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1. A certified Level III individual terminates his or her employment with
employer A and is immediately employed by employer B. Employer B may
certify the individual as Level III based upon which of the following? -
ANSWER a. The employer must examine the individual
2. In accordance with CP-189 (2016), an NDT Level III: - ANSWER c. must
approve all questions to be used on examinations for Level I and Level II
3. Which of the following is true regarding NDT Level III Practical
Examinations? - ANSWER b. the exam administrator must hold a valid
ASNT Level III certification in the applicable test method
4. When the near-distance vision acuity examination is given using a jaeger
reading card, it must be given: - ANSWER a. in accordance with a
procedure
5. As required in CP-189, Level I Practical examinations are intended to be: -
ANSWER c. given using one or more test samples for each technique
6. The Practical Examination shall address the technical and practical
competency of the examinee when following prepared NDT procedures for:
- ANSWER d. Levels I and II
,7. ASNT NDT Level III certification is a requirement of: - ANSWER b. CP-189
8. A currently valid ASNT NDT Level III certificate indicates: - ANSWER d.
that the certificate holder has satisfied the Basic and Method exam
requirements as set forth in SNT-TC-1A
9. ASNT NDT Level III certification: - ANSWER c. makes an individual
potentially eligible to become an employer's Level III
10. The ASNT NDT Level III Basic Examination covers all of the following except:
- ANSWER d. knowledge of international certification programs
11.To recertify by application, an ADNT NDT Level III must: - ANSWER a.
demonstrate continued NDT activity and Level III employment
12.To be eligible to sit for the ASNT NDT Level III exams, a candidate with two
years of passing grades in engineering or science study at a university or
technical school must have: - ANSWER b. two additional years of
experience beyond the Level II requirements in NDT in an assignment at
least comparable to that of NDT Level II in the applicable NDT method(s)
13. The most common range of acoustic emission testing is: - ANSWER b.
100-300 kHz
,14. Discontinuities that are not readily detectable by acoustic emission testing
are: - ANSWER d. rounded inclusions
15. The total energy loss of a propagating wave is called: - ANSWER d.
attenuation
16. The kaiser effect refers to: - ANSWER c. the behavior where emission
from a source will not occur until the previous load is exceeded
17. The felicity effect is useful in evaluating: - ANSWER a. fiber-reinforced
plastic components
18. The kaiser effect is useful in distinguishing: - ANSWER c. mechanical
noise from growing discontinuities
19. The term "counts" refers to the: - ANSWER a. number of times a signal
crosses a preset threshold
20. The acoustic emission signal amplitude is related to: - ANSWER b. the
intensity of the source
21. Threshold settings are determined by the: - ANSWER d. background
noise level
, 22. Background noise can be reduced by: - ANSWER a. electronic filtering
23. Eddy currents are circulating electrical currents induced in conductive
materials by: - ANSWER c. an altering magnetic field
24. The method used to generate eddy currents in a test specimen by means of
a coil can most closely be compared with the action of a: - ANSWER a.
transformer
25. Electromagnetic testing relies on the principle of: - ANSWER b.
electromagnetic induction
26. When the electrical current in an eddy current coil reverses direction, the: -
ANSWER c. direction of the eddy currents in the test part also reverses
27. In order to generate measurable eddy currents in a test specimen, the
specimen must be: - ANSWER a. an electrical conductor
CH4 (ET). 6 - The magnetic field generated by eddy currents induced in a test
specimen: - ANSWER c. opposes the magnetic field that induced the eddy
currents
CH4 (ET). 7 - In electromagnetic testing, IACS is a recognized abbreviation for: -
ANSWER d. International Annealed Copper Standard