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Ultimate PHARMACOLOGY HESI NCLEX Exam 2025 Test Bank (NURS 330 ): 100 MCQs with Verified Answers & Expert Explanations

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Ace Your NCLEX Pharmacology Exam with Confidence! 100% VERIFIED | GRADED A+ | GUARANTEED PASS! Struggling with pharmacology concepts for the HESI NCLEX 2025? This comprehensive test bank is your ultimate weapon! Packed with 100 high-yield MCQs, each question comes with detailed explanations to ensure mastery of critical topics like: Beta-blockers, ACE inhibitors, Opioids, Anticoagulants Drug interactions, Side effects, Nursing priorities Lab monitoring, Contraindications, Patient education Why Choose This Document? 2025 Updated Content – Aligned with the latest NCLEX-RN® standards. Expert-Crafted Explanations – No more guesswork! Understand the why behind each answer. Perfect for NURS 330 & Similar Courses – Ideal for nursing students at any university. Quick Review & Last-Minute Prep – Target weak areas and boost your score!

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PHARMACOLOGY HESI NCLEX ACTUAL EXAM 2025 TEST
BANK: 100 MCQS & 100% VERIFIED ANSWERS / GRADED A+
/ GUARANTEED PASS!!



1. A client is prescribed atenolol for hypertension. Which instruction is most critical for
the nurse to provide?

A. "Take the medication at bedtime."

B. "Report increased bruising."

C. "Check your pulse before each dose."

D. "Rise slowly from sitting/lying positions."




Answer: D

Explanation: Atenolol (a beta-blocker) can cause orthostatic hypotension. Rising slowly
minimizes fall risk. While monitoring pulse (C) is important, it’s secondary to
preventing syncope (D).




2. A client on amoxicillin reports vaginal itching and white discharge. What should the
nurse advise?

A. Stop the antibiotic immediately.

B. Continue the full course.

C. Consult the provider for antifungal treatment.

D. Use OTC vaginal wash.




Answer: C

,Explanation: The symptoms suggest a yeast infection (common with antibiotics). The
provider may prescribe an antifungal (e.g., fluconazole) while continuing amoxicillin.




3. A client with asthma receives a beta-2 agonist (albuterol). Which response is
expected?

A. Tachycardia

B. Hypertension

C. Resolution of wheezing

D. Improved SpO₂




Answer: C

Explanation: Beta-2 agonists dilate bronchioles, relieving wheezing. Tachycardia (A) is a
side effect, not the primary goal.




4. A client’s potassium is 5.9 mEq/L while on losartan. What should the nurse do first?



A. Withhold the dose.

B. Check apical pulse.

C. Notify the provider.

D. Repeat the lab.




Answer: A

,Explanation: Losartan (ARB) can cause hyperkalemia. Holding the dose prevents life-
threatening arrhythmias.




5. Which medication is contraindicated in a sulfa-allergic client prescribed celecoxib?

A. Ibuprofen

B. Acetaminophen

C. Naproxen

D. Celecoxib




Answer: D

Explanation: Celecoxib contains a sulfonamide moiety. The nurse should notify the
provider (per the document).




6. A client on digoxin has a potassium level of 3.1 mEq/L. What is the priority action?

A. Administer digoxin.

B. Notify the provider.

C. Give potassium supplements.

D. Monitor urine output.

, Answer: B

Explanation: Hypokalemia increases digoxin toxicity risk (nausea, arrhythmias). The
provider may adjust doses or correct potassium.




7. Which medication is best for palliative spinal cord compression pain?

A. Morphine

B. Ibuprofen

C. Amitriptyline

D. Dexamethasone




Answer: D

Explanation: Dexamethasone reduces inflammation and edema around the spinal cord,
relieving pressure.




8. A client on opioids for cancer pain should be taught to prevent:**

A. Sedation

B. Constipation

C. Urinary retention

D. Respiratory depression

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