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NURSING 213 FINAL EXAM AND PRACTICE EXAM
NEWEST 2025 COMPLETE 130 QUESTIONS AND
CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS (VERIFIED
ANSWERS) |ALREADY GRADED A+||LATEST
VERSION!!
A client has an AV fistula in the right upper arm for
hemodialysis treatments. When planning care for this
client, which measure should the nurse implement to
promote client safety?
A) Take blood pressures only on the right side to ensure
accuracy
B) Use the fistula for all venipunctures and IV infusions
C) Ensure that small clamps are attached to the fistula
dressing at all times
D) Assess the fistula for the presence of a bruit and a thrill
every 4 hours - Answer-D) Assess the fistula for the
presence of a bruit and a thrill every 4 hours
A client is scheduled for hydrotherapy for a burn dressing
change. Which action should the nurse take to ensure that
the procedure is most tolerable for the client?
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A) Ensure the client has a robe and slippers
B) Administer an analgesic 20 mins before therapy
C) Send dressing supplies with the client to hydrotherapy
D) Administer an IV antibiotic 30 mins prior to therapy -
Answer-B) Administer an analgesic 20 mins before
therapy
A client with Myasthenia Gravis is admitted to the hospital,
and the nursing history reveals that the client is taking
pyridostigmine. When assessing the client for the side
effects of this medication, the nurse should ask the client
about the presence of which occurance?
A) Mouth ulcers
B) Muscle cramps
C) Feelings of depression
D) Unexplained weight gain - Answer-B) Muscle Cramps
Rationale: Pyridostigmine is an anticholinesterase inhibitor
used to treat myasthenia gravis. Muscle cramps and small
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muscle contractions are common side effects and occur as
a result of overstimulation of neuromuscular receptors.
The nurse notes an isolated premature ventricular
contraction (PVC) on the cardiac monitor. Which action
should the nurse take?
A) Prepare for defibrillation
B) Continue to monitor the rhythm
C) Notify the HCP
D) Prepare to administer lidocaine hydrochloride - Answer-
B) Continue to monitor the rhythm
Rationale: As an isolated occurance, a PVC is not life
threatening. The nurse should continue to monitor the
patients rhythm. Frequent PVCs, however, maybe
precursors of a more life-threatening rhythm such as vtach
or vfib.
A client was admitted to the hospital 24 hours ago after
sustaining blunt force trauma to the chest. Which earliest
clinical manifestations of acute respiratory distress
syndrome (ARDS) should the nurse monitor for?
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A) Cyanosis and pallor
B) Diffuse crackles and rhonchi on chest auscultation
C) Increase in respiratory rate from 18 to 30 breaths per
minute
D) Haziness or "white out" appearance of lungs on chest
X-ray - Answer-C) Increase in respiratory rate from 18 to
30 breaths per minute
Rationale: ARDS usually develops within 24-48 hrs after
an initiating event, such as chest trauma. In most cases
tachypnea and dyspnea are the earliest clinical
manifestations as the body compensates for mild
hypoxemia through hyperventiliation. Cyanosis and pallor
are usually late signs of severe hypoxemia. In ARDS lung
sounds are initially clear but progress to crackles and
rhonchi as pulmonary edema occurs. Xrays will shouw a
"white out" appearance much later in the progression of
ARDS.
A client has developed atrial fibrillation and has a
ventricular rate of 150 beats per minute. The nurse should
assess the client for which effects of this cardiac
occurrence?
NURSING 213 FINAL EXAM AND PRACTICE EXAM
NEWEST 2025 COMPLETE 130 QUESTIONS AND
CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS (VERIFIED
ANSWERS) |ALREADY GRADED A+||LATEST
VERSION!!
A client has an AV fistula in the right upper arm for
hemodialysis treatments. When planning care for this
client, which measure should the nurse implement to
promote client safety?
A) Take blood pressures only on the right side to ensure
accuracy
B) Use the fistula for all venipunctures and IV infusions
C) Ensure that small clamps are attached to the fistula
dressing at all times
D) Assess the fistula for the presence of a bruit and a thrill
every 4 hours - Answer-D) Assess the fistula for the
presence of a bruit and a thrill every 4 hours
A client is scheduled for hydrotherapy for a burn dressing
change. Which action should the nurse take to ensure that
the procedure is most tolerable for the client?
,2|Page
A) Ensure the client has a robe and slippers
B) Administer an analgesic 20 mins before therapy
C) Send dressing supplies with the client to hydrotherapy
D) Administer an IV antibiotic 30 mins prior to therapy -
Answer-B) Administer an analgesic 20 mins before
therapy
A client with Myasthenia Gravis is admitted to the hospital,
and the nursing history reveals that the client is taking
pyridostigmine. When assessing the client for the side
effects of this medication, the nurse should ask the client
about the presence of which occurance?
A) Mouth ulcers
B) Muscle cramps
C) Feelings of depression
D) Unexplained weight gain - Answer-B) Muscle Cramps
Rationale: Pyridostigmine is an anticholinesterase inhibitor
used to treat myasthenia gravis. Muscle cramps and small
,3|Page
muscle contractions are common side effects and occur as
a result of overstimulation of neuromuscular receptors.
The nurse notes an isolated premature ventricular
contraction (PVC) on the cardiac monitor. Which action
should the nurse take?
A) Prepare for defibrillation
B) Continue to monitor the rhythm
C) Notify the HCP
D) Prepare to administer lidocaine hydrochloride - Answer-
B) Continue to monitor the rhythm
Rationale: As an isolated occurance, a PVC is not life
threatening. The nurse should continue to monitor the
patients rhythm. Frequent PVCs, however, maybe
precursors of a more life-threatening rhythm such as vtach
or vfib.
A client was admitted to the hospital 24 hours ago after
sustaining blunt force trauma to the chest. Which earliest
clinical manifestations of acute respiratory distress
syndrome (ARDS) should the nurse monitor for?
, 4|Page
A) Cyanosis and pallor
B) Diffuse crackles and rhonchi on chest auscultation
C) Increase in respiratory rate from 18 to 30 breaths per
minute
D) Haziness or "white out" appearance of lungs on chest
X-ray - Answer-C) Increase in respiratory rate from 18 to
30 breaths per minute
Rationale: ARDS usually develops within 24-48 hrs after
an initiating event, such as chest trauma. In most cases
tachypnea and dyspnea are the earliest clinical
manifestations as the body compensates for mild
hypoxemia through hyperventiliation. Cyanosis and pallor
are usually late signs of severe hypoxemia. In ARDS lung
sounds are initially clear but progress to crackles and
rhonchi as pulmonary edema occurs. Xrays will shouw a
"white out" appearance much later in the progression of
ARDS.
A client has developed atrial fibrillation and has a
ventricular rate of 150 beats per minute. The nurse should
assess the client for which effects of this cardiac
occurrence?
