ATI TEAS 6: Science (Human Anatomy & Physiology) Final Test with Answer Keys: Latest 2020 / 2021 - $11.99   Add to cart

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ATI TEAS 6: Science (Human Anatomy & Physiology) Final Test with Answer Keys: Latest 2020 / 2021

Anatomy & Physiology Final Test 1. Which of the following is not an anatomical direction? A. Supine Correct Body Position Prone B. Proximal / Distal C. Medial / Lateral D. Anterior / Posterior 2. Anatomy is defined as the study of the A. function of a living organism and its parts. Physiology B. diseases of a living organism. Pathology C. structure of a living organism and the relationship of its parts. D. growth of a living organism. Embryology / Developmental Biological Science 3. The smallest living unit of structure and function in the body is A. the organic compounds. Large complex molecules, C-C&C-H covalent bonds B. the cell. C. DNA. An organic compound. D. organelles. Cellular structures that function for cellular homeostasis. 4. The plane that divides the body into front and back portions is the A. sagittal plane. / Left and Right B. transverse plane. / superior and inferior (up and down) C. frontal plane. D. midsagittal plane. / equal two halves left and right 5. A very large molecule composed of subunits of sugar, nitrogen base, and a phosphate bond is a A. protein. / Building blocks = Amino Acids (20). E.g. collagen, actin, myosin, prolactin, T4. B. lipid. / Building blocks = fatty acids & Glycerol. E.g. Triglycerides, Cholesterol, Phospholipids. C. carbohydrate. / Building blocks = monosaccharides. E.g. glucose, fructose, galactose. Disaccharides e.g. maltose (bread, rye, wheat, caraway), lactose (milk), sucrose (table sugar = sugarcanes, honey, fruits). Polysaccharides e.g. starch. D. nucleic acid. / RNA (Ribose, Uracil), DNA (Deoxyribose, Thymine) 6. A chemical bond formed by the sharing of one or more pairs of electrons between the outer shells of two atoms is called a(n) A. ionic bond. / attraction of positively and negatively charged molecules (ions). E.g. Na (Cation), Cl- (Anion) donate/receive electrons B. hydrogen bond. / weak, holding substances together through attraction (H ) C. covalent bond. D. None of these is correct. 7. The atomic number of an atom is equal to the number of A. protons. B. neutrons. C. electrons. / no calculations. D. Both A and B are correct. / Atomic mass = protons neutrons. 8. Which of these lipids are found in the cell membrane? / bilayer of phospholipids, heads = outwards, tails = inwards. A. Triglycerides / Blood, adipose tissue, lacteals, liver, and brain. B. Phospholipids. / Building blocks = phosphate group (head, water) two fatty acids (tails, lipids). C. Cholesterol / stabilizes the phospholipids, maintains the integrity of cell membrane. D. Both B and C are correct. 9. The two processes of protein synthesis are A. transcription and translation. B. replication and duplication. / DNA during mitosis and meiosis (cellular reproduction). C. transcription and replication. / genes are inactive!!! D. translation and duplication. 10. Often referred to as the “power plant” of the cell, this organelle is the site of ATP production. A. Endoplasmic reticulum / protein processing and folding maintains and replace cell membrane. B. Peroxisome / vesicles that contain hydrogen peroxide => destroy bacteria (TB, Pneumococcus, and meningococcus). C. Lysosome / vesicle contains lytic enzymes => destroy microbes. D. Mitochondria 11. This process is the movement of water and solutes through a membrane by the force of hydrostatic pressure. / Kidneys A. Osmosis / movement of water B. Filtration C. Diffusion / down gradient [particles moving from high concentration to low concentration] PASSIVE. D. Pinocytosis / cells digest fluids and other substances ACTIVE => use of ATP e.g. Na/K pump. 12. Spindle fibers form during this phase of mitosis. A. Prophase B. Anaphase / Chromosomes are formed C. Telophase / daughter cells formed D. Metaphase / chromosomes align in the middle 13. This type of epithelial tissue would be found in the wall of the urinary bladder. A. Stratified squamous / GIT (mouth, esophagus), Skin (Keratinized). B. Cuboidal / kidneys, salivary glands, thyroid gland, pancreas. C. Stratified transitional D. Simple columnar / stomach, small intestines, Upper respiratory airways ciliated Pseudostratified columnar. 14. Stratified squamous epithelial cells are found in the A. skin. B. lining of the trachea. / ciliated pseudostratified columnar C. kidney tubules. / cuboidal D. urinary bladder. / stratified transitional 15. This type of epithelial tissue is found in the air sacs of the lung. A. Simple squamous /single layer and flat allows gas exchange B. Striated squamous / NA C. Columnar D. Cuboidal 16. This type of epithelial tissue has adapted to a secretory function and forms clusters of cells called glands. A. Squamous epithelium B. Stratified squamous epithelium / skin C. Cuboidal epithelium / thyroid, salivary glands, pancreas. D. Pseudostratified columnar epithelium / trachea UR tract 17. The system that includes the skin and its appendages is the A. integumentary system. B. endocrine system. / glands => secrete products into blood directly. C. nervous system. / made of nervous tissue. D. lymphatic system. / lymph nodes, lymphatic vessels, spleen, thymus => immunity, circulation. 18. Kidneys, ureters, bladder, and urethra can be found in what system? A. Endocrine / endocrine glands, hypothalamus, thymus B. Digestive / GIT (primary), Accessory (teeth, tongue, liver, pancreas, gall bladder). C. Urinary system D. Reproductive system / essential organs (gonads), reproductive tracts (uterine tubes, uterus, vas deferens, epididymis), and accessory glands (prostate, Cowper, Bartholin) External genitalia. 19. The vas deferens, prostate, and testes are part of the A. male reproductive system. B. female reproductive system. / uterus (uterine tubes), vestibular glands (Bartholin), and ovaries. C. endocrine system. D. respiratory system. 20. Alveoli are found in the A. digestive system. B. respiratory system. / lungs C. lymphatic system. D. urinary system. 21. The tonsils, thymus, and spleen are specialized organs of what system? A. Endocrine / thyroid, adrenal, pituitary, pancreatic islets B. Cardiovascular / heart, blood vessels C. Urinary / kidneys, urinary bladder, ureters, urethra. D. Lymphatic 22. Of the following, which best describes the process of hyperplasia? A. Abnormal, undifferentiated tumor cells / Anaplasia B. Production of too few cells / Hypoplasia C. Production of too many cells / Numbers of cells D. “Cancer genes” / oncogenes 23. The actual pattern of a disease’s development is called its A. pathogenesis. / How? B. etiology. / causes of disease (factors causing disease) Why? C. sign. / objective manifestation of disease D. symptom. / subjective manifestation of disease 24. The most significant strategy for combating disease is A. therapy. / antibiotics, antihypertensives, …………… B. diagnoses. / C. prevention. / e.g. contact precautions, vaccines, risk factors modifications, genetic counseling. D. Both A and C are correct. 25. Microscopic organisms that include bacteria, fungi, and protozoa are called A. viruses. / microbes, different from bacteria, fungi, protozoa B. microbes. C. pathogens. / microbes, chemicals, waste, toxins. D. platyhelminths. / flat worms. 26. The movement of white blood cells in response to chemical attractants is called A. phagocytosis. / ingestions of microbes B. pinocytosis. C. chemotaxis. D. cachexia. / abnormal weight loss and loss of appetite in cancer patients (muscle wasting). 27. The skin is composed of the following layers of tissue. A. Epidermis and subcutaneous / subcutaneous fat is underneath the dermis. B. Epidermis and dermis / ectoderm (epidermis), mesoderm (dermis) C. Dermis and subcutaneous D. Hypodermis, epidermis, and subcutaneous 28. A typical sunburn would be classified as what degree of burn? A. First-degree / protection => melanin, albinism B. Second-degree / burn through the epidermis and dermis => painful C. Third-degree / complete burn of dermis => painless (nerve endings destruction) D. It depends on the amount of skin surface involved. / classifications of burns the rule of 9s. 29. A tough, waterproof material that protects the outer layer of the skin is A. mucus. / produced by mucous membranes B. keratin. / absorbing and losing fluids C. melanin. D. pigment. 30. The basic determinant of skin color is A. keratin. B. mucus. C. melanin. / melanocytes D. tyrosine. / phenylalanine (deficiency is Phenylketonuria) => tyrosine => melanin. 31. An age-related skeletal disease that is characterized by loss of bone mineral density and increased bone fragility is A. neoplasms. / cancer. B. Paget disease. / bone disease of the elderly where osteoclasts are hyperactive. C. osteoporosis. / women menopausal, and elderly D. osteocalcin. / vit D deficiency in adults (vit D deficiency in children Rickets). 32. Most bones of the body are formed from cartilage models in a process called A. intramembranous ossification. / flat bones e.g. frontal, occipital, parietal, temporal (skull bones) B. osteogenesis. / formation of bones. C. histogenesis. / formation of tissues (embryonic development). D. endochondral ossification. / e.g. femur, humorus, tibia, fibula, ulna, radius. 33. Which of these is not a bone in the lower extremity? A. Metacarpals / located in the hands B. Femur / thigh bone C. Fibula / shatter bone D. Tibia / leg bone 34. Bone-forming cells are called A. osteoclasts. / bone resorption (destroying bone) B. osteons. / haversian systems. C. osteoblasts. D. osteocytes. / calcified bone cells. 35. Cartilage cells are called A. osteocytes. B. chondrocytes. C. lacunae. / are part of osteons D. osteons. 36. The contractile unit of a muscle cell is the A. actin. / protein part of sarcomere B. myosin. / protein part of sarcomere C. myofibril. / muscle cell D. sarcomere. 37. The orbicularis orris (oral) muscle can be found in the (orbicularis oculi => oculi eye) A. face. / mouth B. upper arm. / deltoid, triceps brachii, biceps brachii. C. cranium. / temporalis D. lower leg. / gastrocnemius, anterior tibialis. 38. The point of attachment that does not move when the muscle contracts is the A. insertion. / point of attachment that MOVES when muscle contracts. B. tendon. / fibrous tissue that connects muscles to bones. C. ligament. / fibrous tissue that connects bone to bone (found around joints) D. origin. 39. The following are types of muscle contractions except A. kinetic. / this is physics B. Tetanic / abnormal continuous muscle contractions (tetanus). C. isotonic. D. isometric. 40. The large fluid-filled spaces within the brain are called the A. meninges. / coverings of the CNS. B. sulci. / grooves in the cerebrum C. gyri. / elevations in the cerebrum. D. ventricles. / four (two laterals, third, fourth) 41. The nervous system is divided into which two principal divisions? A. Peripheral and central / cranial nerves PNS, brain and spinal cord CNS B. Autonomic and central / sympathetic and parasympathetic C. Autonomic and peripheral D. Central and afferent / afferent => advance to & efferent => exit from (Spinal cord). 42. The innermost layer of the meninges is the A. pia mater. / at the surface of the brain and spinal cord. B. dura mater. / outer most layer of the meninges. Tough, white in color. C. arachnoid layer. / middle layer of the meninges (subarachnoid space). D. choroid plexus. / vascular capillaries found in ventricles => production of CSF. 43. Which glia cell produces the myelin that envelops the nerve fibers of the brain and spinal cord (CNS)? A. Astrocytes / supports neurons, and forms BBB by anchoring blood vessels. B. Microglia / immune cells in the CNS. C. Oligodendrocytes / in PNS myelin production is done by Schwann cell. D. Choroid plexus 44. The organ of hearing is the A. eardrum. / external ear (otitis externa, swimmer’s ear). B. organ of Corti / inner ear, cochlea. C. semicircular canals. /inner ear, vestibule D. crista ampullariids. / important balance. 45. This is not part of the inner ear. / 8th cranial nerve (vestibulocochlear nerve) A. Eustachian tube / middle ear => connects to pharynx (pharyngitis can lead to otitis media in children). B. Vestibule C. Semicircular canal D. Cochlea 46. After leaving the eye, the optic nerve enters the brain and travels to the visual cortex in this lobe of the brain. A. The frontal / movement, memory, thinking, judgement. B. The parietal / sensation, comprehension, taste C. The occipital D. The temporal / hearing 47. The white of the eye is called the (yellow sclera => jaundice) (blue sclera => Osteogenesis imperfecta) A. pupil. / the dark spot of the eye (opening) B. iris. / responsible for fixation of light rays, eye color (melanocytes). C. sclera. D. cornea. / transparent 48. The following are the primary taste sensations except A. sweet. B. salty. C. sour. D. spicy. 49. Most hormones work on a negative feedback mechanism; an exception to this is the hormone A. insulin. / glucagon B. oxytocin. / labor C. calcitonin. / parathyroid hormone D. glucagon. / insulin 50. This hormone decreases the calcium levels in the blood. A. Thymosin / maturation of t lymphocytes B. Prolactin / production of milk. C. Parathyroid hormone / increases levels of calcium in the blood. D. Calcitonin 51. Which of the following is not a characteristic of an endocrine gland? A. They release hormones. / hormones are released directly into the blood. B. They have a duct leading to a body cavity. / exocrine gland C. They have an effect on the cells in a target organ. D. All of the above are characteristics of an endocrine gland. 52. Which of the following is true of insulin? A. It increases the level of sugar in the blood. / decreases glucose levels B. It is made in the beta cells of the pancreas. C. It accelerates the process of glycogenolysis in the liver. / glycogenesis D. All of the above are true of insulin. 53. The process stimulated by glucocorticoids that converts amino acids to glucose is called / glucocorticoids are considered Anabolic hormones A. glucose synthesis. B. gluconeogenesis. C. liver glycogenolysis. / glucagon D. glycosuria. / glucose found in urine. 54. These two kinds of connective tissue make blood cells for the body. A. Myeloid and lymphatic / lymphatic tissue produces lymphocytes & myeloid tissue produces granulocytes, monocytes, RBCs, and platelets B. Myeloid and bone C. Myeloid and cartilage D. Lymphatic and bone 55. This substance does not make up part of the hemoglobin molecule. A. Iron / forms the heme group, combines with Oxygen and CO2. B. Calcium / bone, blood (in the form of a compound or bound to albumin) C. Two alpha chains / Globin D. Two beta chains / globin 56. An abnormally low white blood cell count is called A. leukocytosis. / proliferation of WBCs. B. leukopenia. / results in low immunity. C. differential white blood cell count. / part of CBC D. hemostasis. / stationary blood (still blood). 57. Platelets play an important role in A. fighting infection. / leukocytes B. carrying oxygen. / erythrocytes C. blood clotting. / other component is clotting factors (fibrinogen, prothrombin) D. carrying carbon dioxide. / erythrocytes 58. The chordae tendineae are attached to the / part of the ventricle A. bicuspid valve. / mitral valve (other atrioventricular valve is the tricuspids valve) B. pulmonary semilunar valve. / three cups C. aortic semilunar valve. D. Both B and C are correct. 59. Another term for “hardening of the arteries” is A. atherosclerosis. / accumulation of fat deposits in the arterial walls. B. embolism. / dislodged clot that moves (thrombus is stationary clot). C. angina pectoris. / the pain of heart attack D. myocardial infarction. / heart attack (complete blockage of blood flow in the coronary artery) 60. The order in which an impulse pass through the conduction system of the heart is A. SA node, AV node, AV bundle, and Purkinje fibers. / SA node is also called pacemaker of the heart. B. AV node, AV bundles, SA node, Purkinje fibers. C. AV bundles, bundle of His, AV node, SA node. D. Purkinje fibers, SA node, AV node, AV bundles. 61. Cardiac output is determined by (CO = HR x SV) A. stroke volume and blood pressure. B. heart rate and blood pressure. C. heart rate and stroke volume. D. stroke volume and peripheral resistance. 62. Capillaries are unique because their structure includes only (blood vessels have three layers = tunica intima, tunica media, and tunica externa) A. the tunica intima. B. the tunica intima and the tunica media. C. the tunica intima and the tunica externa. D. None of the above is correct because all blood vessels have all three layers in their structure. 63. This structure in fetal circulation shunts blood away from the immature liver. A. Umbilical artery / two umbilical arteries and one umbilical vein B. Foramen ovule / shunts blood between atria (right to left). C. Ductus venosus D. Ductus arteriosus / connects pulmonary artery with Aorta (shunts blood from pulmonary to Aorta). 64. A section of an artery that has become abnormally wide because of a weakening of the arterial wall is called A. an aneurysm. / Abdominal Aortic Aneurysm (rupture), Berry aneurysm (in the brain). B. necrosis. / term used to describe cellular and tissue death due to ischemia C. arteriosclerosis. / hardening of arterial walls D. ischemia. / reduced blood flow to a tissue 65. This structure in fetal circulation connects the aorta and the pulmonary artery. A. Umbilical artery B. Foramen ovale C. Ductus venosus D. Ducts arteriosus / shunts blood from right to left circulation 66. The functions of the lymph nodes are A. defense and red blood cell production. B. defense and white blood cell production. / B lymphocytes T lymphocytes produce plasma C. defense and platelet production. D. red blood cell and white blood cell production. 67. The function of the spleen includes all of the following except A. filtration of bacteria and foreign substances. B. acting as a reservoir for monocytes. C. developing T cells. / they develop in Thymus D. destroying worn-out red blood cells. / splenic rupture leads to massive internal hemorrhage. 68. An infant having immunity because antibodies are passed from its mother is an example of A. natural active immunity. / acquiring an infection and producing antibodies. B. natural passive immunity. C. artificial active immunity. / vaccines D. artificial passive immunity. / IVIG 69. An excessive reaction of the immune system to antigens from a different individual from the same species is called A. all immunity. / graft rejection B. autoimmunity. / self-produced antibodies attack self-cells and tissues (SLE) C. allergy. / an exaggerated immune response to a foreign body D. acquired immunodeficiency syndrome. / AIDS caused by HIV. 70. Which of the following is not part of vital capacity? / vital capacity residual volume = Total Lung Capacity. A. Residual volume / volume of air that remains in the lungs after forceful expiration B. Tidal volume C. Expiratory reserve volume D. Inspiratory reserve volume 71. Which of the following are functions of the respiratory system? A. Air distributor / respiratory tracts (upper and lower) B. Gas exchanger / alveoli C. Filter air / nose, pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi, bronchioles. D. All are correct. 72. In internal respiration / at the cellular level = Glycolysis, citric acid cycle, and electron transport system. A. the level of oxygen in the blood decreases. B. the level of carbon dioxide in the blood increases. C. the level of carbon dioxide decreases. / happens in the lungs (External respiration). D. Both A and B occur during internal respiration. 73. This structure prevents food from entering the trachea during swallowing. A. The epiglottis / Hbi vaccine prevent epiglottitis. B. The glottis C. The vocal cords / larynx D. The pharynx 74. Which of the following is not a main process of mechanical digestion? A. Mastication B. Deglutition C. Peristalsis D. Absorption / digestion and excretion 75. Food from the stomach enters this part of the small intestine. A. Ileum B. Jejunum C. Duodenum / connected to stomach pyloric sphincter D. Colon 76. Where does protein digestion begin? A. Duodenum / trypsin B. Stomach/ pepsin C. Mouth / carbohydrates digestion = salivary amylase D. Ileum / where iron, B12 is absorbed 77. The first series of reactions in carbohydrate metabolism is (38 ATP) A. the citric acid cycle. / second step, uses oxygen, mitochondria B. glycolysis. / 2 ATP, no Oxygen, cytoplasm C. the electron transport system. / 36 ATP D. oxidative phosphorylation. 78. When fats are not needed for catabolism, they go through anabolism to form triglycerides that are stored in / this why eating a lot of carbohydrates leads to obesity. A. bone. B. the liver. C. adipose tissue. D. all cells. 79. This disorder is an example of an inborn error of metabolism. / enzyme deficiency that converts phenylalanine to tyrosine A. Phenylketonuria B. Marasmus / malnutrition C. Kwashiorkor / malnutrition D. Both B and C are examples of inborn errors of metabolism. 80. The principal organ of the urinary system is the A. liver. B. bladder. C. kidney. / filtration, reabsorption, excretion, secretion D. urethra. 81. The passage of urine from the body or the emptying of the bladder is referred to as A. incontinence. / bladder disease that results in abnormal urination B. micturition. / voiding, urination C. urinary suppression. D. urinary retention. 82. The tiny, funnel-shaped microscopic structure of the kidney responsible for producing urine is the A. glomeruli. B. nephron. / corpuscle and tubule C. renal corpuscle. / bowman capsule and glomerus D. renal tubule. / proximal tubule, loop of Henle, distal tubule, collecting duct 83. The cells of the juxtaglomerular apparatus function to regulate A. urine production. B. red blood cell production. C. blood pressure. / between the Efferent arteriole and distal convoluted tubule (ACEi). D. Both A and B are correct. 84. A blood potassium level of more than 5.1 mEq/L would be called A. hyponatremia. B. hypokalemia. C. hyperkalemia. D. hypercalcemia. 85. A sodium level less than 136 mEq/L would be called A. hyponatremia. B. hypokalemia. C. hyperkalemia. D. hypercalcemia. 86. The body’s last and best defense against wide variations in blood pH is the A. liver. B. lungs. C. interstitial fluid. D. kidneys. / third line of defense 87. The accumulation of these acidic substances is a result of excessive metabolism of fats. A. Buffers B. H C. Ketone bodies / this happens in Diabetes Mellitus type 1 (Diabetic ketoacidosis). D. CO2 88. The essential organ (gonads) of reproduction in women is the A. uterus. B. ovary. / in males it is the testes. C. vagina. D. All are essential organs of reproduction. 89. The sperm precursors or stem cells are called A. spermatogonia. B. primary spermatocyte. C. stem spermatocytes. D. spermatids. 90. What is the structure that connects the epididymis with the ejaculatory duct? A. Cowper gland B. Urethra C. Vas deferens / it ends in seminal vesicle D. Seminal vesicle 91. The menstrual cycle is divided into the following phases except A. menses. / first phase B. proliferative phase. / second phase C. menopause. / is the cessation of menstrual cycle D. secretory phase. / fourth phase the third is ovulation 92. A condition in which a baby is born with undescended testes is called A. oligospermia. / underproduction of sperms B. hypospadias. / the urinary external meatus is opened to the ventral side of the penis. C. inguinal hernia. / protrusion of abdominal contents into the scrotum or through the abdominal wall. D. cryptorchidism. / literally means hidden testes 93. As the blastocyst develops, the inner cell mass forms a structure with two cavities called the A. yolk sac and morula. B. yolk sac and amniotic cavity. / in between these two cavities there is the embryonic disc C. amniotic cavity and morula. D. chorion and amniotic cavity. 94. The correct sequence of development of the fertilized egg is A. morula, zygote, blastocyst. X B. blastocyst, morula, zygote. X C. zygote, morula, blastocyst. / after 3 days (Morula with 16 cells), then at day 7-9 blastocyst => implantation at day 10 D. zygote, blastocyst, morula. 95. The three primary germ layers that form in the first trimester of pregnancy are the A. ectoderm, mesoderm, and epiderm. B. ectoderm, epiderm, and endoderm. C. mesoderm, endoderm, and exoderm. D. ectoderm, mesoderm, and endoderm. / ectoderm => epidermis and Nervous tissue, Mesoderm => kidneys, adrenals, liver, dermis, heart, muscles, bones / Endoderm => Res tract, thyroid, and GIT 96. This is a condition in the eye caused by an increase in pressure within the eyeball. A. Presbyopia / farsightedness B. Glaucoma C. Cataract / losing the transparency of the lens D. Hypertension / elevated blood pressure 97. This is an epigenetic condition caused by an over methylation of a section of DNA. A. Phenylketonuria / single gene disease B. Cystic fibrosis / single gene disease C. Tay-Sachs disease / hexosaminidase single gene. disease D. Fragile X syndrome 98. This is a single-gene recessive condition that involves the failure of an essential lipid- processing enzyme, hexosaminidase. A. Phenylketonuria B. Cystic fibrosis C. Tay-Sachs disease D. Fragile X syndrome 99. The normal skin pigment gene “A” is dominant to the recessive albino gene “a.” A person with genes Aa (genotype) A. would be albino. B. would have normal skin pigment. C. would be considered a carrier for albinism. D. Both B and C are correct. 100. This condition occurs in a female with a single X chromosome, XO. / Monosomy of sex chromosomes A. Down syndrome B. Klinefelter syndrome C. Turner syndrome / short stature, bicuspids aortic valve, mental retardation, sterility D. Fragile X syndrome 101. This condition is caused by a male having an extra X chromosome, XXY. / Trisomy of sex chromosomes A. Down syndrome B. Klinefelter syndrome / tall stature, long arm span, hypogonadism, mental retardation C. Turner syndrome D. Fragile X syndrome 102. This is a single-gene disease that causes an impairment of ion transport across the cell membrane. A. Phenylketonuria B. Cystic fibrosis / chloride ion => thick mucus secretion and salty tasting sweat C. Tay-Sachs disease D. Fragile X syndrome

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