid brain ischemia.
2.	The nurse is reviewing the lipid panel of a male client who has atherosclerosis. Which finding is most concerning?
a. Cholesterol: 126 mg/dL
b. High-density lipoprotein cholesterol (HDL-C): 48 mg/dL
c. Low-density lipoprotein cholesterol (LDL-C): 122 mg/dL
d. Triglycerides: 198 mg/dL
Triglycerides in men should be below 160 mg/dL.
3.	The nurse is evaluating a 3-day diet history with a client who has an elevated lipid panel. What meal selection indicates the client is managing this condition well with diet?
a. A 4-ounce steak, French fries, iceberg lettuce
b. Baked chicken breast, broccoli, tomatoes
c. Fried catfish, cornbread, peas
d. Spaghetti with meat sauce, garlic bread
The diet recommended for this client would be low in saturated fats and red meat, high in vegetables and whole grains (fiber), low in salt, and low in trans fat. The best choice is the chicken with broccoli and tomatoes.
4.	A nurse is working with a client who takes atorvastatin (Lipitor). The client's recent laboratory results include a blood urea nitrogen (BUN) of 33 mg/dL and creatinine of 2.8 mg/dL. What action by the nurse is best?
a. Ask if the client eats grapefruit.
b. Assess the client for dehydration.
c. Facilitate admission to the hospital.
d. Obtain a random urinalysis.
There is a drug-food interaction between statins and grapefruit that can lead to acute kidney failure. This client has elevated renal laboratory results, indicating some degree of kidney involvement. The nurse should assess if the client eats grapefruit or drinks grapefruit juice.
5.	A client has been diagnosed with hypertension but does not take the antihypertensive medications because of a lack of symptoms. What response by the nurse is best?
a. "Do you have trouble affording your medications?"
b. "Most people with hypertension do not have symptoms."
c. "You are lucky; most people get severe morning headaches."
d. "You need to take your medicine or you will get kidney failure."
Most people with hypertension are asymptomatic, although a small percentage do have symptoms such as headache. The nurse should explain this to the client.
6.	A student nurse asks what "essential hypertension" is. What response by the registered nurse is best?
a. "It means it is caused by another disease."
b. "It means it is 'essential' that it be treated."
c. "It is hypertension with no specific cause."
d. "It refers to severe and life-threatening hypertension."
Essential hypertension is the most common type of hypertension and has no specific cause such as an underlying disease process.
7.	A nurse is interested in providing community education and screening on hypertension. In order to reach a priority population, to what target audience should the nurse provide this service?
a. African-American churches
b. Asian-American groceries
c. High school sports camps
d. Women's health clinics
African Americans in the United States have one of the highest rates of hypertension in the world. The nurse has the potential to reach this priority population by providing services at African-American churches.
8.	A client has hypertension and high risk factors for cardiovascular disease. The client is overwhelmed with the recommended lifestyle changes. What action by the nurse is best?
a. Assess the client's support system.
b. Assist in finding one change the client can control.
c. Determine what stressors the client faces in daily life.
d. Inquire about delegating some of the client's obligations
All options are appropriate when assessing stress and responses to stress. However, this client feels overwhelmed by the suggested lifestyle changes. Instead of looking at all the needed changes, the nurse should assist the client in choosing one the client feels optimistic about controlling.
9.	The nurse is caring for four hypertensive clients. Which drug-laboratory value combination should the nurse report immediately to the health care provider?
a. Furosemide (Lasix)/potassium: 2.1 mEq/L
b. Hydrochlorothiazide (Hydrodiuril)/potassium: 4.2 mEq/L
c. Spironolactone (Aldactone)/potassium: 5.1 mEq/L
d. Torsemide (Demadex)/sodium: 142 mEq/L
Lasix is a loop diuretic and can cause hypokalemia. A potassium level of 2.1 mEq/L is quite low and should be reported immediately.
10.	A nurse is assessing a client with peripheral artery disease (PAD). The client states walking five blocks is possible without pain. What question asked next by the nurse will give the best information?
a. "Could you walk further than that a few months ago?"
b. "Do you walk mostly uphill, downhill, or on flat surfaces?"
c. "Have you ever considered swimming instead of walking?"
d. "How much pain medication do you take each day?"
As PAD progresses, it takes less oxygen demand to cause pain. Needing to cut down on activity to be pain free indicates the client's disease is worsening.
11.	An older client with peripheral vascular disease (PVD) is explaining the daily foot care regimen to the family practice clinic nurse. What statement by the client may indicate a barrier to proper foot care?
a. "I nearly always wear comfy sweatpants and house shoes."
b. "I'm glad I get energy assistance so my house isn't so cold."
c. "My daughter makes sure I have plenty of lotion for my feet."
d. "My hands shake when I try to do things requiring coordination."
Clients with PVD need to pay special attention to their feet. Toenails need to be kept short and cut straight across. The client whose hands shake may cause injury when trimming toenails.
12.	A client is taking warfarin (Coumadin) and asks the nurse if taking St. John's wort is acceptable. What response by the nurse is best?
a. "No, it may interfere with the warfarin."
b. "There isn't any information about that."
c. "Why would you want to take that?"
d. "Yes, it is a good supplement for you."
Many foods and drugs interfere with warfarin, St. John's wort being one of them. The nurse should advise the client against taking it.
13.	A nurse is teaching a larger female client about alcohol intake and how it affects hypertension. The client asks if drinking two beers a night is an acceptable intake. What answer by the nurse is best?
a. "No, women should only have one beer a day as a general rule."
b. "No, you should not drink any alcohol with hypertension."
c. "Yes, since you are larger, you can have more alcohol."
d. "Yes, two beers per day is an acceptable amount of alcohol."
Alcohol intake should be limited to two drinks a day for men and one drink a day for women.
14.	A nurse is caring for four clients. Which one should the nurse see first?
a. Client who needs a beta blocker, and has a blood pressure of 92/58 mm Hg
b. Client who had a first dose of captopril (Capoten) and needs to use the bathroom
c. Hypertensive client with a blood pressure of 188/92 mm Hg
d. Client who needs pain medication prior to a dressing change of a surgical wound
Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors such as captopril can cause hypotension, especially after the first dose. The nurse should see this client first to prevent falling if the client decides to get up without assistance.
15.	A client had a percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty for peripheral arterial disease. What assessment finding by the nurse indicates a priority outcome for this client has been met?
a. Pain rated as 2/10 after medication
b. Distal pulse on affected extremity 2+/4+
c. Remains on bedrest as directed
d. Verbalizes understanding of procedure
Assessing circulation distal to the puncture site is a critical nursing action. A pulse of 2+/4+ indicates good perfusion.
16.	A client is 4 hours postoperative after a femoropopliteal bypass. The client reports throbbing leg pain on the affected side, rated as 7/10. What action by the nurse takes priority?
a. Administer pain medication as ordered.
b. Assess distal pulses and skin color.
c. Document the findings in the client's chart.
d. Notify the surgeon immediately.
Once perfusion has been restored or improved to an extremity, clients can often feel a throbbing pain due to the increased blood flow. However, it is important to differentiate this pain from ischemia. The nurse should assess for other signs of perfusion, such as distal pulses and skin color/temperature.
17.	A client had a femoropopliteal bypass graft with a synthetic graft. What action by the nurse is most important to prevent wound infection?
a. Appropriate hand hygiene before giving care
b. Assessing the client's temperature every 4 hours
c. Clean technique when changing dressings
d. Monitoring the client's daily white blood cell count
Hand hygiene is the best way to prevent infections in hospitalized clients.
18.	A client is receiving an infusion of alteplase (Activase) for an intra-arterial clot. The client begins to mumble and is disoriented. What action by the nurse takes priority?
a. Assess the client's neurologic status.
b. Notify the Rapid Response Team.
c. Prepare to administer vitamin K.
d. Turn down the infusion rate.
Clients on fibrinolytic therapy are at high risk of bleeding. The sudden onset of neurologic signs may indicate the client is having a hemorrhagic stroke. The nurse does need to complete a thorough neurological examination, but should first call the Rapid Response Team based on the client's manifestations.
19.	A nursing student is caring for a client with an abdominal aneurysm. What action by the student requires the registered nurse to intervene?
a. Assesses the client for back pain
b. Auscultates over abdominal bruit
c. Measures the abdominal girth
d. Palpates the abdomen in four quadrants
Abdominal aneurysms should never be palpated as this increases the risk of rupture. The registered nurse should intervene when the student attempts to do this.
20.	A nurse is caring for a client with a deep vein thrombosis (DVT). What nursing assessment indicates a priority outcome has been met?
a. Ambulates with assistance
b. Oxygen saturation of 98%
c. Pain of 2/10 after medication
d. Verbalizing risk factors
A critical complicatio