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ATI MATERNAL NEWBORN NURSING EXAM TEST BANK LATEST
2025 ACTUAL EXAM WITH COMPLETE QUESTIONS AND CORRECT
DETAILED ANSWERS (100% VERIFIED ANSWERS) |ALREADY
GRADED A+| ||PROFESSOR VERIFIED|| ||BRANDNEW!!!||
A woman presents to the emergency department with complaints
of bleeding and cramping. The initial
nursing history is significant for a last menstrual period 6 weeks
ago. On sterile speculum examination, the
primary care provider finds that the cervix is closed. The
anticipated plan of care for this woman would be
based on a probable diagnosis of which type of spontaneous
abortion?
a. Incomplete
b. Inevitable
c. Threatened
d. Septic - ANSWER-ANS: C
A woman with a threatened abortion presents with spotting,
mild cramps, and no cervical dilation. A woman with an
incomplete abortion would present with heavy bleeding, mild
to severe cramping, and cervical dilation. An inevitable
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abortion manifests with the same symptoms as an
incomplete abortion: heavy bleeding, mild to severe
cramping, and cervical dilation. A woman with a septic
abortion presents with malodorous bleeding and typically a
dilated cervix.
The perinatal nurse is giving discharge instructions to a woman
after suction curettage secondary to a hydatidiform mole. The
woman asks why she must take oral contraceptives for the next
12 months. The best
response from the nurse would be:
a. If you get pregnant within 1 year, the chance of a successful
pregnancy is very small. Therefore, if
you desire a future pregnancy, it would be better for you to use
the most reliable method of
contraception available.
b. The major risk to you after a molar pregnancy is a type of
cancer that can be diagnosed only by
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measuring the same hormone that your body produces during
pregnancy. If you were to get pregnant, it would make the
diagnosis of this cancer more difficult.
c. If you can avoid a pregnancy for the next year, the chance of
developing a second molar pregnancy
is rare. Therefore, to improve your chance of a successful
pregnancy, it is better not to get pregnant
at - ANSWER-ANS: B
This is an accurate statement. b-Human chorionic
gonadotropin (hCG) levels will be drawn for 1 year to ensure
that the mole is completely gone. There is an increased
chance of developing choriocarcinoma after the development
of a hydatidiform mole. The goal is to achieve a zero hCG
level. If the woman were to become
pregnant, it could obscure the presence of the potentially
carcinogenic cells. Women should be instructed to use birth
control for 1 year after treatment for a hydatidiform mole. The
rationale for avoiding pregnancy for 1 year is to ensure that
carcinogenic cells are not present. Any contraceptive method
except an intrauterine
, 4|Page
device is acceptable.
The most prevalent clinical manifestation of abruptio placentae
(as opposed to placenta previa) is:
a. Bleeding.
b. Intense abdominal pain.
c. Uterine activity.
d. Cramping. - ANSWER-ANS: B
Pain is absent with placenta previa and may be agonizing
with abruptio placentae. Bleeding may be present in varying
degrees for both placental conditions. Uterine activity and
cramping may be present with both placental conditions.
Methotrexate is recommended as part of the treatment plan for
which obstetric complication?
a. Complete hydatidiform mole
b. Missed abortion
ATI MATERNAL NEWBORN NURSING EXAM TEST BANK LATEST
2025 ACTUAL EXAM WITH COMPLETE QUESTIONS AND CORRECT
DETAILED ANSWERS (100% VERIFIED ANSWERS) |ALREADY
GRADED A+| ||PROFESSOR VERIFIED|| ||BRANDNEW!!!||
A woman presents to the emergency department with complaints
of bleeding and cramping. The initial
nursing history is significant for a last menstrual period 6 weeks
ago. On sterile speculum examination, the
primary care provider finds that the cervix is closed. The
anticipated plan of care for this woman would be
based on a probable diagnosis of which type of spontaneous
abortion?
a. Incomplete
b. Inevitable
c. Threatened
d. Septic - ANSWER-ANS: C
A woman with a threatened abortion presents with spotting,
mild cramps, and no cervical dilation. A woman with an
incomplete abortion would present with heavy bleeding, mild
to severe cramping, and cervical dilation. An inevitable
,2|Page
abortion manifests with the same symptoms as an
incomplete abortion: heavy bleeding, mild to severe
cramping, and cervical dilation. A woman with a septic
abortion presents with malodorous bleeding and typically a
dilated cervix.
The perinatal nurse is giving discharge instructions to a woman
after suction curettage secondary to a hydatidiform mole. The
woman asks why she must take oral contraceptives for the next
12 months. The best
response from the nurse would be:
a. If you get pregnant within 1 year, the chance of a successful
pregnancy is very small. Therefore, if
you desire a future pregnancy, it would be better for you to use
the most reliable method of
contraception available.
b. The major risk to you after a molar pregnancy is a type of
cancer that can be diagnosed only by
,3|Page
measuring the same hormone that your body produces during
pregnancy. If you were to get pregnant, it would make the
diagnosis of this cancer more difficult.
c. If you can avoid a pregnancy for the next year, the chance of
developing a second molar pregnancy
is rare. Therefore, to improve your chance of a successful
pregnancy, it is better not to get pregnant
at - ANSWER-ANS: B
This is an accurate statement. b-Human chorionic
gonadotropin (hCG) levels will be drawn for 1 year to ensure
that the mole is completely gone. There is an increased
chance of developing choriocarcinoma after the development
of a hydatidiform mole. The goal is to achieve a zero hCG
level. If the woman were to become
pregnant, it could obscure the presence of the potentially
carcinogenic cells. Women should be instructed to use birth
control for 1 year after treatment for a hydatidiform mole. The
rationale for avoiding pregnancy for 1 year is to ensure that
carcinogenic cells are not present. Any contraceptive method
except an intrauterine
, 4|Page
device is acceptable.
The most prevalent clinical manifestation of abruptio placentae
(as opposed to placenta previa) is:
a. Bleeding.
b. Intense abdominal pain.
c. Uterine activity.
d. Cramping. - ANSWER-ANS: B
Pain is absent with placenta previa and may be agonizing
with abruptio placentae. Bleeding may be present in varying
degrees for both placental conditions. Uterine activity and
cramping may be present with both placental conditions.
Methotrexate is recommended as part of the treatment plan for
which obstetric complication?
a. Complete hydatidiform mole
b. Missed abortion
