Test Bank For Maternity and Women's Health
Care 13th Edition All Chapters (1-37) A+
ULTIMATE GUIDE LATEST UPDATED
A client asks her nurse, "My doctor told me that he is concerned with the grade of my
placenta because I am overdue. What does that mean?" What is the nurse's best
response?
a. "Your placenta changes as your pregnancy progresses, and it is given a score that
indicates how well it is functioning."
b. "Your placenta isn't working properly, and your baby is in danger."
c. "We need to perform an amniocentesis to detect if you have any placental damage."
d. "Don't worry about it. Everything is fine." - a. "Your placenta changes as your
pregnancy progresses, and it is given a score that indicates how well it is
functioning."
The biochemical assessment MSAFP test is performed from week 15 to week 20 of
gestation (weeks 16 to 18 are ideal). A BPP is a method of biophysical assessment of
fetal well-being in the third trimester. Chorionic villi sampling is a biochemical
assessment of the fetus that should be performed from the 10th to 12th weeks of
gestation. Screening for diabetes mellitus begins with the first prenatal visit.
An MSAFP screening indicates an elevated level of alpha-fetoprotein. The test is
repeated, and again the level is reported as higher than normal. What is the next step in
the assessment sequence to determine the well-being of the fetus?
a. PUBS
b. Ultrasound for fetal anomalies
c. BPP for fetal well-being
d. Amniocentesis for genetic anomalies
- b. Ultrasound for fetal anomalies
If MSAFP findings are abnormal, then follow-up procedures include genetic counseling
for families with a history of NTD, repeated MSAFP screenings, an ultrasound
examination, and possibly amniocentesis. Indications for the use of PUBS include
prenatal diagnosis of inherited blood disorders, karyotyping of malformed fetuses,
,detection of fetal infection, determination of the acid-base status of fetuses with IUGR,
and assessment and treatment of isoimmunization and thrombocytopenia in the fetus. A
BPP is a method of assessing fetal well-being in the third trimester. Before an
amniocentesis, the client would have an ultrasound for direct visualization of the fetus.
A woman is undergoing a nipple-stimulated CST. She is having contractions that occur
every 3 minutes. The fetal heart rate (FHR) has a baseline heart rate of approximately
120 beats per minute without any decelerations. What is the correct interpretation of this
test?
a. Negative
b. Positive
c. Satisfactory
d. Unsatisfactory
- a. Negative
Adequate uterine activity necessary for a CST consists of three contractions in a
10minute time frame. If no decelerations are observed in the FHR pattern with the
contractions, then the findings are considered to be negative. A positive CST indicates
the presence of repetitive late FHR decelerations. The terms satisfactory or
unsatisfactory are not applicable.
Of these psychosocial factors, which has the least negative effect on the health of the
mother and/or fetus?
a. Moderate coffee consumption
b. Moderate alcohol consumption
c. Cigarette smoke
d. Emotional distress
- a. Moderate coffee consumption
Which information should nurses provide to expectant mothers when teaching them
how to evaluate daily fetal movement counts (DFMCs)?
a. Alcohol or cigarette smoke can irritate the fetus into greater activity.
b. Kick counts should be taken every hour and averaged every 6 hours, with every other
6-hour stretch off.
c. The fetal alarm signal should go off when fetal movements stop entirely for 12 hours.
d. A count of less than four fetal movements in 1 hour warrants future evaluation. - c.
The fetal alarm signal should go off when fetal movements stop entirely for 12 hours.
No movement in a 12-hour period is cause for investigation and possibly intervention.
Alcohol and cigarette smoke temporarily reduce fetal movement. The mother should
count fetal activity (kick counts) two or three times daily for 60 minutes each time. A
count of less than 3 in 1 hour warrants further evaluation by a NST.
, In comparing the abdominal and transvaginal methods of ultrasound examination, which
information should the nurse provide to the client? a. Both require the woman to have a
full bladder.
b. The abdominal examination is more useful in the first trimester.
c. Initially, the transvaginal examination can be painful.
d. The transvaginal examination allows pelvic anatomy to be evaluated in greater detail.
- d. The transvaginal examination allows pelvic anatomy to be evaluated in greater
detail.
Which clinical finding is a major use of ultrasonography in the first trimester? a.
Amniotic fluid volume
b. Presence of maternal abnormalities
c. Placental location and maturity
d. Cervical length
- b. Presence of maternal abnormalities
Which information is the highest priority for the nurse to comprehend regarding the
BPP?
a. BPP is an accurate indicator of impending fetal well-being.
b. BPP is a compilation of health risk factors of the mother during the later stages of
pregnancy.
c. BPP consists of a Doppler blood flow analysis and an amniotic fluid index (AFI).
d. BPP involves an invasive form of an ultrasonic examination. - a. BPP is an accurate
indicator of impending fetal well-being.
A woman arrives at the clinic seeking confirmation that she is pregnant. The following
information is obtained: She is 24 years old with a body mass index (BMI) of 17.5. She
admits to having used cocaine "several times" during the past year and occasionally
drinks alcohol. Her blood pressure is 108/70 mm Hg. The family history is positive for
diabetes mellitus and cancer. Her sister recently gave birth to an infant with a neural
tube defect (NTD). Which characteristics places this client in a high-risk category?
a. Blood pressure, age, BMI
b. Drug and alcohol use, age, family history
c. Family history, blood pressure (BP), BMI
d. Family history, BMI, drug and alcohol abuse - d. Family history, BMI, drug and
alcohol abuse
A 39-year-old primigravida woman believes that she is approximately 8 weeks pregnant,
although she has had irregular menstrual periods all her life. She has a history of
smoking approximately one pack of cigarettes a day; however, she tells the nurse that
Care 13th Edition All Chapters (1-37) A+
ULTIMATE GUIDE LATEST UPDATED
A client asks her nurse, "My doctor told me that he is concerned with the grade of my
placenta because I am overdue. What does that mean?" What is the nurse's best
response?
a. "Your placenta changes as your pregnancy progresses, and it is given a score that
indicates how well it is functioning."
b. "Your placenta isn't working properly, and your baby is in danger."
c. "We need to perform an amniocentesis to detect if you have any placental damage."
d. "Don't worry about it. Everything is fine." - a. "Your placenta changes as your
pregnancy progresses, and it is given a score that indicates how well it is
functioning."
The biochemical assessment MSAFP test is performed from week 15 to week 20 of
gestation (weeks 16 to 18 are ideal). A BPP is a method of biophysical assessment of
fetal well-being in the third trimester. Chorionic villi sampling is a biochemical
assessment of the fetus that should be performed from the 10th to 12th weeks of
gestation. Screening for diabetes mellitus begins with the first prenatal visit.
An MSAFP screening indicates an elevated level of alpha-fetoprotein. The test is
repeated, and again the level is reported as higher than normal. What is the next step in
the assessment sequence to determine the well-being of the fetus?
a. PUBS
b. Ultrasound for fetal anomalies
c. BPP for fetal well-being
d. Amniocentesis for genetic anomalies
- b. Ultrasound for fetal anomalies
If MSAFP findings are abnormal, then follow-up procedures include genetic counseling
for families with a history of NTD, repeated MSAFP screenings, an ultrasound
examination, and possibly amniocentesis. Indications for the use of PUBS include
prenatal diagnosis of inherited blood disorders, karyotyping of malformed fetuses,
,detection of fetal infection, determination of the acid-base status of fetuses with IUGR,
and assessment and treatment of isoimmunization and thrombocytopenia in the fetus. A
BPP is a method of assessing fetal well-being in the third trimester. Before an
amniocentesis, the client would have an ultrasound for direct visualization of the fetus.
A woman is undergoing a nipple-stimulated CST. She is having contractions that occur
every 3 minutes. The fetal heart rate (FHR) has a baseline heart rate of approximately
120 beats per minute without any decelerations. What is the correct interpretation of this
test?
a. Negative
b. Positive
c. Satisfactory
d. Unsatisfactory
- a. Negative
Adequate uterine activity necessary for a CST consists of three contractions in a
10minute time frame. If no decelerations are observed in the FHR pattern with the
contractions, then the findings are considered to be negative. A positive CST indicates
the presence of repetitive late FHR decelerations. The terms satisfactory or
unsatisfactory are not applicable.
Of these psychosocial factors, which has the least negative effect on the health of the
mother and/or fetus?
a. Moderate coffee consumption
b. Moderate alcohol consumption
c. Cigarette smoke
d. Emotional distress
- a. Moderate coffee consumption
Which information should nurses provide to expectant mothers when teaching them
how to evaluate daily fetal movement counts (DFMCs)?
a. Alcohol or cigarette smoke can irritate the fetus into greater activity.
b. Kick counts should be taken every hour and averaged every 6 hours, with every other
6-hour stretch off.
c. The fetal alarm signal should go off when fetal movements stop entirely for 12 hours.
d. A count of less than four fetal movements in 1 hour warrants future evaluation. - c.
The fetal alarm signal should go off when fetal movements stop entirely for 12 hours.
No movement in a 12-hour period is cause for investigation and possibly intervention.
Alcohol and cigarette smoke temporarily reduce fetal movement. The mother should
count fetal activity (kick counts) two or three times daily for 60 minutes each time. A
count of less than 3 in 1 hour warrants further evaluation by a NST.
, In comparing the abdominal and transvaginal methods of ultrasound examination, which
information should the nurse provide to the client? a. Both require the woman to have a
full bladder.
b. The abdominal examination is more useful in the first trimester.
c. Initially, the transvaginal examination can be painful.
d. The transvaginal examination allows pelvic anatomy to be evaluated in greater detail.
- d. The transvaginal examination allows pelvic anatomy to be evaluated in greater
detail.
Which clinical finding is a major use of ultrasonography in the first trimester? a.
Amniotic fluid volume
b. Presence of maternal abnormalities
c. Placental location and maturity
d. Cervical length
- b. Presence of maternal abnormalities
Which information is the highest priority for the nurse to comprehend regarding the
BPP?
a. BPP is an accurate indicator of impending fetal well-being.
b. BPP is a compilation of health risk factors of the mother during the later stages of
pregnancy.
c. BPP consists of a Doppler blood flow analysis and an amniotic fluid index (AFI).
d. BPP involves an invasive form of an ultrasonic examination. - a. BPP is an accurate
indicator of impending fetal well-being.
A woman arrives at the clinic seeking confirmation that she is pregnant. The following
information is obtained: She is 24 years old with a body mass index (BMI) of 17.5. She
admits to having used cocaine "several times" during the past year and occasionally
drinks alcohol. Her blood pressure is 108/70 mm Hg. The family history is positive for
diabetes mellitus and cancer. Her sister recently gave birth to an infant with a neural
tube defect (NTD). Which characteristics places this client in a high-risk category?
a. Blood pressure, age, BMI
b. Drug and alcohol use, age, family history
c. Family history, blood pressure (BP), BMI
d. Family history, BMI, drug and alcohol abuse - d. Family history, BMI, drug and
alcohol abuse
A 39-year-old primigravida woman believes that she is approximately 8 weeks pregnant,
although she has had irregular menstrual periods all her life. She has a history of
smoking approximately one pack of cigarettes a day; however, she tells the nurse that
