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Pharm master test bank,100% CORRECT

1. Nurse practitioner prescriptive authority is regulated by: A. The National Council of State Boards of Nursing B. The U.S. Drug Enforcement Administration C. The State Board of Nursing for each state D. The State Board of Pharmacy 2. Physician Assistant (PA) prescriptive authority is regulated by: A. The National Council of State Boards of Nursing B. The U.S. Drug Enforcement Administration C. The State Board of Nursing D. The State Board of Medical Examiners 3. Clinical judgment in prescribing includes: A. Factoring in the cost to the patient of the medication prescribed B. Always prescribing the newest medication available for the disease process C. Handing out drug samples to poor patients D. Prescribing all generic medications to cut costs 4. Criteria for choosing an effective drug for a disorder include: A. Asking the patient what drug they think would work best for them B. Consulting nationally recognized guidelines for disease management C. Prescribing medications that are available as samples before writing a prescription D. Following U.S. Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA) guidelines for prescribing 5. Nurse practitioner practice may thrive under health-care reform due to: A. The demonstrated ability of nurse practitioners to control costs and improve patient outcomes B. The fact that nurse practitioners will be able to practice independently C. The fact that nurse practitioners will have full reimbursement under health-care reform D. The ability to shift accountability for Medicaid to the state level Chapter 2.Pharmacokinetic Basis of Therapeutics and Pharmacodynamic MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. A patient’s nutritional intake and lab work reflects hypoalbuminemia. This is critical to prescribing because: A. Distribution of drugs to target tissue may be affected B. The solubility of the drug will not match the site of absorption C. There will be less free drug available to generate an effect D. Drugs bound to albumin are readily excreted by the kidney 2. Drugs that have a significant first-pass effect: A. Must be given by the enteral (oral) route only B. Bypass the hepatic circulation C. Are rapidly metabolized by the liver and may have little if any desired action D. Are converted by the liver to more active and fat-soluble forms 3. The route of excretion of a volatile drug will likely be: A. The kidneys B. The lungs C. The bile and feces D. The skin 4. Medroxyprogesterone (Depo Provera) is prescribed IM to create a storage reservoir of the drug. Storage reservoirs: A. Assure that the drug will reach its intended target tissue B. Are the reason for giving loading doses C. Increase the length of time a drug is available and active D. Are most common in collagen tissues 5. The NP chooses to give cephalexin every 8 hours based on knowledge of the drug’s: A. Propensity to go to the target receptor B. Biological half-life C. Pharmacodynamics D. Safety and side effects 6. Azithromycin dosing requires the first day’s dose be twice those of the other 4 days of the prescription. This is considered a loading dose. A loading dose: A. Rapidly achieves drug levels in the therapeutic range B. Requires four to five half-lives to attain C. Is influenced by renal function D. Is directly related to the drug circulating to the target tissues 7. The point in time on the drug concentration curve that indicates the first sign of a therapeutic effect is the: A. Minimum adverse effect level B. Peak of action C. Onset of action D. Therapeutic range 8. Phenytoin requires a trough level be drawn. Peak and trough levels are done: A. When the drug has a wide therapeutic range B. When the drug will be administered for a short time only C. When there is a high correlation between the dose and saturation of receptor sites D. To determine if a drug is in the therapeutic range 9. A laboratory result indicates the peak level for a drug is above the minimum toxic concentration. This means that the: A. Concentration will produce therapeutic effects B. Concentration will produce an adverse response C. Time between doses must be shortened D. Duration of action of the drug is too long 10. Drugs that are receptor agonists may demonstrate what property? A. Irreversible binding to the drug receptor site B. Up-regulation with chronic use C. Desensitization or down-regulation with continuous use D. Inverse relationship between drug concentration and drug action 11. Drugs that are receptor antagonists, such as beta blockers, may cause: A. Down-regulation of the drug receptor B. An exaggerated response if abruptly discontinued C. Partial blockade of the effects of agonist drugs D. An exaggerated response to competitive drug agonists 12. Factors that affect gastric drug absorption include: A. Liver enzyme activity B. Protein-binding properties of the drug molecule C. Lipid solubility of the drug D. Ability to chew and swallow 13. Drugs administered via intravenous (IV) route: A. Need to be lipid soluble in order to be easily absorbed B. Begin distribution into the body immediately C. Are easily absorbed if they are nonionized D. May use pinocytosis to be absorbed 14. When a medication is added to a regimen for a synergistic effect, the combined effect of the drugs is: A. The sum of the effects of each drug individually B. Greater than the sum of the effects of each drug individually C. Less than the effect of each drug individually D. Not predictable, as it varies with each individual 15. Which of the following statements about bioavailability is true? A. Bioavailability issues are especially important for drugs with narrow therapeutic ranges or sustained release mechanisms. B. All brands of a drug have the same bioavailability. C. Drugs that are administered more than once a day have greater bioavailability than drugs given once daily. D. Combining an active drug with an inert substance does not affect bioavailability. 16. Which of the following statements about the major distribution barriers (blood-brain or fetal- placental) is true? A. Water soluble and ionized drugs cross these barriers rapidly. B. The blood-brain barrier slows the entry of many drugs into and from brain cells. C. The fetal-placental barrier protects the fetus from drugs taken by the mother. D. Lipid soluble drugs do not pass these barriers and are safe for pregnant women. 17. Drugs are metabolized mainly by the liver via Phase I or Phase II reactions. The purpose of both of these types of reactions is to: A. Inactivate prodrugs before they can be activated by target tissues B. Change the drugs so they can cross plasma membranes C. Change drug molecules to a form that an excretory organ can excrete D. Make these drugs more ionized and polar to facilitate excretion 18. Once they have been metabolized by the liver, the metabolites may be: A. More active than the parent drug B. Less active than the parent drug C. Totally “deactivated” so that they are excreted without any effect D. All of the above 19. All drugs continue to act in the body until they are changed or excreted. The ability of the body to excrete drugs via the renal system would be increased by: A. Reduced circulation and perfusion of the kidney B. Chronic renal disease C. Competition for a transport site by another drug D. Unbinding a nonvolatile drug from plasma proteins 20. Steady state is: A. The point on the drug concentration curve when absorption exceeds excretion B. When the amount of drug in the body remains constant C. When the amount of drug in the body stays below the MTC D. All of the above 21. Two different pain meds are given together for pain relief. The drug-drug interaction is: A. Synergistic B. Antagonistic C. Potentiative D. Additive 22. Actions taken to reduce drug-drug interaction problems include all of the following EXCEPT: A. Reducing the dose of one of the drugs B. Scheduling their administration at different times C. Prescribing a third drug to counteract the adverse reaction of the combination D. Reducing the dosage of both drugs 23. Phase I oxidative-reductive processes of drug metabolism require certain nutritional elements. Which of the following would reduce or inhibit this process? A. Protein malnutrition B. Iron deficiency anemia C. Both A and B D. Neither A nor B 24. The time required for the amount of drug in the body to decrease by 50% is called: A. Steady state B. Half-life C. Phase II metabolism D. Reduced bioavailability time 25. An agonist activates a receptor and stimulates a response. When given frequently over time the body may: A. Up-regulate the total number of receptors B. Block the receptor with a partial agonist C. Alter the drug’s metabolism D. Down-regulate the numbers of that specific receptor 26. Drug antagonism is best defined as an effect of a drug that: A. Leads to major physiologic psychological dependence B. Is modified by the concurrent administration of another drug C. Cannot be metabolized before another dose is administered D. Leads to a decreased physiologic response when combined with another drug 27. Instructions to a client regarding self-administration of oral enteric-coated tablets should include which of the following statements? A. “Avoid any other oral medicines while taking this drug.” B. “If swallowing this tablet is difficult, dissolve it in 3 ounces of orange juice.” C. “The tablet may be crushed if you have any difficultly taking it.” D. “To achieve best effect, take the tablet with at least 8 ounces of fluid.” 28. The major reason for not crushing a sustained release capsule is that, if crushed, the coated beads of the drugs could possibly result in: A. Disintegration B. Toxicity C. Malabsorption D. Deterioration 29. Which of the following substances is the most likely to be absorbed in the intestines rather than in the stomach? A. Sodium bicarbonate B. Ascorbic acid C. Salicylic acid D. Glucose 30. Which of the following variables is a factor in drug absorption? A. The smaller the surface area for absorption, the more rapidly the drug is absorbed. B. A rich blood supply to the area of absorption leads to better absorption. C. The less soluble the drug, the more easily it is absorbed. D. Ionized drugs are easily absorbed across the cell membrane. 31. An advantage of prescribing a sublingual medication is that the medication is: A. Absorbed rapidly B. Excreted rapidly C. Metabolized minimally D. Distributed equally 32. Drugs that use CYP 3A4 isoenzymes for metabolism may: A. Induce the metabolism of another drug B. Inhibit the metabolism of another drug C. Both A and B D. Neither A nor B 33. Therapeutic drug levels are drawn when a drug reaches steady state. Drugs reach steady state: A. After the second dose B. After four to five half-lives C. When the patient feels the full effect of the drug D. One hour after IV administration 34. Up-regulation or hypersensitization may lead to: A. Increased response to a drug B. Decreased response to a drug C. An exaggerated response if the drug is withdrawn D. Refractoriness or complete lack of response Chapter 3. Impact of Drug Interactions and Adverse Events on Therapeutics MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which of the following patients would be at higher risk of experiencing adverse drug reactions (ADRs): A. A 32-year-old male B. A 22-year-old female C. A 3-month-old female D. A 48-year-old male 2. Infants and young children are at higher risk of ADRs due to: A. Immature renal function in school-age children B. Lack of safety and efficacy studies in the pediatric population C. Children’s skin being thicker than adults, requiring higher dosages of topical medication D. Infant boys having a higher proportion of muscle mass, leading to a higher volume of distribution 3. The elderly are at high risk of ADRs due to: A. Having greater muscle mass than younger adults, leading to higher volume of distribution B. The extensive studies that have been conducted on drug safety in this age group C. The blood-brain barrier being less permeable, requiring higher doses to achieve therapeutic effect D. Age-related decrease in renal function 4. The type of adverse drug reaction that is the result of an unwanted but otherwise normal pharmacological action of a drug given in the usual therapeutic doses is A. Type A B. Type B C. Type C D. Type D 5. Digoxin may cause a Type A adverse drug reaction due to: A. Idiosyncratic effects B. Its narrow therapeutic index C. Being a teratogen D. Being a carcinogen 6. Changes in the individual pharmacokinetic parameters of adsorption, distribution, or elimination may result in high concentrations of the drug in the body, leading to which type of adverse drug reaction? A. Type A B. Type C C. Type D D. Type E 7. According to the World Health Organization Classification, Type B adverse reactions are: A. When a drug is a teratogen B. When a drug is carcinogenic C. A delayed ADR, such as renal failure D. An allergic or idiosyncratic response 8. Sarah developed a rash after using a topical medication. This is a Type allergic drug reaction. A. I B. II C. III D. IV 9. A patient may develop neutropenia from using topical Silvadene for burns. Neutropenia is a(n): A. Cytotoxic hypersensitivity reaction B. Immune complex hypersensitivity C. Immediate hypersensitivity reaction D. Delayed hypersensitivity reaction 10. Anaphylactic shock is a: A. Type I reaction, called immediate hypersensitivity reaction B. Type II reaction, called cytotoxic hypersensitivity reaction C. Type III allergic reaction, called immune complex hypersensitivity D. Type IV allergic reaction, called delayed hypersensitivity reaction 11. James has hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal axis suppression from chronic prednisone (a corticosteroid) use. He is at risk for what type of adverse drug reaction? A. Type B B. Type C C. Type E D. Type F 12. The treatment for a patient who experiences hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal axis suppression while taking the corticosteroid prednisone, a Type C adverse drug reaction, is to: A. Immediately discontinue the prednisone B. Administer epinephrine C. Slowly taper the patient off of the prednisone D. Monitor for long-term effects, such as cancer 13. The ACE inhibitor lisinopril is a known teratogen. Teratogens cause Type _ adverse drug reaction. A. A B. B C. C D. D 14. Cardiac defects are a known Type D adverse drug reaction to lithium. Lithium causes a Type D adverse drug reaction because it is: A. An immunosuppressant B. A carcinogen C. A teratogen D. An antiseizure medication 15. Immunomodulators such as azathioprine may cause a delayed adverse drug reaction known as a Type D reaction because they are known: A. Teratogens B. Carcinogens C. To cause hypersensitivity reactions D. Hypothalamus-pituitary-adrenal (HPA) axis suppressants 16. A 24-year-old male received multiple fractures in a motor vehicle accident that required significant amounts of opioid medication to treat his pain. He is at risk for Type adverse drug reaction when he no longer requires the opioids. A. A B. C C. E D. G 17. Drugs that may cause a Type E adverse drug reaction include: A. Beta blockers B. Immunomodulators C. Antibiotics D. Oral contraceptives 18. Unexpected failure of drug therapy is a Type adverse drug reaction, commonly caused by . A. B; cytotoxic hypersensitivity B. B; idiosyncratic response C. C; cumulative effects of drug D. F; drug-drug interaction 19. Clopidogrel treatment failure may occur when it is co-administered with omeprazole, known as a Type adverse drug reaction. A. A B. C C. E D. F Chapter 4. Principles of Pharmacotherapy in Children MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The Pediatric Research Equity Acts requires: A. All children be provided equal access to drug research trials B. Children to be included in the planning phase of new drug development C. That pediatric drug trials guarantee children of multiple ethnic groups are included D. All applications for new active ingredients, new indications, new dosage forms, or new routes of administration require pediatric studies 2. The Best Pharmaceuticals for Children Act: A. Includes a pediatric exclusivity rule which extends the patent on drugs studied in children B. Establishes a committee that writes guidelines for pediatric prescribing C. Provides funding for new drug development aimed at children D. Encourages manufacturers specifically to develop pediatric formulations 3. The developmental variation in Phase I enzymes has what impact on pediatric prescribing? A. None, Phase I enzymes are stable throughout childhood. B. Children should always be prescribed lower than adult doses per weight due to low enzyme activity until puberty. C. Children should always be prescribed higher than adult doses per weight due to high enzyme activity. D. Prescribing dosages will vary based on the developmental activity of each enzyme, at times requiring lower than adult doses and other times higher than adult doses based on the age of the child. 4. Developmental variation in renal function has what impact on prescribing for infants and children? A. Lower doses of renally excreted drugs may be prescribed to infants younger than age 6 months. B. Higher doses of water soluble drugs may need to be prescribed due to increased renal excretion. C. Renal excretion rates have no impact on prescribing. D. Parents need to be instructed on whether drugs are renally excreted or not. 5. Topical corticosteroids are prescribed cautiously in young children due to: A. They may cause an intense hypersensitivity reaction B. Hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal (HPA) axis suppression C. Corticosteroids are less effective in young children D. Young children may accumulate corticosteroids leading to toxic levels 6. Liza is breastfeeding her 2-month-old son and has an infection that requires an antibiotic. What drug factors influence the effect of the drug on the infant? A. Maternal drug levels B. Half-life C. Lipid-solubility D. All of the above 7. Drugs that are absolutely contraindicated in lactating women include: A. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors B. Antiepileptic drugs such as carbamazepine C. Antineoplastic drugs such as methotrexate D. All of the above 8. Zia is a 4 month old with otitis media. Education of his parents regarding administering oral antibiotics to an infant includes: A. How to administer an oral drug using a medication syringe B. Mixing the medication with a couple ounces of formula and putting it in a bottle C. Discontinuing the antibiotic if diarrhea occurs D. Calling for an antibiotic change if the infant chokes and sputters during administration 9. To increase adherence in pediatric patients a prescription medication should: A. Have a short half-life B. Be the best tasting of the effective drugs C. Be the least concentrated form of the medication D. Be administered 3 or 4 times a day ANS: B PTS: 1 10. Janie is a 5-month-old breastfed infant with a fever. Treatment for her fever may include: A. “Baby” aspirin B. Acetaminophen suppository C. Ibuprofen suppository D. Alternating acetaminophen and ibuprofen Chapter 5. Principles of Pharmacotherapy in Pregnancy and Lactation MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The client has been prescribed Doxylamine (Unisom) for treatment of nausea and vomiting during pregnancy. What aspect of the client’s history will cause the nurse to contact the primary health care provider? a. Arthritis b. Depression c. Asthma d. Hyperglycemia 2. The nurse is teaching a group of pregnant women the importance of adequate nutrition for the fetus. The nurse instructs the clients that folic acid deficiency during preconception and early in pregnancy can result in: a. skeletal defects. b. neural tube defects. c. intrauterine growth retardation. d. small-for-gestational-age infants. 3. A client is ordered to receive iron and antacids. The nurse teaches the client that iron and antacids should be administered: a. at the same time. b. 2 hours apart. c. with the antacid first. d. with the iron first. 4. A client, 10 weeks pregnant, complains of severe nausea of pregnancy. Meclizine (Bonine) is prescribed. The client reports to the nurse that she has begun to experience dizziness. What is the highest priority nursing intervention? a. Contact the pharmacist; this indicates an overdosage of the medication. b. Contact the physician; this is an expected side effect of the medication. c. Contact the pharmacist; this indicates incorrect preparation of the medication. d. Contact the physician; this is an adverse reaction to the medication. 5. A client complains of severe pregnancy-related nausea and is placed on Meclizine (Bonine). The nurse notes in the client history that the client is undergoing treatment for glaucoma. What is the highest priority nursing intervention? a. Recognize that one of the off-label uses for the drug is treatment of glaucoma. b. Contact the pharmacist; the dosage of the drug should be decreased when glaucoma is present. c. Recognize that use of the drug when glaucoma is present may result in a fatal reaction. d. Contact the physician; the drug should be used with caution when glaucoma is present. 6. Betamethasone (Celestone) is ordered for a client in preterm labor. The client asks the nurse what the medication will do to help her. The nurse explains to the client that the medication will: a. help her to breathe more effectively during the labor process. b. prevent her infant from developing respiratory distress syndrome. c. help her infant to breathe more effectively during the labor process. d. prevent her from developing congestive heart failure during labor. 7. A client is admitted to the labor and delivery unit and is being treated with terbutaline (Brethine). The nurse plans the client’s care with the knowledge that this medication is used to: a. induce labor. b. decrease uterine contractions. c. stimulate fetal heart rate. d. enhance placental blood flow. 8. The client is being treated with hydralazine hydrochloride (Apresoline). What would be a positive outcome for the client as a result of treatment with this medication? a. Diastolic BP is maintained between 90 and 110 mm Hg. b. Diastolic BP is maintained between 70 and 90 mm Hg. c. Systolic BP is maintained between 100 and 120 mm Hg. d. Systolic BP is maintained between 90 and 110 mm Hg. 9. A client diagnosed with pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH) is treated with magnesium sulfate. The nurse tells the client that the purpose of this treatment is to: a. prolong labor. b. prevent seizures. c. increase blood pressure. d. stimulate urination. 10. A prenatal client discloses that she takes high doses of vitamins. Which is the most accurate instruction that the nurse can provide in response to the client’s statement? a. “High levels of vitamins may cause harm to the fetus.” b. “Only water-soluble vitamins may be harmful during pregnancy.” c. “Megadoses of vitamins are associated with positive birth outcomes.” d. “Vitamin supplementation is not needed during pregnancy.” 11. A pregnant woman experiences constipation. The nurse anticipates that which laxative may be used first after activity and dietary methods are unsuccessful? a. Mineral oil b. Psyllium (Metamucil) c. Lactulose d. Milk of magnesia 12. The client is scheduled for treatment with betamethasone (Celestone). The nurse anticipates that this medication will be administered via the _ route. a. oral b. intravenous c. intramuscular d. subcutaneous 13. The client is scheduled for treatment with betamethasone (Celestone). The nurse anticipates that the medication will be administered to the client during which week or before of her pregnancy. a. 38 b. 36 c. 35 d. 33 14. The healthcare provider orders hydroxyzine (Vistaril) for a client in labor. To achieve a positive outcome, the nurse plans to administer the drug via which route? a. Intradermally b. Intravenously c. Intramuscularly via Z-track technique d. Subcutaneously via Z-track technique 15. An epidural block is ordered for a primipara client in labor. The nurse anticipates that this epidural block will be given when the cervix is dilated at centimeters. a. 2 to 3 b. 3 to 4 c. 4 to 5 d. 5 to 6 16. A client is being treated with an ergot alkaloid medication. Which observation would cause the nurse to contact the primary healthcare provider? a. Hypertension b. Itching c. Jugular vein distention d. Seizure activity 17. The client is scheduled for an epidural anesthetic as she delivers. What will be the highest priority nursing intervention? a. Administer 1 L of an isotonic IV solution and encourage use of a bedpan after spinal anesthesia. b. Administer 500 mL of a hypotonic IV solution and assess the level of consciousness because the patient is sedated. c. Administer 500 mL of a hypertonic IV solution and assess fetal heart rate and progress of labor as per pregnancy protocol. d. Administer 1 L of hypotonic IV solution and allow the client to ambulate during the spinal anesthesia. 18. The best candidate for treatment with dinoprostone (Cervidil) is the woman who needs her: a. labor stopped. b. cervix ripened. c. labor stimulated. d. labor prolonged. 19. Which will most likely be part of the nursing care of a woman postcaesarean section with spinal anesthesia? a. Early ambulation to avoid constipation b. Fluid restrictions to decrease blood volume c. Lying flat 6 to 8 hours to avoid spinal headache d. IV antibiotics to avoid postpartum infection 20. The client is scheduled to be treated with Oxytocin by nasal spray. The nurse plans to administer the drug: a. 2 to 3 minutes after the client nurses her baby. b. 2 to 3 minutes before the client nurses her baby. c. after delivery of the placenta. d. as delivery of the placenta is imminent. MULTIPLE RESPONSE 1. A young women in labor, G1P0, is diagnosed with pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH). She is ordered to receive magnesium sulfate. What are the other components of her nursing care? (Select all that apply.) a. Maintaining a quiet environment b. Assessing vital signs and fetal heart tones frequently c. Providing large amounts of PO and IV fluids to maintain fluid volume d. Allowing the woman to ambulate ad lib e. Assessing for clonus and deep tendon reflexes f. Monitoring urine hourly for protein Chapter 6. Principles of Pharmacotherapy in Elderly Patients MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Principles of prescribing for older adults include: A. Avoiding prescribing any newer high-cost medications B. Starting at a low dose and increasing the dose slowly C. Keeping total dose at lower therapeutic range D. All of the above 2. Sadie is a 90-year-old patient who requires a new prescription. What changes in drug distribution with aging would influence prescribing for Sadie? A. Increased volume of distribution B. Decreased lipid solubility C. Decreased plasma proteins D. Increased muscle to fat ratio 3. Glen is an 82 year old who needs to be prescribed a new drug. What changes in elimination should be taken into consideration when prescribing for Glen? A. Increased GFR will require higher doses of some renally excreted drugs B. Decreased tubular secretion of medication will require dosage adjustments C. Thin skin will cause increased elimination via sweat D. Decreased lung capacity will lead to measurable decreases in lung excretion of drugs 4. A medication review of an elderly person’s medications involves: A. Asking the patient to bring a list of current prescription medications to the visit B. Having the patient bring all of their prescription, over-the-counter, and herbal medication to the visit C. Asking what other providers are writing prescriptions for them D. All of the above 5. Steps to avoid polypharmacy include: A. Prescribing two or fewer drugs from each drug class B. Reviewing a complete drug history every 12 to 18 months C. Encouraging the elderly patient to coordinate their care with all of their providers D. Evaluating for duplications in drug therapy and discontinuing any duplications 6. Robert is a 72 year old who has hypertension and angina. He is at risk for common medication practices seen in the elderly including: A. Use of another person’s medications B. Hoarding medications C. Changing his medication regimen without telling his provider D. All of the above 7. To improve positive outcomes when prescribing for the elderly the nurse practitioner should: A. Assess cognitive functioning in the elder B. Encourage the patient to take a weekly “drug holiday” to keep drug costs down C. Encourage the patient to cut drugs in half with a knife to lower costs D. All of the above 8. When an elderly diabetic patient is constipated the best treatment options include: A. Mineral oil B. Bulk-forming laxatives such as psyllium C. Stimulant laxatives such as senna D. Stool softeners such as docusate 9. Delta is an 88 year old who has mild low back pain. What guidelines should be followed when prescribing pain management for Delta? A. Keep the dose of oxycodone low to prevent development of tolerance B. Acetaminophen is the first-line drug of choice C. Avoid prescribing NSAIDs D. Add in a short-acting benzodiazepine for a synergistic effect on pain 10. Robert is complaining of poor sleep. Medications that may contribute to sleep problems in the elderly include: A. Diuretics B. Trazodone C. Clonazepam D. Levodopa Chapter 7 Principles of Pharmacotherapy in Pain Management MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Different areas of the brain are involved in specific aspects of pain. The reticular and limbic systems in the brain influence: A. The sensory aspects of pain B. The discriminative aspects of pain C. The motivational aspects of pain D. The cognitive aspects of pain 2. Patients need to be questioned about all pain sites because: A. Patients tend to report the most severe or important in their perception B. Pain tolerance generally decreases with repeated exposure C. The reported pain site is usually the most important to treat D. Pain may be referred from a different site to the one reported 3. The chemicals that promote the spread of pain locally include: A. Serotonin B. Norepinephrine C. Enkephalin D. Neurokinin A 4. Narcotics are exogenous opiates. They act by: A. Inhibiting pain transmission in the spinal cord B. Attaching to receptors in the afferent neuron to inhibit the release of substance P C. Blocking neurotransmitters in the midbrain D. Increasing beta-lipoprotein excretion from the pituitary 5. Age is a factor in different responses to pain. Which of the following age-related statements about pain is NOT true? A. Preterm and newborn infants do not yet have functional pain pathways. B. Painful experiences and prolonged exposure to analgesic drugs during pregnancy may permanently alter neuronal organization in the child. C. Increases in pain threshold in older adults may be related to peripheral neuropathies and changes in skin thickness D. Decreases in pain tolerance are evident in older adults 6. Which of the following statements is true about acute pain? A. Somatic pain comes from body surfaces and is only sharp and well-localized. B. Visceral pain comes from the internal organs and is most responsive to acetaminophen and opiates. C. Referred pain is present in a distant site for the pain source and is based on activation of the same spinal segment as the actual pain site. D. Acute neuropathic pain is caused by lack of blood supply to the nerves in a given area. 7. One of the main drug classes used to treat acute pain is NSAIDs. They are used because: A. They have less risk for liver damage than acetaminophen B. Inflammation is a common cause of acute pain C. They have minimal GI irritation D. Regulation of blood flow to the kidney is not affected by these drugs 8. Opiates are used mainly to treat moderate to severe pain. Which of the following is NOT true about these drugs? A. All opiates are scheduled drugs which require a DEA license to prescribe. B. Opiates stimulate only mu receptors for the control of pain. C. Most of the adverse effects of opiates are related to mu receptor stimulation. D. Naloxone is an antagonist to opiates. 9. If interventions to resolve the cause of pain (RICE) are insufficient, pain medications are given based on the severity of pain. Drugs are given in which order of use? A. NSAIDs, opiates, corticosteroids B. Low-dose opiates, salicylates, increased dose of opiates C. Opiates, non-opiates, increased dose of non-opiate D. Non-opiate, increased dose of non-opiate, opiate 10. The goal of treatment of acute pain is: A. Pain at a tolerable level where patient may return to activities of daily living B. Reduction of pain with a minimum of drug adverse effects C. Reduction or elimination of pain with minimum adverse reactions D. Adequate pain relief without constipation or nausea from the drugs 11. Which of the following statements is true about age and pain? A. Use of drugs that depend heavily on the renal system for excretion may require dosage adjustments in very young children. B. Among the NSAIDs, indomethacin is the preferred drug because of lower adverse effects profiles than other NSAIDs. C. Older adults who have dementia probably do not experience much pain due to loss of pain receptors in the brain. D. Acetaminophen is especially useful in both children and adults because it has no effect on platelets and has fewer adverse effects than NSAIDs. 12. Pain assessment to determine adequacy of pain management is important for all patients. This assessment is done to: A. Determine if the diagnosis of source of pain is correct B. Determine if the current regimen is adequate or different combinations of drugs and non-drug therapy are required C. Determine if the patient is willing and able to be an active participant in his or her pain management D. All of the above 13. Pathological similarities and differences between acute pain and chronic pain include: A. Both have decreased levels of endorphins B. Chronic pain has a predominance of C-neuron stimulation C. Acute pain is most commonly associated with irritation of peripheral nerves D. Acute pain is diffuse and hard to localize 14. A treatment plan for management of chronic pain should include: A. Negotiation with the patient to set personal goals for pain management B. Discussion of ways to improve sleep and stress C. An exercise program to improve function and fitness D. All of the above 15. Chronic pain is a complex problem. Some specific strategies to deal with it include: A. Telling the patient to “let pain be your guide” to using treatment therapies B. Prescribing pain medication on a “PRN” basis to keep down the amount used C. Scheduling return visits on a regular basis rather than waiting for poor pain control to drive the need for an appointment D. All of the above 16. Chemical dependency assessment is integral to the initial assessment of chronic pain. Which of the following raises a “red flag” about potential chemical dependency? A. Use of more than one drug to treat the pain B. Multiple times when prescriptions are lost with requests to refill C. Preferences for treatments that include alternative medicines D. Presence of a family member who has abused drugs 17. The Pain Management Contract is appropriate for: A. Patients with a history of chemical dependency or possible inappropriate use of pain medications B. All patients with chronic pain who will require long-term use of opiates C. Patients who have a complex drug regimen D. Patients who see multiple providers for pain control Chapter 8. Principles of Antimicrobial Therapy MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. A nurse is ordered to draw blood levels for a person receiving an antibiotic. The nurse is aware that peaks and troughs of serum antibiotic levels are monitored for drugs with a: a. narrow therapeutic index. b. large therapeutic index. c. long half-life. d. short half-life. 2. A client’s medication warrants peak and trough levels to be drawn. The nurse is aware that if the peak level of the drug is too high, what could occur? a. Mild side effects b. Inadequate drug action c. Slow onset of drug action d. Drug toxicity 3. Drug concentration is important for the eradication of bacterial infection. It is desired to keep the drug dose: a. below minimum effective concentration. b. above minimum effective concentration. c. below minimum toxic level. d. above minimum toxic level. 4. With continuous use of antibiotics, antibiotic resistance result because: a. bacteria are producing fewer mutations. b. the immune system has enhanced ability to fight infection. c. mutant bacteria are surviving antibiotic use. d. fewer new antibiotics have been produced. 5. A client with otitis media is ordered to receive amoxicillin (Amoxil). The client discloses to the nurse that she is allergic to penicillin. What is the highest priority action on the part of the nurse? a. Notify the healthcare provider that the client is allergic to penicillin. b. Encourage the client to take the dose under close monitoring. c. Administer half of the amoxicillin dose under supervision. d. Report the amoxicillin order to the supervisor. 6. A client has relayed instructions from a physician regarding an allergy to a type of antibiotic therapy. The nurse would question which instruction? a. Wear a Medic Alert bracelet that indicates the allergy. b. Avoid all penicillin-type drugs. c. Inform all healthcare providers of the allergy. d. Restrict fluids when taking the antibiotic. 7. When antibacterials are prescribed for the treatment of an infection and a culture is ordered, what should happen next? a. The initial dose of the antibiotic should be given before the culture is taken. b. The culture should be taken before the initial dose of the antibiotic is given. c. The culture should be taken any time after the antibiotic therapy begins. d. The culture may be taken at any time before or during antibiotic therapy. 8. A client at an outpatient clinic is ordered to receive ampicillin (Omnipen) for an infection. Which nursing intervention related to penicillins would the nurse question? a. Verify that the client is not allergic to penicillin. b. Obtain culture before administering the first dose of medication. c. Instruct client to discontinue penicillin when temperature is normal. d. Encourage the client to increase fluid intake. 9. Most beta-lactam antibiotics are excreted through the kidneys. The nurse should assess the client’s renal function by monitoring which levels? a. Blood urea nitrogen and serum creatinine b. Creatinine phosphokinase and alkaline phosphatase c. White blood cell count and red blood cell count d. Hemoglobin and hematocrit 10. A client is ordered to receive a cephalosporin to treat a bacterial infection. Regarding monitoring of the client, the highest priority action on the part of the nurse includes assessing the client for which side effects? a. Nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea b. Photophobia and phototoxicity c. Pain with urination and blood in the urine d. High fevers and sweating 11. A client has been receiving a cephalosporin for 20 days to treat a severe bacterial infection. The client complains of mouth pain, and the nurse assesses white patches in the client’s mouth. What is the highest priority action on the part of the nurse? a. Provide mouth care with glycerin swabs. b. Encourage the client to drink more fluids. c. Notify the physician and describe symptoms. d. Administer analgesia for the mouth pain. 12. A client who reports an allergy to penicillin is ordered to receive cephalexin (Keflex). The correct action for the nurse is to: a. administer the medication as ordered with additional fluids. b. administer the medication and carefully observe for allergic reaction. c. call the physician to change the order because of the allergy history. d. administer another antibiotic after consulting the pharmacist. 13. The client has been ordered treatment with Cefaclor as well as erythromycin. The nurse anticipates what effect from the interaction of the medications? a. Increased action of the Cefaclor b. Decreased action of the Cefaclor c. Anaphylactic reaction to the Cefaclor d. Toxic action of the Cefaclor 14. The client has been ordered Cefazolin. The nurse anticipates an increase in the client’s from this medication? a. BUN and serum creatinine b. serum potassium c. serum calcium d. serum white blood cells 15. The client has been ordered to be treated with amoxicillin. The highest priority instruction that the nurse should give the client related to diet while on the medication is to avoid: a. green leafy vegetables. b. beef and other red meat. c. coffee, tea, and colas. d. acidic fruits and juices. 16. The client has been ordered treatment with Wycillin. The nurse notes that the solution is milky in color. What is the highest priority action on the part of the nurse? a. Call the pharmacist and report the milky color. b. Add normal saline to dilute the medication. c. Call the physician and report the milky appearance. d. Administer the medication as ordered by the physician. 17. The client has been ordered treatment with Amoxil. The client reports to the nurse that she has developed symptoms of vaginitis. The highest priority action on the part of the nurse is to recognize this as: a. an expected side effect of the medication. b. a life-threatening reaction to the drug. c. evidence of development of a superinfection. d. evidence of an anaphylactic reaction. Chapter 9. Complementary and Alternative Medicines MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. A good history of herb and supplement use is critical before prescribing because approximately of patients in the United States are using herbal products. A. 10% B. 5% C. 38% D. 70% 2. A potential harmful effect to patients who take some herbal medication is: A. Constipation B. Lead poisoning C. Diarrhea D. Life-threatening rash 3. A thorough understanding of herbs is critical to patient safety. An example is the use of cinnamon to treat Type II diabetes. It is important the patient uses Ceylon cinnamon, as the commercially available cassia cinnamon contains: A. Coumadin, which may lead to bleeding problems B. Coumarin, which can cause liver and kidney damage C. Cinnamic aldehyde, which is toxic to the kidney D. Cinnamate eugenol, which is toxic to the liver 4. Traditional Chinese medicine utilizes yin (cooling) versus yang (warming) in assessing and treating disease. Menopause is considered a time of imbalance, therefore the Chinese herbalist would prescribe: A. Herbs which are yang in nature B. Herbs that are yin in nature C. Ginger D. Golden seal 5. According to Traditional Chinese Medicine, if a person who has a fever is given a herb that is yang in nature, such as golden seal, the patient’s illness will: A. Get worse B. Get better C. Not be adequately treated D. Need additional herbs to treat the yang 6. In Ayurvedic medicine treatment is based on the patient’s dominant dosha, which is referred to as the person’s: A. Vata B. Pitta C. Kapha D. Prakriti 7. Herbs and supplements are regulated by the Food and Drug Administration. A. True B. False 8. When melatonin is used to induce sleep, the recommendation is the patient: A. Take 10 mg 30 minutes before bed nightly B. Take 1 to 5 mg 30 minutes before bed nightly C. Not take melatonin more than three nights a week D. Combine melatonin with zolpidem (Ambien) for the greatest impact on sleep 9. Valerian tea causes relaxation and can be used to help a patient fall asleep. Overdosage of valerian (more than 2.5 gm/dose) may lead to: A. Cardiac disturbances B. Central nervous system depression C. Respiratory depression D. Skin rashes 10. The standard dosage of St John’s Wort for the treatment of mild depression is: A. 300 mg daily B. 100 mg three times a day C. 300 mg three times a day D. 600 mg three times a day 11. Patients need to be instructed regarding the drug interactions with St John’s Wort, including: A. MAO inhibitors (MAOIs) B. Serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) C. Over-the-counter (OTC) cough and cold medications D. All of the above 12. Ginseng, which is taken to assist with memory, may potentiate: A. Aricept B. Insulin C. Digoxin D. Propranolol 13. Licorice root is a common treatment for dyspepsia. Drug interactions with licorice include: A. Antihypertensives, diuretics, and digoxin B. Antidiarrheals, antihistamines, and omeprazole C. Penicillin antibiotic class and benzodiazepines D. None of the above 14. Patients should be warned about the overuse of topical wintergreen oil to treat muscle strains, as overapplication can lead to: A. Respiratory depression B. Cardiac disturbance C. Salicylates poisoning D. Life-threatening rashes 15. The role of the NP in the use of herbal medication is to: A. Maintain competence in the prescribing of common herbal remedies B. Recommend common over-the-counter herbs to patients C. Educate patients and guide them to appropriate sources of care D. Encourage patients to not use herbal therapy due to the documented dangers Chapter 10. Pharmacogenomics MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Genetic polymorphisms account for differences in metabolism, including: A. Poor metabolizers (PMs) who lack a working enzyme B. Intermediate metabolizers (IMs) who have one working, wild-type allele and one mutant allele C. Extensive metabolizers (EMs), with two normally functioning alleles D. All of the above 2. Up to 21% of Asians are ultra-rapid 2D6 metabolizers, leading to: A. A need to monitor drugs metabolized by 2D6 for toxicity B. Increased dosages needed of drugs metabolized by 2D6, such as the SSRIs C. Decreased conversion of codeine to morphine by CYP 2D6 D. The need for lowered dosages of drugs, such as beta blockers 3. Rifampin is a nonspecific CYP450 inducer that may: A. Lead to toxic levels of rifampin and must be monitored closely B. Cause toxic levels of drugs, such as oral contraceptives, when co-administered C. Induce the metabolism of drugs, such as oral contraceptives, leading to therapeutic failure D. Cause nonspecific changes in drug metabolism 4. Inhibition of P-glycoprotein by a drug such as quinidine may lead to: A. Decreased therapeutic levels of quinidine B. Increased therapeutic levels of quinidine C. Decreased levels of a co-administered drug, such as digoxin, that requires P- glycoprotein for absorption and elimination D. Increased levels of a co-administered drug, such as digoxin, that requires P- glycoprotein for absorption and elimination 5. Warfarin resistance may be seen in patients with VCORC1 mutation, leading to: A. Toxic levels of warfarin building up B. Decreased response to warfarin C. Increased risk for significant drug interactions with warfarin D. Less risk of drug interactions with warfarin 6. Genetic testing for VCORC1 mutation to assess potential warfarin resistance is required prior to prescribing warfarin. A. True B. False 7. Pharmacogenetic testing is required by the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) prior to prescribing: A. Erythromycin B. Digoxin C. Cetuximab D. Rifampin 8. Carbamazepine has a Black Box warning recommending testing for the HLA-B*1502 allele in patients with Asian ancestry prior to starting therapy due to: A. Decreased effectiveness of carbamazepine in treating seizures in Asian patients with the HLA-B*1502 allele B. Increased risk for drug interactions in Asian patients with the HLA-B*1502 allele C. Increased risk for Stevens-Johnson syndrome in Asian patients with HLA-B*1502 allele D. Patients who have the HLA-B*1502 allele being more likely to have a resistance to carbamazepine 9. A genetic variation in how the metabolite of the cancer drug irinotecan SN-38 is inactivated by the body may lead to: A. Decreased effectiveness of irinotecan in the treatment of cancer B. Increased adverse drug reactions, such as neutropenia C. Delayed metabolism of the prodrug irinotecan into the active metabolite SN-38 D. Increased concerns for irinotecan being carcinogenic 10. Patients who have a poor metabolism phenotype will have: A. Slowed metabolism of a prodrug into an active drug, leading to accumulation of prodrug B. Accumulation of inactive metabolites of drugs C. A need for increased dosages of medications D. Increased elimination of an active drug 11. Ultra-rapid metabolizers of drugs may have: A. To have dosages of drugs adjusted downward to prevent drug accumulation B. Active drug rapidly metabolized into inactive metabolites, leading to potential therapeutic failure C. Increased elimination of active, nonmetabolized drug D. Slowed metabolism of a prodrug into an active drug, leading to accumulation of prodrug 12. A provider may consider testing for CYP2D6 variants prior to starting tamoxifen for breast cancer to: A. Ensure the patient will not have increased adverse drug reactions to the tamoxifen B. Identify potential drug-drug interactions that may occur with tamoxifen C. Reduce the likelihood of therapeutic failure with tamoxifen treatment D. Identify poor metabolizers of tamoxifen Chapter 11. Contact Dermatitis MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. When choosing a topical corticosteroid cream to treat diaper dermatitis, the ideal medication would be: A. Intermediate potency corticosteroid ointment (Kenalog) B. A combination of a corticosteroid and an antifungal (Lotrisone) C. A low potency corticosteroid cream applied sparingly (hydrocortisone 1%) D. A high potency corticosteroid cream (Diprolene AF) 2. Topical immunomodulators such as pimecrolimus (Elidel) or tacrolimus (Protopic) are used for: A. Short-term or intermittent treatment of atopic dermatitis B. Topical treatment of fungal infections (Candida) C. Chronic, inflammatory seborrheic dermatitis D. Recalcitrant nodular acne 3. Long-term treatment of moderate atopic dermatitis includes: A. Topical corticosteroids and emollients B. Topical corticosteroids alone C. Topical antipruritics D. Oral corticosteroids for exacerbations of atopic dermatitis 4. Severe contact dermatitis caused by poison ivy or poison oak exposure often requires treatment with: A. Topical antipruritics B. Oral corticosteroids for 2 to 3 weeks C. Thickly applied topical intermediate-dose corticosteroids D. Isolation of the patient to prevent spread of the dermatitis 5. When a patient has contact dermatitis, wet dressings with Domeboro solution are used for: A. Cleaning the weeping area of dermatitis B. Bathing the patient to prevent infection C. Relief of inflammation D. Providing a barrier layer to protect the surrounding skin 6. Topical corticosteroids are used to treat several disorders. Topical corticosteroids are contraindicated for treatment of which of the following conditions? a. Psoriasis c. Eczema b. Contact dermatitis d. Rosacea 7. A topical corticosteroid may be used to treat facial eczema. What instruction must be given to a patient for whom a topical corticosteroid is prescribed for treatment of facial eczema? a. “Be careful not to get any of the medication in your eyes.” b. “Stay out of strong sunlight while using the medication.” c. “Put a thin layer of medication on once a day just before you go to bed for the night.” d. “Check before you use it that the medication is labeled fluorinated.” 8. Group I topical corticosteroids may cause adverse reactions. A patient who is being treated with a group I topical corticosteroid must be closely monitored for a. increased hepatic enzymes. c. epithelial keratopathy. b. HPA suppression. d. bone marrow depression. 9. Treatment with gentamicin (Garamycin) may present disadvantages for the patient. A renal patient’s use of the drug may lead to a. deterioration of the immune system. b. risk of liver damage secondary to systemic absorption. c. occurrence of secondary retroviral infection. d. ototoxicity. 9. The topical antiviral drug acyclovir (Zovirax) is used to treat several different conditions. Which of the following conditions is an unlabeled use for acyclovir (Zovirax)? a. Herpes genitalis c. Herpes labialis b. Herpes simplex virus types I and II d. Epstein-Barr virus 10. Lindane (Kwell, Scabene) is used to treat several different disorders. For which disorder is the use of lindane (Kwell, Scabene) contraindicated? a. Pediculosis pubis c. Scabies b. Sarcoptes scabiei d. Seizures 15. Scabies treatment for a 4-year-old child includes a prescription for: A. Permethrin 5% cream applied from the neck down B. Pyrethrin lotion C. Lindane 1% shampoo D. All of the above 16. Vanessa has been diagnosed with scabies. Her education would include: A. She should apply the scabies treatment cream for an hour and wash it off B. Scabies may need to be retreated in a week after initial treatment C. All members of the household and close personal contacts should be treated D. Malathion is flammable and she should take care until the solution dries 17. Catherine has head lice and her mother is asking about what products are available that are not neurotoxic. The only non-neurotoxin head lice treatment is: A. Permethrin 1% (Nix) B. Lindane shampoo C. Malathion (Ovide) D. Benzoyl alcohol (Ulesfia) Chapter 12. Fungal Infections of the Skin MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. A nurse is caring for a patient who is on amphotericin B. On morning rounds the patient reports weakness, numbness, and a tingling sensation in his feet. What would be a priority action by the nurse? A. Encourage the patient to increase fluid intake. C. Keep the bed in a low position and the side rails up at all times. B. Use strict aseptic technique for drug administration D. Reduce the drug dosage. 2. A nurse is monitoring the fluid input and output of a 26-year-old woman who is on amphotericin B. Which of the following would the nurse report immediately to the physician? A. Orange-colored urine C. A high concentration of the drug in the urine B. Urine output above 500 mL/g of the drug administered D. Serum creatinine level of 3.5 mg/dL 3. The nurse is assessing a patient who is about to receive antifungal drug therapy. Which condition, if found in the patient, would be of most concern? A. Diabetes mellitus B. Liver disease C. Pulmonary disease D. Bleeding disorders 4. The nurse is preparing an infusion of amphotericin B for a patient who has a severe fungal infection. Which intervention is appropriate regarding the potential adverse effects of amphotericin B? A. Discontinuing the infusion immediately if fever, chills, or nausea occur B. Gradually increasing the infusion rate until the expected adverse effects occur C. If fever, chills, or nausea occur during the infusion, administering medications to treat the symptoms D. Before beginning the infusion, administering an antipyretic and an antiemetic drug 5. The nurse is administering one of the lipid formulations of amphotericin B. When giving this drug, which concept is important to remember? A. The lipid formulations may be given in oral form. B. The doses are much lower than the doses of the older drugs. C. The lipid formulations are associated with fewer adverse effects than the older drugs. D. There is no difference in cost between the newer and older forms. 6. A patient is infected by invasive aspergillosis, and the medical history reveals that the patient has not been able to tolerate several antifungal drugs. The nurse anticipates an order for which medication to treat this infection? A. fluconazole (Diflucan) B. micafungin (Mycamine) C. caspofungin (Cancidas) D. nystatin (Mycostatin) 7. During therapy with amphotericin B, the nurse will monitor the patient for known adverse effects that would be reflected by which laboratory result? A. Serum potassium level of 2.7 mEq/L B. Serum potassium level of 5.8 mEq/L C. White blood cell count of 7000 cells/mm3 D. Platelet count of 300,000 per microliter 8. A patient has received a prescription for a 2-week course of antifungal suppositories for a vaginal yeast infection. She asks the nurse if there is an alternative to this medication, saying, “I don’t want to do this for 2 weeks!” Which is a possibility in this situation? A. A single dose of a vaginal antifungal cream B. A one-time infusion of amphotericin B C. A single dose of a fluconazole (Diflucan) oral tablet D. There is no better alternative to the suppositories. 9. Dwayne has classic tinea capitis. Treatment for tinea on the scalp is: A. Miconazole cream rubbed in well for 4 weeks B. Oral griseofulvin for 6 to 8 weeks C. Ketoconazole shampoo daily for 6 weeks D. Ciclopirox cream daily for 4 weeks 10. Nicolas is a football player who presents to clinic with athlete’s foot. Patients with tinea pedis may be treated with: A. OTC miconazole cream for 4 weeks B. Oral ketoconazole for 6 weeks C. Mupirocin ointment for 2 weeks D. Nystatin cream for 2 weeks 11. Jim presents with fungal infection of two of his toenails (onychomycosis). Treatment for fungal infections of the nail includes: A. Miconazole cream B. Ketoconazole cream C. Oral griseofulvin D. Mupirocin cream Chapter 13 Viral Infections of the Skin MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. A patient who is diagnosed with shingles is taking topical acyclovir, and the nurse is providing instructions about adverse effects. The nurse will discuss which adverse effects of topical acyclovir therapy? A. Insomnia and nervousness B. Temporary swelling and rash C. Transient burning when applied D. This medication has no adverse effects. 2. The nurse is administering intravenous acyclovir (Zovirax) to a patient with a viral infection. Which administration technique is correct? A. Infuse intravenous acyclovir slowly, over at least 1 hour. B. Infuse intravenous acyclovir by rapid bolus. C. Refrigerate intravenous acyclovir. D. Restrict oral fluids during intravenous acyclovir therapy. 3. A patient is receiving cidofovir (Vistide) as part of treatment for a viral infection, and the nurse is preparing to administer probenecid, which is also ordered. Which is the rationale for administering probenecid along with the cidofovir treatment? A. Probenecid has a synergistic effect when given with cidofovir, thus making the antiviral medication more effective. B. The probenecid also prevents replication of the virus. C. Concurrent drug therapy with probenecid reduces the nephrotoxicity of the cidofovir. D. The probenecid reduces the adverse gastrointestinal effects of the cidofovir. 4. Instructions for applying a topical antibiotic or antiviral ointment include: A. Apply thickly to the infected area, spreading the medication well past the borders of the infection B. If the rash worsens, apply a thicker layer of medication to settle down the infection C. Wash hands before and after application of topical antimicrobials D. None of the above 5. When prescribing topical penciclovir (Denavir) for the treatment of herpes labialis (cold sores) patient education would include: A. Spread penciclovir liberally all over lips and area surrounding lips B. Penciclovir therapy is started at the first sign of cold sore outbreak C. Skin irritation is normal with penciclovir and it should resolve D. The penciclovir should be used a minimum of 2 weeks to prevent recurrence MULTIPLE RESPONSE 1. A patient who is diagnosed with genital herpes is taking topical acyclovir. The nurse will provide which teaching for this patient? (Select all that apply.) A. “Be sure to wash your hands thoroughly before and after applying this medicine.” B. “Apply this ointment until the lesion stops hurting.” C. “Use a clean glove when applying this ointment.” D. “If your partner develops these lesions, then he can also use the medication.” E. “You will need to avoid touching the area around your eyes.” F. “You will have to practice abstinence when these lesions are active.” Chapter 14 Bacterial Infections of the Skin Test Bank MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. When reviewing the allergy history of a patient, the nurse notes that the patient is allergic to penicillin. Based on this finding, the nurse would question an order for which class of antibiotics? a. Tetracyclines b. Sulfonamides c. Cephalosporins d. Quinolones 2. The nurse is providing teaching to a patient taking an oral tetracycline antibiotic. Which statement by the nurse is correct? a. “Avoid direct sunlight and tanning beds while on this medication.” b. “Milk and cheese products result in increased levels of tetracycline.” c. “Antacids taken with the medication help to reduce gastrointestinal distress.” d. “Take the medication until you are feeling better.” 3. When reviewing the medication orders for a patient who is taking penicillin, the nurse notes that the patient is also taking the oral anticoagulant warfarin (Coumadin). What possible effect may occur as the result of an interaction between these drugs? a. The penicillin will cause an enhanced anticoagulant effect of the warfarin. b. The penicillin will cause the anticoagulant effect of the warfarin to decrease. c. The warfarin will reduce the antiinfective action of the penicillin. d. The warfarin will increase the effectiveness of the penicillin. 4. A patient is receiving his third intravenous dose of a penicillin drug. He calls the nurse to report that he is feeling “anxious” and is having trouble breathing. What will the nurse do first? a. Notify the prescriber. b. Take the patient’s vital signs. c. Stop the antibiotic infusion. d. Check for allergies. 5. During drug therapy with a tetracycline antibiotic, a patient complains of some nausea and decreased appetite. Which statement is the nurse’s best advice to the patient? a. “Take it with cheese and crackers or yogurt.” b. “Take each dose with a glass of milk.” c. “Take an antacid with each dose as needed.” d. “Drink a full glass of water with each dose.” 6. The nurse is monitoring a patient who has been on antibiotic therapy for 2 weeks. Today the patient tells the nurse that he has had watery diarrhea since the day before and is having abdominal cramps. His oral temperature is 101° F (38.3° C). Based on these findings, which conclusion will the nurse draw? a. The patient’s original infection has not responded to the antibiotic therapy. b. The patient is showing typical adverse effects of antibiotic therapy. c. The patient needs to be tested for Clostridium difficile infection. d. The patient will need to take a different antibiotic. 7. The nurse is monitoring for therapeutic results of antibiotic therapy in a patient with an infection. Which laboratory value would indicate therapeutic effectiveness of this therapy? a. Increased red blood cell count b. Increased hemoglobin level c. Decreased white blood cell count d. Decreased platelet count 8. The nurse is reviewing the sputum culture results of a patient with pneumonia and notes that the patient has a gram-positive infection. Which generation of cephalosporin is most appropriate for this type of infection? a. First-generation b. Second-generation c. Third-generation d. Fourth-generation 9. A patient will be having oral surgery and has received an antibiotic to take for 1 week before the surgery. The nurse knows that this is an example of which type of therapy? a. Empirical b. Prophylactic c. Definitive d. Resistance 10. During drug therapy for pneumonia, a female patient develops a vaginal superinfection. The nurse explains that this infection is caused by a. large doses of antibiotics that kill normal flora. b. the infection spreading from her lungs to the new site of infection. c. resistance of the pneumonia-causing bacteria to the drugs. d. an allergic reaction to the antibiotics. 11. The nurse is preparing to use an antiseptic. Which statement is correct regarding how antiseptics differ from disinfectants? a. Antiseptics are used to sterilize surgical equipment. b. Disinfectants are used as preoperative skin preparation. c. Antiseptics are used only on living tissue to kill microorganisms. d. Disinfectants are used only on nonliving objects to destroy organisms. 12. A patient with a long-term intravenous catheter is going home. The nurse knows that if he is allergic to seafood, which antiseptic agent is contraindicated? a. chlorhexidine gluconate (Hibiclens) b. hydrogen peroxide c. povidone-iodine (Betadine) d. isopropyl alcohol MULTIPLE RESPONSE 1. During antibiotic therapy, the nurse will monitor closely for signs and symptoms of a hypersensitivity reaction. Which of these assessment findings may be an indication of a hypersensitivity reaction? (Select all that apply.) a. Wheezing b. Diarrhea c. Shortness of breath d. Swelling of the tongue e. Itching f. Black, hairy tongue 2. The nurse is reviewing the medication history of a patient who will be taking a sulfonamide antibiotic. During sulfonamide therapy, a significant drug interaction may occur with which of these drugs or drug classes? (Select all that apply.) a. Opioids b. Oral contraceptives c. Sulfonylureas d. Antihistamines e. phenytoin (Dilantin) f. warfarin (Coumadin) OTHER 1. A patient will be receiving amoxicillin suspension 300 mg via a gastrostomy tube every 8 hours. The medication comes in a bottle that contains 400 mg/5 mL. How many milliliters will the nurse administer with each dose? (Record answer using one decimal place.) 2. A patient will be receiving penicillin G potassium, 12 million units daily in divi

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